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Biology 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a heterotroph

A

something that is dependent on outside sources for food

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2
Q

What is the heterotroph hypothesis

A
  1. salts, methane, ammonia, water
  2. combined with energy from sun
  3. Made (sugar, amino acids, nucleotides)
  4. Called the primordial soup
  5. these combined to form macromolecules
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3
Q

what is a coacervate droplet

A

a cluster of collodial molecules surrounded by a shell of water. they could absorb and metabolize materials

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4
Q

what did these coacervate droplets turn into

A

the first primitive cells capable of reproduction

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5
Q

What was the problem with some of the first heterotrophs

A

they were using energy faster than they could get it

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6
Q

what are autotrophs

A

organisms that could provide their own energy

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7
Q

What did the autotrophs do to the ozone

A

they fixed CO2 and released O2, this changed it from a reducing atmosphere to an oxidizing one.

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8
Q

What is an autotrophic anaerobe

A

chemosynthetic bacteria

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9
Q

What is an autotrophic aerobe

A

green plants and photo plankton

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10
Q

What is a heterotrophic anaerobe

A

yeast

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11
Q

what is a heterotrophic aerobe

A

ameobas, earthworms and humans

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12
Q

what is the protoplasm

A

the important elements and minerals that make up the substance of life

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13
Q

What is the ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in CARBS

A

1:2:1

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14
Q

what reactions join disaccharides

A

dehydration synthesis

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15
Q

what classifies a dehydration reaction

A

water leaves

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16
Q

what reactions break down polysaccharides

A

hydrolysis

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17
Q

What is the ratio of H:O

A

much more that 2:1

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18
Q

what types of reactions attach fatty acids to glycerol

A

dehydration

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19
Q

What is a phospholipid

A

a glycerol with two fatty acids a phosphate group and a nitrogen containing alcohol.

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20
Q

What is lecithin

A

a phospholipid a major constituent of cell membranes

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21
Q

What are some examples of phospholipids

A

lecithin

cephalin

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22
Q

What is cephalin

A

found in the brain, nerves, and neural tissues

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23
Q

What are waxes

A

esters of fatty acids and monohydroxylic alcohols

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24
Q

Where are waxes found

A 
protective coatings of 
skin 
fur
leaves of higher plants 
exoskeleton of many insects
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25
Q

What are steroids

A

three fused cycloheaxane rings and a cyclopentane ring

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26
Q

What are some steroids

A 
cholesterol
sex hormones
testosterone
estrogen
corticosteroids
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27
Q

What are carotenoids

A

fatty acid-like carbon chains with conjugated double bonds, and carrying six membered carbon rings at each end.

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28
Q

What do caretenoids do

A

they are the pigment that produce red, yellow, orange, and brown in plants and animals

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29
Q

What are the subgroups of carotenoids

A

carotenes

xanthophylls

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30
Q

What are porphyrins

A

molecules with four joined pyrrole rings, often complexed with metal.

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31
Q

What is another name for porphyrins

A

tetrapyrroles

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32
Q

What is an example of a porphyrin

A

heme complex with Fe in hemoglobin

chlorophyll complexed with Mg

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33
Q

What are proteins

A

polymers of amino acids

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34
Q

What are the bonds between amino acids

A

peptide bonds

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35
Q

how are peptide bonds formed

A

dehydration reaction

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36
Q

What makes protein primary structure

A

the sequence of amino acids

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37
Q

What makes protein secondary structures

A

The regional folding of a polypeptide

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38
Q

What are examples of protein secondary structures

A

a helix

b sheet

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39
Q

What can proteins be classified by

A

structure

function

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40
Q

What are simple proteins

A

proteins made only of amino acids

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41
Q

what are albumins and globulins

A

globular proteins that act as carriers or enzymes

they are usually found in the serum

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42
Q

What are scleroproteins

A

fibrous proteins that acts as structural proteins

Collagen

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43
Q

What are conjugated proteins

A

they are proteins with a simple proteins portion and at least one non-protein fraction

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44
Q

what are lipoproteins

A

proteins bound to a lipid

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45
Q

what are mucoproteins

A

proteins bound to carbs

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46
Q

what are chromoproteins

A

proteins bound to pigmented molecules

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47
Q

what are metalloproteins

A

proteins complexed with a metal ion

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48
Q

What are nucleoproteins

A

proteins bound to nucleic acids (DNA/RNA)

in DNA it’s bound to histone or protamine

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49
Q

What are proteinhormones

A

proteins that acts as chemical messengers secreted into the blood
Insulin and ACTH

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50
Q

What are enzymes

A

biological catalysts that increase the rate of reaction

amylase, lipase ATPase

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51
Q

What are structural proteins

A

they participate in the physical support of cells or tissues
Extracellular (collagen, bone, tendons)
Intracellular (cell membrane proteins)

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52
Q

What are transport proteins

A

hemoglobin

cytochromes

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53
Q

What are antibodies

A

these bind to foreign bodies (antibodies) and start the chain of events to protect against them

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54
Q

What are coenzymes

A

often non protein things that help in catabolism

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55
Q

What is the lock and key theory of enzymes

A

active site is structurally complimentary to the substrate

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56
Q

What is the induced fit theory of enzymes

A

the active site has flexability of shape, as the substrate gets near the active site changes shape and accepts the substrate

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57
Q

Can enzymes work reversably

A

yep

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58
Q

What is the effect of temperature on enzyme action

A

increase in temperature increases rate of enzyme reaction

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59
Q

What is the optimal temperature for enzyme action

A

40 degrees celcius

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60
Q

What is the maximal pH for enzymes

A

7.2

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61
Q

what are some protein that like acidic conditions

A

pepsin (pH=2) stomach

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62
Q

What are some proteins that like basic conditions

A

pancreatic enzymes which work in the small intestine (pH=8.5)

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63
Q

What is the effect of concentration on enzymes

A

the higher the concentrations of Enzymes and substrates the higher the reaction rate, until it has reached Vmax

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64
Q

What is hydrolysis (enzyme)

A

reactions that digest large molecules into smaller components

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65
Q

What are some hydrolysis enzymes

A

lactase
proteasess
lipases

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66
Q

What is synthesis (enzyme)

A

enzyme reactions that build things up

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67
Q

What are cofactors

A

non-protein molecules that are required by enzymes for the enzymes to work

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68
Q

What are examples of cofactors

A

Zn, Fe

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69
Q

What are prosthetic groups for enzymes

A

cofactors that are covalently bound to the enzyme

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70
Q

What are nucleic acids

A

they are polymers of nucleotides.

DNA/RNA

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71
Q

What are nucleotides made up of

A

a base, sugar, and phosphate group

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72
Q

Summary of the cell theory

A
  • all livings things are composed of cells
  • cells are the basic functional unit of life
  • cells arise only from pre-existing cells
  • cells carry genetic info in the form of DNA, this is passed on from parent to daughter during division
  • energy flow occurs within cells
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73
Q

what is a compound light microscope

A

a microscope with two lenses that is used to observe non-living specimen. (staining leads to cell death)

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74
Q

What is phase contrast microscopy

A

a type of microscope used to observe living specimen

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75
Q

What is an electron microscope

A

a way using electrons to get even higher magnification than the others. It can’t be used on living specimen either

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76
Q

Cell Membrane

A
  1. exhitibs selective permiability
  2. phospholipid bilayer
  3. permeable to small, non polar molecules
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77
Q

Nucleus

A
  1. houses DNA held by histones to form chromosomes
  2. nucleolus (where rRNA synthesis occurs
  3. surrounded b a nuclear membrane
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78
Q

Ribosome

A
  1. protein production
  2. found in the cytoplasm
  3. found on the endoplasmic reticulum
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79
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum

A
  1. Transport of materials throughout the cell
  2. packages materials to be secreted from the cell
  3. Smooth and rough (Ribosomes)
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80
Q

Golgi apparatus

A
  1. recieves vesicles from the smooth ER
  2. modifies vesicles with glycosylation, and repackages them
  3. pushes them to the cell surface by exocytosis
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81
Q

Mitochondria

A

1, site of aerobic respiration

  1. suppliers of energy
  2. inner and outer phospholipid bilayer
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82
Q

Cytoplasm

A
  1. The jelly of the cell
  2. most of the cells metabolic activity occurs here
  3. transport within the cell happens by cyclosis
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83
Q

Vacuole

A
  1. membrane bound sacs involved in transport of materials
  2. larger than vesicles
  3. more likely found in plant cells than animals cells
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84
Q

Centrioles

A
  1. microtubule involved in spindle organization during cell division
  2. plants don’t have them
  3. in animals cells they are opposite eachother in the centrosome
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85
Q

Lysosome

A
  1. membrane bound vesicles with hydrolytic enzymes
  2. break down things ingested by the cell
  3. cells commit suicide by rupturing the lysosome (autolysis)
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86
Q

Cytoskeleton

A
  1. made of microtubules, and microfilaments
  2. mechanical support, maintains shape
  3. functions in cell mobility
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87
Q

Do cells specialize? how?

A

yes they do, and it’s by changing the distribution of organelles to become more proficient at certain activities

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88
Q

What are the methods of transport across the cell membrane

A

Simple diffusion - osmosis
FAcilitated diffusion
active transport

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89
Q

What is simple diffusion

A

net movement of dissolved particles down their concentration gradient, requires no external source of energy

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90
Q

What is osmosis

A

simple diffusion of water

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91
Q

What is an isotonic solution

A

when the internal and external solutions have the same concentration of non-penetrating solutes.

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92
Q

what happens in an isotonic solution

A

the cell remains normal

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93
Q

what is a hypotonic solution

A

when the external solution is less concentrated with non penetrating solutes.

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94
Q

What happens in a hypotonic solution

A

the cell swells up because the water rushes in, it could lead to lyse (when the cell bursts)

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95
Q

What is a hypertonic solution

A

when the external soultion has a higher concentration of non-penetrating solutes than the cells internal solution

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96
Q

What happens with a hypertonic solution

A

water leaves the cell causing it to shrivel (this is called plasmolysis)

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97
Q

Do some organisms avoid to osmosis problem

A

yes, freshwater protozoa have contracting vacuoles that pump out excess water to prevent bursting

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98
Q

What is facilitated diffusion

A

another type of passive transport, movement of particles down their concentration gradient through special channels or carrier proteins

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99
Q

What is passive vs. active transport

A

passive requires no external energy, active does

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100
Q

What is active transport

A

net movement of particles against their concentration gradient with the help of transport proteins. requires either chemical energy (ATP) or an electrochemical gradient

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101
Q

What is circulation

A

the transportation of material within cells and throughout the body of a multicellular organism

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102
Q

what is brownian movement

A

the spreading movement of suspended particles throughout the cytoplasm of the cell via the kinetic energy created by collisions

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103
Q

What is cyclosis

A

also called streaming, its the circular motion of the cytoplasm around the cell transport molecules

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104
Q

how does the endoplasmic reticulum help with intracellular circulation

A

provides channels throughout the cytoplasm and provides a direct passageway from the plasma membrane to the nuclear membrane

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105
Q

What are the types of intracellular circulation

A
  1. brownian movement
  2. cyclosis
  3. Streaming
  4. Endoplasmic Reticulum
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106
Q

What are the types of extracellular circulation

A
  1. diffusion

2. circulatory system

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107
Q

What is diffusion

A

when cells are in direct or close contact with the external environment. can transport food or oxygen.
includes movement from the cells into the interstitial fluid

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108
Q

What is the circulatory system

A

when cells are too far from the external environment to do diffusion. usually requires vessels to transport fluid and a pump to drive the circulation.

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109
Q

What is the purpose of cell division for unicellular organisms

A

reproduction

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110
Q

What is the purpose of cell division for multicellular organisms

A

growth, development, replacement of worn-out cells

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111
Q

What is karyokinesis

A

nuclear division

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112
Q

what is cytokinesis

A

cell division

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113
Q

What are the phases of mitosis

A
  1. interphase
  2. prophase
  3. metaphase
  4. anaphase
  5. telophase
  6. cytokinesis
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114
Q

how much of a cells life is spent in interphase

A

90%

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115
Q

What happens during interphase

A

each chromosome is replicated so it can be distributed to both daughter cells upon division

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116
Q

What are sister chromatids

A

exact copies of each chromosome

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117
Q

where are sister chromatids held together

A

centromere

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118
Q

what is the DNA like during interphase

A

uncoiled and invisible (chromatin)

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119
Q

What is a chromosome

A
  1. a single chromatid

2. pair of chromatids attached at a centromere

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120
Q

what is a diploid

A

a cell with a pair of homologous chromosomes

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121
Q

What are haploids

A

when there is only one half of a pair of chromosomes (gametes)

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122
Q

What is prophase

A

Initiation of mitosis

  1. Chromosomes condense
  2. centriole pairs separate and move to opposite poles
  3. spindle apparatus forms between centrioles
  4. nuclear membrane dissolves
  5. spindles interact with chromosomes
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123
Q

What is metaphase

A
  1. Centriole pairs are at opposite poles
  2. fibers of the spindle apparatus attach to each chromatid at the centromere to align the chromosomes at the center of the cell
  3. This forms the metaphase plate
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124
Q

What is Anaphase

A
  1. Centromeres split so that each chromatid has it’s own centromere. (sister chromatids separate)
  2. the fibers of the spindle apparatus (microtubules) shorten and pull the sister chromatids to opposite parts of the cell
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125
Q

What is Telophase

A
  1. Spindle apparatus dissapears
  2. Nuclear membrane forms around each set of newly formed chromosomes
  3. Each nucleus contains the same number of chromosomes as the original parent cell
  4. The chromosomes uncoil
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126
Q

What is cytokinesis

A
  1. Cytoplasm divides into two daughter cells (each with a complete nucleas, and all organelles)
  2. Cleavage furrow forms and eventually pinches off to form two new daughter cells
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127
Q

what are the two main differences between plant and animal cells during cell division

A
  1. Plant cells don’t have centrioles, the spindle apparatus just forms from microtubule organizing centers
  2. Cytokinesis in plants doesn’t use a cleavage furrow, a cell plate forms (jezz ball)
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128
Q

What is meiosis

A

the creation of sex cells (gametes)

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129
Q

How does sexual reproduction occur

A

the synthesis of two gametes

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130
Q

What is the product of mitosis

A

two diploid daughter cells

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131
Q

What is the product of meiosis

A

four haploid gametes

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132
Q

What are the phases of meiosis

A 
1. INterphase
First Meiotic Division
2. Prophase 1
3. Metaphase 1
4. Anaphase 1
5. Telophase 1
Second Meiotic Division
6. Metaphase 2
7. Anaphase 2
8. Telophase 2
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133
Q

can crossing over occur in mitosis

A

nope

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134
Q

can crossing over occur in meiosis

A

yep

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135
Q

What happens in meiosis prophase 1

A
  1. Chromatin condenses into chromosomes
  2. spindle apparatus forms
  3. nuclear membrane dissapears
  4. Homologous Chromosomes (one from each parent coding for the same traits) come together and intertwine (Synapsis)
  5. Chiastima (breaks at overlapping points) can lead to crossing over
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136
Q

what does recombination of chromosomes in prophase 1 do

A

it leads to increased genetic diversity

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137
Q

What is a tetrad

A

when two homologous and duplicated chromosomes join together (there are four sets of genes that code for the same traits)

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138
Q

What happens in meiosis metaphase 1

A

homologous pairs (tetrads) align along the metaphase plate, and each one attaches to a separate spindle fiber by its kinetochore

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139
Q

What happens in ahaphase 1 of meiosis

A
  1. Homologous paris separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell (Disjuction) Maternal origin DNA and Paternal origin DNA are pulled to separate sides
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140
Q

What is important to remember about anaphase 1 of meiosis

A

each daughter cell gets a random combination of maternal and paternal DNA in it.

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141
Q

What happens in telophase 1 of meiosis

A

nuclear membrane forms around each new nucleus, and each cell still has a chromosome of paired sister chromatids joined at the centromere

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142
Q

What happens in the Second Meiotic division of meiosis

A

basically just mitosis except there is no chromosomal replication first

  1. chromosomes line up
  2. half pulled to one side, other half to other
  3. nuclear membrane forms
  4. cytokinesis
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143
Q

How many of the 4 haploids produced by meiosis become functional gametes in human females

A

1

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144
Q

What are the requirements of sexual reproduction

A
  1. production of functional sex cells (gametes) by adult organisms
  2. Union of these cells (fertilization or conjugation) to form a zygote
  3. Development of the zygote into another adult
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145
Q

What are gonads

A

organs that produce gametes

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146
Q

What is a hermaphrodite

A

species that have both male and female reproductive parts

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147
Q

What are two examples of hermaphroditic species

A

hydra

earthworm

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148
Q

What is spermatogenesis

A

sperm production

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149
Q

where does spermatogenesis occur

A

seminiferous tubules of the testes

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150
Q

What is the process of spermatogenesis

A
  1. Diploid cells (spermatogonia) undergo Meiosis to make four haploid cells (sperm)
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151
Q

What are the parts of a mature sperm

A

head
tail
neck
body

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152
Q

What does the head of a sperm consist of

A

almost entirely the nucleus containing the parental genome

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153
Q

What is another name for the tail of the sperm

A

flagellum

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154
Q

What does the tail of the sperm do

A

propels the sperm

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155
Q

What is in the neck and body of the sperm, and what do they do

A

mitochondria, they provide energy for the cell

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156
Q

What is Oogenesis

A

the production of female gametes

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157
Q

Where does Oogenesis occur

A

in the ovaries

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158
Q

what is the process of oogenesis

A

one diploid primary female sex cell undergoes meiosis and produces a single mature egg (Ovum)

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159
Q

What is a biproduct ofeach meiotic division of the female sex cell

A

a polar body

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160
Q

What is a polar body

A

a single cell that contains a little more than the nucleus

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161
Q

What is the Ovum (egg)

A

A large cell containing most of the cytoplasm, RNA, organelles, nutrients that are needed by a developing embryo

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162
Q

What happens to the polar bodies produced by oogenesis

A

they rapidly degenerate

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163
Q

What are the differences between oogenesis and spermatogenesis

A
  1. sperm - creates 4 haploid cells, oog - creates 1 haploid cell
  2. Sperm - no polar bodies, oog - polar bodies
  3. sperm - never ending process, oog - females only have a certain number of eggs
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164
Q

What phase are female eggs frozen in before ovulation

A

prophase of meiosis 1

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165
Q

When are the meiotic divisions for eggs completed

A

meiosis 1 is completed at ovulation

meiosis 2 is completed at fertilization

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166
Q

What is fertalization

A

the union of the egg and the sperm

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167
Q

What is formed from fertilization

A

a zygote with a diploid number of chromosomes

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168
Q

What are the two types of fertilization

A

internal and external

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169
Q

when does external fertilization happen

A

only occurs in vertebrates that reproduce in water.

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170
Q

what happens in external fertilization

A

females deposit their eggs into the water and males deposit sperm in the vicinity. The sperm then use their tails to swim through the water to the eggs

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171
Q

What happens to chance of fertilization via external fertilization

A

the chances of fertilization decrease, that is why many many eggs are laid.

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172
Q

When is internal fertilization used

A

in terrestrial vertebrates

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173
Q

What happens in internal fertilization

A

the male deposits semen into the female

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174
Q

What happens to the chance of fertilizaiton via internal fertilization

A

the chances are increased

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175
Q

What happens when you have higher probability of fertilzation

A

females produce fewer eggs

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176
Q

What else besides an increased probability of fertilization can cause fewer eggs produced in females

A

early development of offspring occurs outside the mothers body = more eggs are laid to increase chances of survival

More parental after birth = fewer eggs produced

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177
Q

How can you remember the pathway of sperm

A 
SEVEN UP
Semeniferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
(nothing)
Urethra 
Penis
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178
Q

What else do the testis produce

A

testosterone

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179
Q

What does testosterone do

A

regulates secondary male characteristics

  • facial and pubic hair
  • voice changes
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180
Q

What are the parts of the female reproductive system

A 
Ovaries
Fallopian tubes
Uterus
Cervix 
Vagina
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181
Q

What does the ovary consist of

A

thousands of follicles

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182
Q

what are follicles

A

multilayered sacs of cells that contain, nourish, and protect the immature ovum

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183
Q

What prodcues estrogen

A

the follicle cell

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184
Q

What happens to immature ovum once a month

A

they are ejected into the oviduct (fallopian tube)

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185
Q

what is the site of sperm deposition

A

vagina

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186
Q

What are the hormones produced in the ovaries

A

estrogen and progesterone

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187
Q

What kinds of hormones are the ovarian hormones

A

steroid hormones

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188
Q

What do estrogens do

A
  • stimulate the development of the female reproductive tract
  • contribute to female secondary sex characteristics
  • contribute to sex drive
  • thicken the endometrium
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189
Q

What do estrogens do to the uterine wall (endometrium)

A

cause it to thicken

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190
Q

What is the endometrium

A

uterine wall

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191
Q

What things secrete estrogens

A

the ovarian follicles and the corpus leteum

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192
Q

When and from where is progesterone secreted

A

it is secreted by the corpus luteum during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

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193
Q

What determines the secretion of estrogen and progesterone

A

LH and FSH (ant. Pit. Hormones) those are regulated by GnRH

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194
Q

what hormonal secretions play important roles in the menstrual cycle

A
  • ovarian
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary
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195
Q

What are the phases of the menstrual cycle

A
  1. Follicular Phase
  2. Ovulation
  3. Luteal Phase
  4. Menstruation
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196
Q

What starts the follicular phase

A

the cessation of the menstrual flow from the previous cycle

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197
Q

What are the levels of reproductive hormones like during the start of the follicular phase

A

they are at their lowest, which means there is almost no negative feedback to the hypothalamus

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198
Q

What happens when there is no more negative feedback to the hypothalamus during the follicular phase

A

the hypothalamus can secrete GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)

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199
Q

What does GnRH do during the follicular phase

A

it stimulates the release of FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)

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200
Q

What does FSH do during the follicular phase

A

promotes the development of the follicle in the ovary, which causes it to grow

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201
Q

What happens when the follicle is stimulated by FSH in the follicular phase

A

the follicle grows and secretes Estrogen

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202
Q

What is ovulation

A

the bursting of a mature ovarian follicle, which causes the release of the ovum, that is captured by the oviduct.

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203
Q

What causes ovulation

A

a surge in LH (leiutinizing hormone)

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204
Q

What preceeds and partially causes the peak in LH levels that causes ovulation

A

an increase in estrogen that is being produced by the mature follicle

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205
Q

When does the luteal phase begin

A

when the follicle is ruptured by the increase in LH creating the corpus luteum

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206
Q

What does the corpus luteum do

A

secretes estrogen and progesterone

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207
Q

What does progesterone do in the luteal phase

A

it causes the glands of the endometrium to mature and produce secretions that prepare the uterus for implantation of the embryo.

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208
Q

How can you remember the pathway of sperm

A 
SEVEN UP
Semeniferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory duct
(nothing)
Urethra 
Penis
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209
Q

What else do the testis produce

A

testosterone

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210
Q

What does testosterone do

A

regulates secondary male characteristics

  • facial and pubic hair
  • voice changes
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211
Q

What are the parts of the female reproductive system

A 
Ovaries
Fallopian tubes
Uterus
Cervix 
Vagina
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212
Q

What happens in the place of menstruation if the ovum is fertalized

A
  • the developing placenta implants produces hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin)
  • hCG maintains the corpus luteum
  • Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone, which maintains the uterus and endometrium
  • Eventually the placenta takes over the production of estrogen and progesterone
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213
Q

what are follicles

A

multilayered sacs of cells that contain, nourish, and protect the immature ovum

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214
Q

What prodcues estrogen

A

the follicle cell

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215
Q

What is the gametophyte generation like

A
  1. the haploid gametophtye generation produces gametes by mitosis.
  2. Fertalization by the male and female gametes restores the diploid sporophyte generation
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216
Q

what is the site of sperm deposition

A

vagina

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217
Q

What are the hormones produced in the ovaries

A

estrogen and progesterone

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218
Q

What kinds of hormones are the ovarian hormones

A

steroid hormones

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219
Q

What do estrogens do

A
  • stimulate the development of the female reproductive tract
  • contribute to female secondary sex characteristics
  • contribute to sex drive
  • thicken the endometrium
220
Q

What do estrogens do to the uterine wall (endometrium)

A

cause it to thicken

221
Q

What is the endometrium

A

uterine wall

222
Q

What things secrete estrogens

A

the ovarian follicles and the corpus leteum

223
Q

When and from where is progesterone secreted

A

it is secreted by the corpus luteum during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

224
Q

What determines the secretion of estrogen and progesterone

A

LH and FSH (ant. Pit. Hormones) those are regulated by GnRH

225
Q

what hormonal secretions play important roles in the menstrual cycle

A
  • ovarian
  • hypothalamus
  • anterior pituitary
226
Q

What are the phases of the menstrual cycle

A
  1. Follicular Phase
  2. Ovulation
  3. Luteal Phase
  4. Menstruation
227
Q

What starts the follicular phase

A

the cessation of the menstrual flow from the previous cycle

228
Q

What are the levels of reproductive hormones like during the start of the follicular phase

A

they are at their lowest, which means there is almost no negative feedback to the hypothalamus

229
Q

What happens when there is no more negative feedback to the hypothalamus during the follicular phase

A

the hypothalamus can secrete GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)

230
Q

what is the anther

A

a terminal sac of the stamen that produces haploid sportes that develop into pollen grains

231
Q

What does FSH do during the follicular phase

A

promotes the development of the follicle in the ovary, which causes it to grow

232
Q

What happens when the follicle is stimulated by FSH in the follicular phase

A

the follicle grows and secretes Estrogen

233
Q

What is ovulation

A

the bursting of a mature ovarian follicle, which causes the release of the ovum, that is captured by the oviduct.

234
Q

What causes ovulation

A

a surge in LH (leiutinizing hormone)

235
Q

What preceeds and partially causes the peak in LH levels that causes ovulation

A

an increase in estrogen that is being produced by the mature follicle

236
Q

When does the luteal phase begin

A

when the follicle is ruptured by the increase in LH creating the corpus luteum

237
Q

What does the corpus luteum do

A

secretes estrogen and progesterone

238
Q

What does progesterone do in the luteal phase

A

it causes the glands of the endometrium to mature and produce secretions that prepare the uterus for implantation of the embryo.

239
Q

Together progesterone and estrogen are essential for the maintenance of the endometrium

A

uh huh

240
Q

When causes menstruation occur

A
  1. the ovum in not fertilized
  2. the corpus luteum atrophies
  3. This causes a drop in estrogen and progesterone levels
  4. so the endometrium sloughs off
  5. this gives rise to the menstrual flow (menses)
241
Q

what is another name for menstrual flow

A

menses

242
Q

What happens in the place of menstruation if the ovum is fertalized

A
  • the developing placenta implants produces hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin)
  • hCG maintains the corpus luteum
  • Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone, which maintains the uterus and endometrium
  • Eventually the placenta takes over the production of estrogen and progesterone
243
Q

What is the life cycle of plants like

A

sporophyte (2n) –> Spore (1n) –> Gametophyte (1n) –> Gametes (1n) –> fertalization –> Sporophyte

244
Q

What is the female gametophyte in flowering plants

A

embryo sac

245
Q

What is the gametophyte generation like

A

the haploid gametophtye generation produces gametes by mitosis.

246
Q

How do gametophytes reproduce

A

sexually (male and female gametes fertalize to produce the sporophtye

247
Q

How do sporophytes reproduce

A

asexually

248
Q

What is an example of a species with the gametophyte as the dominant generation.

A

Mosses (in this case the sporophyte is a smaller short-lived organism that depends on the gametophyte for energy and nutrients)

249
Q

What is the sporophyte generation like

A
  1. the diploid sporophyte produces a haploid (monoploid) spore my meiosis
  2. The spore then divides by mitosis to produce the haploid gametophyte generation
250
Q

What is an example of a species with the sporophyte as the dominant generation

A

Ferns

251
Q

What is an angiosperm

A

a flowering plant that has gametophytes consisting of a few cells that last for a very short time

252
Q

What is an example of an angiosperm

A

woody flower plants

253
Q

What is the reproductive structure of angiosperms

A

flower

254
Q

do some species have male and female flowers

A

yep, some are both in one

255
Q

what is the male part of the flower

A

stamen

256
Q

what is the female part of the flower

A

pistils

257
Q

what is fission

A

a simple form of asexual reproduction seen in prokaryotic organims

258
Q

what are the parts of the stamen

A

the filament and the anther

259
Q

what is the filament

A

a thin stalk like thing that hold up the anther

260
Q

what is the anther

A

a terminal sac of the stamen that produces haploid sportes that develop into pollen grains

261
Q

What is the pistil

A

the female organ of the flower that has three parts: stigma, style, and ovary

262
Q

What are the parts of the pisitl

A

the stigma, style, and ovary

263
Q

What is the stigma

A

the sticky-top part of the pistil that catches the pollen

264
Q

What is the style

A

the tube like structure that connects the stigma to the ovary

265
Q

what is the ovary

A

the enlarged base of the pistil, it has one or more ovules, and each ovule contains a monoploid egg nucleus.

266
Q

What are the petals of the flower

A

they are specialized leaves surrounding and protecting the pistil.

267
Q

What is the purpose of scents and colors of flowers

A

they attract insects which transfer pollen between plants to allow for fertalization

268
Q

What are the sepals

A

green leaves that cover and protect the flower bud early during development. they may remain after the flower blooms

269
Q

What are the parts of the flower

A

stamen
pistil
petals
sepals

270
Q

What is the male gametophyte in flowering plants

A

the pollen grain

271
Q

what makes up the pollen grain

A

a tube nucleus, and a generative nucleus

272
Q

what happens when the pollen grain gets to the stigma

A

the generative nucleus divides to form sperm nuclei

273
Q

what is the male gamete in flowering plants

A

sperm nuclei

274
Q

What does the embryo sac contain

A

two polar nuclei (endosperms) and an egg nucleus

275
Q

When does fertalization in flower plants occur

A

when the sperm nuclei enter the embryo sac.

276
Q

What happens upon fertalization in flowering plants

A

one sperm nuclei fuses with the egg nucleus to form the diploid zygote. The other sperm nuclei fuses with the polar bodies (2) to form the endosperm (triploid, 3n)

277
Q

What does the endosperm do in flowering plants

A

Provides food for the embryonic plant

278
Q

what happens to the endosperm in dicotyledonous plants

A

the endosperm is absorbed by the seed leaves (cotyledons)

279
Q

What is asexual reproduction

A

reproduction without fertilization

280
Q

How does asexual reproduction happen

A

a single parent cell divides into a new organism

281
Q

what is special about offspring from asexual reproduction

A

they are identical to the parent cells genetically. (except for random mutations)

282
Q

What are the types of asexual reproduction

A

Fission
Budding
regeneration
parthenogenesis

283
Q

How do prokaryotes reproduce

A

asexually

284
Q

among animals what kinds reproduce asexually

A

invertebrates

285
Q

do all plants use asexual reproduction

A

yep, in some form

286
Q

what is fission

A

a simple form of asexual reproduction seen in prokaryotic organims

287
Q

what kind of reproduction do prokaryotes do

A

binary fission (asexual)

288
Q

what happens in fission

A
  1. DNA replicates
  2. New plasma membranes and cell walls grow inward along the midline of the cell
  3. the cell divides into two equal sized cell with a duplicate of the parent chromosome
289
Q

for what organisms does fission occur

A 
in single celled organisms 
amoebae
paramecia
algae
bacteria
290
Q

What is budding

A

replication of the nucleus followed by unequal cytokinesis

291
Q

What are the steps of budding

A
  1. Nucleus and DNA replicates
  2. cell membrane pinches off replicated nucleus forming a smaller but genetically identical cell
  3. sometimes they stay attached, sometimes they seperate immediately
292
Q

When does budding occur

A

in hydra and yeast

293
Q

What is regeneration

A

regrowth of a lost or injured body part

294
Q

How is regeneration done

A

by mitosis

295
Q

What are some unique examples of regeneration

A

a Starfish can lose an arm and regrow it, it can ever regrow it’s body if the arm has a part of the central disk

296
Q

What does the regeneration of body parts depend on

A

the extent of nerve damage to the severed body part

297
Q

What is parthenogensis

A

the development of an unfertalized egg into an adult organism

298
Q

What are some example of parthenogenesis

A

bees and ants (the males develop from unfertalized eggs)

the females and the queen come from fertalized eggs

299
Q

What are some examples of artificial parthenogenesis

A

eggs of frogs and rabbits can be stimulated to develop with stimulation or a pinprick

300
Q

What is alternation of generations

A

all plants exhibit it, it is when a diploid generation is succeeded by a haploid generation

301
Q

What is the process of spore formation

A

the diploid sporophyte generation produces haploid spores that develop into the haploid gametophyte generation

302
Q

What is the outside of spores like

A

they have hard coverings that prevent the loss of water

303
Q

What is vegetative propogation

A

when undifferentiated tissues in plants provide a source of cells that can develop into an adult plant

304
Q

What are the tissues in plants that allow them to participate in vegetative propogation

A

Meristems

305
Q

What are the two types of vegetative propogation

A

natural and artificial

306
Q

What are the advantages of vegetative propogation

A
  1. It introduces no genetic variation

2. it is a rapid form of reproduction

307
Q

What are 4 examples of natural vegetative propogation

A

Bulbs
Tubers
Runners
Rhizomes

308
Q

What plants naturally do vegetative propogation by bulbs

A

tulips and daffodils

the bulbs split to form several bulbs

309
Q

What plants do natural vegetative propogation by tubers

A

potatoes

the eye of the potato can develop into adult plants

310
Q

What are tubers

A

underground stems with buds (potatoes)

311
Q

What are runners

A

stems running above and along the ground extending from the main stem. they can produce new roots and upright stems

312
Q

What are some examples of plants that do natural vegetative propagation by runners

A

strawberries and lawn grass

313
Q

What are Rhizomes (stolons)

A

woody underground stems that can develop into upright stems

314
Q

what are some plants that do natural vegetative propagation by rhizomes

A

ferns and iris plants

315
Q

What are the two ways that artificial vegetative propagation can be done

A
  1. a cut piece of stem can develop new roots in water or moist ground
  2. (Blackberries and Strawberries) stems that are bent to the ground and covered with soil can take root
316
Q

What is the process called when you bend down plants (blackberries and strawberries), bury them and they take root

A

layering

317
Q

What is the synthetic hormone called that can be used to accelerate root formation

A

auxins

318
Q

What is the basic unit of heredity

A

the gene

319
Q

What are genes composed of

A

DNA

320
Q

where are genes located

A

on the chromosome

321
Q

What are the alternative forms of a gene called

A

alleles

322
Q

What is someones genetic makeup called

A

genotype

323
Q

what is the physical manifestation of their genetic makeup

A

phenotype

324
Q

Are all phenotypes the manifestation of one genotype

A

no, they can be, or they can be the manifestations of multiple genotypes

325
Q

Who developed the basic principles of genetics by the garden pea

A

Gregor mendel

326
Q

How did mendel get to the basic principles of genetics

A

he crossed pea plants and studied the statistical inheritance of traits

327
Q

what is mendels first law

A

the law of segregation

328
Q

What are mendels four principles of inheritance

A
  1. Genes exist is alternative forms (alleles)
  2. An organism has two alleles (one from each parent) for each inherited trait,
  3. the two alleles segregate during meiosis resulting in gametes that carry only one allele for each trait
  4. if two alleles in an organism are different only one will be expressed. Expressed is dominant, recessive is silent
329
Q

What is a monohybrid cross

A

when you cross two true breeding plants for a single opposing trait.

330
Q

What does the F in F generation stand for

A

filial

331
Q

What is the result of a monohybrid cross of a PP purple flower and a pp white flower

A

all plants are heterozygous Pp with a purple flower

332
Q

What is the ratio when you self cross the F1 generation from the monohybrid cross

A

1:2:1
PP:Pp:pp
3 purple to 1 white

333
Q

What is a testcross in genetics

A

when an organism with an UNKNOWN dominant phenotype is crossed with a true breeding recessive plant.

334
Q

What are the possible results of the testcrosss (Ax) (aa)

A

If the unknown dominant phenotype is AA then all of the F1 generation will be purple (Aa)
if the unknown dominant phenotype is Aa then half of the F1 generation will be purple (Aa) and half will be white (aa)

335
Q

What is mendels second law

A

independent assortment

336
Q

What is a dihybrid cross

A

When you are observing two traits and you cross two heterozygotes for each Trait (AaBb) (AaBb)

337
Q

What is the law of independent assortment

A

it means that different traits assort independently, they don’t go to the same gamete consistently

338
Q

What is a problem in independent assortment

A

genes on the same chromosome will stay together (violating the law of independent assortment) unless they are exchanged with crossing over

339
Q

How are the (AaBb)’s obtained that are used in a dihybrid cross

A

when you cross two true breeding plants for each trait (AABB) (aabb)

340
Q

What is the results from a dihybrid cross (AaBb) (AaBb)

heterozygous purple tall plants

A 
9:3:3:1
9 purple tall plants
3 purple short plants
3 white tall plants
1 white short plant
341
Q

What do the ratios 3:1 and 9:3:3:1 from monohybrid and dihybrid crosses tell you

A

the phenotypic ratio, not the genotypic

342
Q

What does the ratio 1:2:1 tell you

A

genotypic ratio.

343
Q

What are some Non-Mednelian Inheritance patterns

A

incomplete dominance

Codominance

344
Q

What is incomplete dominance

A

when the heterozygous genotype produces a mixture of the two phenotypes.
when the heteozygous phenotype is an intermediate of the two homozygous phenotypes

345
Q

what is an example of incomplete dominance

A

snapdragons, when a dominant red is mixed with a recessive white, a PINK flower is formed.

346
Q

What is codominance

A

When multiple alleles exist for a gene, and more than one of them is dominant

347
Q

What happens with codominance

A

each dominant allele is completely dominant when combined with a recessive allele, but when combined with another dominant allele they are both expressed simultanioulsy

348
Q

What is an example of codominance

A

ABO blood groups in humans

349
Q

How does blood typing work

A 
type A and B and dominant and O is recessive.
AB alleles = AB blood
OO alleles = O blood
AO alleles = A blood
BO alleles = B blood
AA = A blood
BB = B blood
350
Q

What is an autosome

A

a Chromosome in sexually differentiated species that doesn’t determine sex

351
Q

how many autosomes do humans have

A

22

352
Q

What are the two types of human chromosomes

A

autosomes

Sex chromosomes

353
Q

what causes the 50 percent likely hood of males and females in reproduction

A

fertilization being an independent event

354
Q

What are genes called that are located on the sex chromosomes

A

sex linked genes

355
Q

What is an example of a y linked genes

A

hair on the outside of the ears

356
Q

What happens in males and females when there is an X linked recessive gene

A

males will always exhibit the trait because they don’t have another allele
females will only exhibit it when both x linked alleles are recessive
(these are far more common in men)

357
Q

What are some examples of X-linked recessive genes

A

hemophilia

color-blindness

358
Q

What are some features of X-linked recessive gene inheritance

A
  1. Males only and always pass it to their daughters
  2. females only exhibit the gene when the father has it and the mother passes it on
  3. 1/2 of the sons of daughters of a male with the disoder will express it
359
Q

features of X linked recessive traits

A
  1. generally only in males
  2. they can’t be passed from father to son
  3. can be passed from grandfather to son via a (mother/daughter) who is a carrier
360
Q

What is Drosophilia Melanogaster

A

A Fruit fly

361
Q

What are the reasons that the fruit fly is such a good study object

A
  1. it reproduces often (short life cycle)
  2. it reproduces in large numbers (large sample size)
  3. its chromosomes are large and easily recognizable in size and shape
  4. its chromosomes are few (4 pairs, 2N = 8)
  5. mutations occur relatively frequently
362
Q

What is one important thing they have found out by studying Drosophilia melanogaster

A

how genes expressed early in development can affect the adult organism

363
Q

What can environmental factors do in genetics

A

they can often affect the expression of a gene. environmental interaction + genotype = phenotype

364
Q

what are some examples of environmental factors working with genotype to change phenotype

A

fruit flies with a given set of genes have crooked wings at low temperatures, but straight wings at high temperatures
The himalayan hare will have white hair on the warmer parts of its body and black hair on the colder parts. if the naturally warm parts are cooled, the hair will grow in black

365
Q

What are the three types of genetic problems

A
  1. Nondisjunction
  2. Chromosomal breakage
  3. mutation
366
Q

What is nondisjunction

A

either

  • failure of homologous chromosomes to seperate properly during meiosis 1
  • failure of the sister chromatids to seperate properly during meiosis 2
367
Q

What are the possible results of nondisjunction

A

a zygote having 3 copies of a given chromosome (trisomy)

a zygote having 1 copy of that chromosome (monosomy)

368
Q

What is a case of trisomy

A

Down Syndrome (trisomy of Chromosome 21)

369
Q

What happens in the case of most monosomies and trisomies

A

they are usually lethal and cause the embryo to abort early in pregnancy

370
Q

Can nondisjunction happen with the sex chromosomes too

A

yep, this results with people having an extra or missing an X/Y chromosome

371
Q

What happens when nondisjunction happens at meiosis 1 vs. meiosis 2

A

meiosis 1
- results in 2 (N +1) and 2 (N-1) gametes
Meiosis 2
- results in 2 normal gametes, 1 (N+1) and 1 (N-1) gametes

372
Q

What things can cause Chromosomal Breakage

A

mutagenic agents
X-rays
or it can happen spontaneously

373
Q

What is said of the chromosome that loses a fragment in chromosomal breakage

A

it has a deficiency

374
Q

What are mutations

A

changes in the genetic information of a cell, coded in the DNA

375
Q

What can mutations in somatic cells lead to

A

tumors

376
Q

What can mutations in sex cells (gametes) lead to

A

they will be transmitted to the offspring

377
Q

Where do most mutations in DNA occur

A

in the regions that do not code for proteins and are silent (not expressed in the phenotype)

378
Q

What happens with most mutation that do occur in the coding region of DNA and change the AA sequence

A

most of them are recessive and deleterious

379
Q

What are things that can cause mutations called, and what are some examples

A

Mutagenic agents
cosmic rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, and radioactivity
chemical compounds like colchicine or mustard gas

380
Q

what does colchicine do

A

inhibits spindle formation, causing polyploidy

381
Q

Are mutagenic agents generally carcinogenic too

A

yep

382
Q

What are the three types of gene mutation

A

addition
deletion
substitution

383
Q

how do mutations of the genes cause different phenotypes

A

they can cause the altering of AA sequence which causes changes in the protein

384
Q

Are mutations permanent changes in the DNA sequence of a gene that alter the AA sequence

A

nope, they are permanent changes to the DNA sequence of a gene, but they may or may not alter the AA sequence

385
Q

What is PKU, and what causes it

A

Phenylketoneuria, a genetic disorder caused by the inability to produce the enzyme for metabolism of the AA phenylalanine.

386
Q

What does PKU lead to

A

a loss of the enzyme for Phenylalanine causes it to get degraded to phenylpyruvic acid and its accumulation causes problems

387
Q

What is sickle-cell anemia

A

a genetic disorder where red blood cells become crescent shaped because they have defective HGB (it is misshapen and can’t carry as much O2)

388
Q

What causes sickle-cell anemia

A

a substitution of valine (GUA or GUG) for glutamic acid (GAA or GAG) in the gene coding for HGB

389
Q

What is the basis of heredity

A

DNA

390
Q

What is the basis for evolution

A

that changes in DNA are stable and can be passed from generation to generation

391
Q

What is the basic unit of DNA

A

the nucleotide

392
Q

what is a nucleotide made up of

A

Deoxyribose (sugar) bonded to a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.

393
Q

what are the two types of nitrogenous bases

A

purines and pyrimidines

394
Q

What are the purines

A

Adenine and Guanine

395
Q

What are the pyrimidines

A

Cytosine, Uracil, and thymine

396
Q

What are the ways to remember what is a purine and what is a pyrimidine

A

PUR (purines) As (Adenine) Gold (Guanine)

CUT (cytosine, Uracil, thymine) the PY (pyrimidines)

397
Q

What pairs with what

A

T-A

C-G

398
Q

what does DNA look like

A

the sugar and phosphate form a backbone with the bases in the middle. two chains are hooked together by bonding between the bases, and the chain coils up making a double stranded helix

399
Q

how does T bind to A

A

with 2 hydrogen bonds

400
Q

how does C bond to G

A

with 3 hydrogen bonds

401
Q

What is our understanding of the structure of DNA referred to as

A

the watson-crick model

402
Q

What happens to DNA when there is a higher CG content

A

it will be stronger because of the additional hydrogen bonds are holding the two strands together tighter

403
Q

What are the steps of DNA replication

A
  1. Helicase ang gyrase enzymes unwind the DNA
  2. RNA primer is added to the 5’ end of the new strand
  3. DNA polymerase starts adding Nucleotides to both sides simultaneously
404
Q

In what direction doe DNA polymerase add Nucleotides

A

5’ - 3’

405
Q

What are the two strand types called in DNA replication

A

leading strand and the lagging strand

406
Q

What does the 5’ - 3’ addition of bases cause

A

the leading strand is continuously added to, the lagging strand is made in fragments

407
Q

what are the fragments of the lagging strand of DNA replication called

A

okazaki fragments

408
Q

What happnes to the okazaki fragments

A

They are later joined together by DNA ligase

409
Q

How is DNA a semiconservative process

A

Each strand of double stranded DNA acts as a template in the synthesis of 2 daughter strands.
Each new double stranded helix has a new daughter strand bound to a parental strand of DNA.
Two double strand that are identical to the original are formed

410
Q

What makes up the genetic code

A 
Four letters (ATCG) 
20 words (AA's)
411
Q

What is transcription

A

DNA code is read to produce an mRNA nucleotide transcript

412
Q

What is Translation

A

the mRNA being read to produce proteins

413
Q

What are codons

A

a series of triplet codes on mRNA

414
Q

Is the genetic code universal for all organisms

A

it’s universal for almost all organisms

415
Q

What is the degeneracy of the genetic code

A

that there are 64 different codons, and only 20 Amino acids. so many AA’s have more than one codon specific to them

416
Q

what is the redundancy of the genetic code

A

that there are 64 different codons, and only 20 Amino acids. so many AA’s have more than one codon specific to them

417
Q

so each codon represents only one AA but each AA can be coded for by multiple Codons

A

yep

418
Q

What is the start codon

A

AUG (Met)

419
Q

What are the stop codons

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

420
Q

What is the differences between RNA and DNA

A

it’s sugar is ribose instead of deoxyribose
it contains uracil instead of thymine
it is usually single stranded instead of double
it can move through the nuclear pores to the cytoplasm

421
Q

where can RNA be found

A

both the cytoplasm and inside the nucleus

422
Q

What are the three types of RNA

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

423
Q

What is mRNA

A

messenger RNA

424
Q

what does mRNA do

A

carries the compliment of the DNA sequence and transports it from the nucleus to the ribosome for protein synthesis

425
Q

is the mRNA strand complimentary to, or the same as the sense strand of DNA

A

complimentary

426
Q

what does monocistronic refer to

A

one mRNA codes for one polypeptide

427
Q

What types of organisms are monocistronic

A

eukaryotes

428
Q

what does polycistronic refer to

A

one mRNA codes for more than one polypeptide

429
Q

what types of organisms are polycistronic

A

prokaryotes

430
Q

What is tRNA

A

transfer RNA, small RNA found in the cytoplasm

431
Q

What does tRNA do

A

it brings amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.

432
Q

How many tRNA are there

A

at least one type of tRNA for amino acid (approximately 40)

433
Q

what is rRNA

A

ribosomal RNA, a structural component of ribosomes

434
Q

what is the most abundent type of RNA

A

rRNA

435
Q

Where is rRNA synthesized

A

in the nucleolus

436
Q

What are the three parts of transcription

A

initiation
elongation
termination

437
Q

What happens in the initiation phase of transcription

A
  1. RNA polymerase must recognize the promoter indicating where transcription will begin
  2. DNA must be unwound by helicase and gyrase
438
Q

What is the promoter also known as

A

TATA box

439
Q

What happens in the elongation phase of transcription

A
  1. RNA polymerase add nucleotides to the RNA transcript in the 5’ - 3’ direction
  2. Transcription factors help with the process
440
Q

What causes the termination of transcription

A

when RNA polymerase recognizes a particular sequence on the new transcript.

441
Q

What is an example of a transcription terminating region

A

the GC rich hairpin loop in prokaryotes

442
Q

What is needed to be done for prokaryotic mRNA after transcription before translation

A

nothing

443
Q

what is needed to be done for eukaryotic mRNA after transcription and before translation

A

it is actually called hnRNA right after transcription, and it must undergo post-translational processing

444
Q

what is post translational processing of hnRNA

A
  1. the removing of introns (non-coding sequences)
  2. the the splicing of exons (coding sequences)
  3. adding of a 5’ cap
  4. adding of a poly A tail
445
Q

Why are 5’caps and poly a tails added to mRNA

A

in order to protect them from the harsh cytoplasmic environment

446
Q

Where does translation occur

A

in the cytoplasm

447
Q

what are the two binding sites of tRNA and what do they do

A

AA binding site (recognizes AA)

Codon binding site (recognizes the codon specific to that AA)

448
Q

What is the codon binding site called

A

the Anticodon

449
Q

What is an aminoacyl-tRNA synthase

A

an enzyme that binds both the AA and it’s corresponding tRNA. forming the aminoacyl-tRNA complex

450
Q

how specific are the aminoacyl-tRNA synthases

A

each AA has its own

451
Q

What are ribosomes

A

enzymes composed of two units (large and small) that bind together during the initiation of protein synthesis

452
Q

How many binding sites do ribosomes have and what are they

A

3

A, P, E

453
Q

What is the function of the A site on ribosomes

A

It binds the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA complex

454
Q

What is the function of the P site on ribosomes

A

it binds to the tRNA attached to the growing polypeptide chain

455
Q

What is the function of the E site on ribosomes

A

it holds the uncharged tRNA as it exits, it is where the mRNA is bound

456
Q

What does the p stand for in ribosomes binding sites

A

peptidyl-tRNA binding site

457
Q

What does the A stand for in ribosome binding sites

A

aminoacyl-tRNA binding site

458
Q

What are the three stages of polypeptide synthesis

A

initiation
elongation
termination

459
Q

What initiates polypeptide synthesis

A
  1. the binding of the ribosome to the mRNA near the 5’ end
  2. the ribosome scans the mRNA until it binds to the start codon AUG
  3. the initiator aminoacyl-tRNA complex (methionine-tRNA) base pairs to the start codon
460
Q

What is the anticodon of the initiator aminoacyl-tRNA complex (methionine-tRNA)

A

3’-UAC-5’

461
Q

What happens during elongation of polypeptide synthesis

A
  1. hydrogen bonds form between the mRNA codon and the tRNA anticodon in the A site
  2. a peptide bond forms between the amino acid in the A site and the one in the P site
  3. the ribosome moves the unchared tRNA to the E site, the one from the A site to the P site, and a new one is brought in
462
Q

What is the cycle of adding one more AA to the ribosome called

A

transolcation

463
Q

what is translocation (ribosomes)

A

when the ribosome moves three nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ direction along the mRNA, allowing another AA to enter

464
Q

What causes the termination of polypeptide synthesis

A

when one of the three termination codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) reaches the A site of the ribosome

465
Q

How do the stop codons cause the termination of polypeptide synthesis

A

they don’t code for amino acids

466
Q

What is a polyribosome

A

when there are multiple ribosomes translating the same mRNA strand simultaneously

467
Q

What is the order of events in polypeptide synthesis

A
  1. Small unit binds the mRNA
  2. when the small unit finds AUG, the met-tRNA binds with its UAC anticodon
  3. The large unit binds with met-tRNA in the P site
  4. another tRNA enters the A site
  5. peptide bond is formed
  6. tRNA’s shift over
468
Q

What happens to the protein after it is released by the ribosome

A

it folds up

469
Q

can disulfide bonds on proteins be both inter and intra molecular

A

yep

470
Q

What is cytoplasmic inheritance

A

Heredity that comes from the DNA that is found in chloroplasts, mitochondria and other cytoplasmic bodies

471
Q

can cytoplasmic genes interact with nuclear genes

A

yep, that is how they help determine characteristics of their organelles

472
Q

what are cytoplasmic rings of DNA that regulate drug resistance in many organisms

A

plasmids

473
Q

how many genes do plasmds contain

A

one or more

474
Q

What is the bacterial genome like

A

a singular circular chromosome located in the nucleoid region of the cell

475
Q

What is the nucleiod region of a bacteria cell

A

it’s basically the nucleus without a membrane

476
Q

Do bacteria also contain plasmids along with their bacterial genome

A

yep

477
Q

What are episomes

A

plasmids that are capable of integration into the bacterial genome

478
Q

How does bacterial DNA replication go

A

it starts at a unique origin of replication (ORI) and proceeds in both directions simultaneously.

479
Q

What direction does DNA synthesis go in bacteria

A

5’-3’ (just like eukaryotes)

480
Q

how do bacterial cells reproduce

A

binary fission and do so very rapidly in good conditions

481
Q

how do bacteria increase genetic variance of a population since binary fission is asexual

A

Transformation
conjugation
transduction

482
Q

What is transformation of bacteria

A

the process by which a foreign chromosome fragment (plasmid (episomes)) are incorparated into the bacterial chromosome via recombination

483
Q

What is conjugation of bacteria

A

sexual mating between bacteria

genetic material is transferred from one bacteria to another temporarily joined to it

484
Q

how does conjugation in bacteria occur

A

a cytoplasmic conjugation bridge is formed

genetic material is transferred from the + male to the - female

485
Q

What must be contained by bacteria if they want to participate in cojugation

A

Sex factors, without them, no conjugation

486
Q

What is the sex factor in E.Coli

A

F factor

487
Q

what are ecoli cells with the F factor called, and those without it?

A

F+ cells with it

F- cells without it

488
Q

What is the exact process of conjugation between ecoli

A

F+ cells form a conjugation bridge with F- cells

F+ replicates its F factor and gives it to the F- cell

489
Q

What else can happen with the bacterial chromosome during conjugation

A

it can begin to replicate and try to move across the conjugation bridge

490
Q

What happens if the bacterial chromosome doesn’t get all the way across the conjugation bridge before it closes

A

part of the chromosome goes across into the other cell, there they can recombine with the bacterial genes already there

491
Q

What are Hfr cells

A

bacteria with sex factor integrated into the genome that have a High Frequency of Recombination

492
Q

What is transduction in bacterial cells

A

when fragments of the bacterial chromosome become packaged into viral progeny made during viral infection

493
Q

What happens in bacterial transduction

A
  1. virus infects a bacterial cell
  2. virus captures some of the bacterial genome
  3. virus takes and injects that bacterial genome into a new cell
  4. that DNA recombines with the new DNA
494
Q

what affects the probability of recombination between two genes

A

the more similar they are the more likely they are to transduce

495
Q

What about transduction allows geneticists to map genes to a high degree of precision

A

the similarity of genomes dictates the likelyhood of transduction

496
Q

How do bacteria control their metabolism

A

by regulating their gene expression

497
Q

What is bacteria gene expression regulation based on

A

the access that RNA polymerase has to the genes being transcribed

498
Q

what is bacterial regulation directed by

A

the operon

499
Q

What are the parts of the operon

A

the operator gene

the promotor gene

500
Q

What do structural genes od bacteria do

A

they code for proteins

501
Q

What is the operator gene

A

nontranscribable bacterial DNA that is the repressor binding site

502
Q

What is the promotor gene

A

noncoding sequence of DNA that serves as the initial binding site for RNA polymerase

503
Q

what is the regulator gene of BActerial DNA

A

it codes for the synthesis of the repressor molecule

504
Q

What does the repressor do

A

it binds to the operator gene to block RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural gene

505
Q

What are the two types of regulation for bacterial gene transcription

A

inducible systems

repressible systems

506
Q

What are inducible regulation systems

A

when they need a substance called an inducer for transcription to occur

507
Q

what are repressible regulation systems

A

they are in constant state of transcription unless a corepressor is present to inhibit transcription

508
Q

What happens when RNA polymerase binds to the promoter

A

structural genes are transcribed

509
Q

what happnes when the repressor binds the operator

A

RNA polymerase is blocked = notranscription

510
Q

What happens when the inducer binds to the repressor

A

no binding to operator = transcription

511
Q

how does the inducer casuse transcription to occur in inducible systems

A

the inducer binds to the repressor, making it so it can’t bind the operator

512
Q

What kind of systems often use the inducible regulation systems

A

enzymes (the inducer is a substrate of the enzyme) so when the substrate is present the enzyme is made, when it is absent no enzyme is made

513
Q

what are the four parts of DNA that affect the transcription

A
  1. Regulator (makes repressor)
  2. Promoter (binds RNA polymerase to begin)
  3. operator (binds repressor to stop transcription)
  4. Structural (codes for proteins)
514
Q

what happens in a repressible regulation system of bacterial transcription

A

the repressor is inactive until it binds the corepressor, once it has formed the repressor/corepressor complex it can bind the operator and block transcription

515
Q

what kinds of things often make corepressors for repressible systems

A

the end products of the biosynthetic pathways they control

516
Q

what is a constitutive operon

A

when an operon has mutations that don’t allow repressors to bind and thus are always synthesizing enzymes

517
Q

What is a bacteriophage

A

a virus that infects its host bacterium by attaching to it, boring a hole through the bacterial cell wall, and injecting its DNA.

518
Q

What happens to the protein coat of the bacteriophage after it’s DNA is injected into the bacterial cell

A

it is left attached to the cell wall

519
Q

What happens when the bacteriophage has entered the cell

A

it begins its lytic cycle or its lysogenic cycle

520
Q

What is the lytic cycle

A

When the bacteriophage DNA takes control of the bacteria’s genetic machinery and manufactors numerous progeny. then the bacterial cell bursts and realeses new virions. (a process of virus replicaiton)

521
Q

What are bacteriophages that replicate via the lytic cycle called

A

virulent

522
Q

what happens if the infection of a virulent bacteriophage takes place on a bacterial lawn (plated culture)

A

a plaque or clearing in the lawn will occur where the lysed bacteria used to be.

523
Q

What is the lysogenic cycle

A

the bacteriophage doesn’t lyse it’s host cell and becomes integrated into the bacterial genome in a harmless form (prophage) for one or more generations

524
Q

What can happen once the bacteriophage has entered in the lysogenic cycle

A

it can remain dormant, replicating with the bacterial genome, or it can re-emerge and enter the lytic cycle

525
Q

What can cause the re-emergence of the bacteriophage from the lysogenic cycle to the lytic cycle

A

can happen spontaneously or by

radiation, UV light, chemicals

526
Q

what is a possible benefit of bacteria containing prophages

A

they can’t be further infected (superinfection) by similar phages

527
Q

What is gel electrophoresis for

A

separate molecules of different sizes using a charge gradient

528
Q

What is an agarose gel for

A

seperating DNA molecules on different sequence lengths

529
Q

what is a polyacrylamide used for

A

to separate proteins of various amino acid lengths

530
Q

When is blotting used

A

it is used to detect molecules and preserve the sample for future use

531
Q

what is southern blotting

A

it allows for the detection of a specific sequence in a sample of DNA.

532
Q

how is southern blotting done

A

the DNA is cleaved into small fragments by restriction endonucleases
the fragements are then seperated using gel electropresis
the seperated fragments are then moved to an inert membrane using blotting techniques
the desired sequence is located by exposing the blot to a radioactively labeled probe.

533
Q

What is northern blotting

A

blotting used for the detection of RNA

534
Q

what is western blotting for

A

blotting used for the detection of proteins

535
Q

How is DNA amplification done

A

by PCR polymerase chain reaction

536
Q

What are the three steps of PCR

A
  1. denaturation
  2. primer annealing
  3. primer extensions
537
Q

How is DNA denatured in PCR

A

HEAT, which separates the strands so you can get the desired sequence

538
Q

What happens in the annealing step of PCR

A

complimentary nucleotides called primers attach to the single stranded templates, then DNA polymerase EXTENDS THE PRIMER by attaching the rest of the complimentray bases

539
Q

What is a second way to amplify genes (besides PCR )

A

cloning

540
Q

how is DNA cloning done

A

The DNA sequence of interest is joined to vectors (self replicating phages or plasmids) via DNA ligase
Then that is inserted into a bacterial strain through transformation.
Then the bacteria will produce copies of the DNA using its own natural processes

541
Q

What is the most popular way to sequence DNA

A

chain termination method

542
Q

how does chain termination method of DNA sequencing work

A

it uses dideoxynucleotides (ddNTP’s) in replication reactions and then separates the resulting single-stranded DNA molecules by gel electrophoresis

543
Q

What do dideoxynucleotides do (ddNTP’s)

A

they are nucleotides that have been modified to prevent the addition of more nucleotides

544
Q

WHat is used to analyze DNA for the presence of disease genes

A

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP’s)

545
Q

What is RFLP

A

restriction enzymes bind to and cut the double stranded DAN at specific sequences.

546
Q

How do you know if an RFLP has shown you that there is a disease in the DNA

A

if there is a variation in the fragment length when there is a difference in that specific sequence.

547
Q

What do you need to know well for an RFLP to help you identify disease

A

you need to know the restriction enzyme habits, and the size of fragments they should make for that gene

DAT (14 decks)

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