Biology 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How do unicellular protozoans and primitive algae move

A

by beating cilia or flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the strucutre of cilia of flagella

A

a cylindrical stalk of 11 microtubules
9 paired microtubules arranged in a circle
2 single microtubules in the center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how are muscles of flatworms (planaria) arranged

A

in two antagonistic layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the two layers of muscles in flatworms

A

longitudinal and circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the hydrostatic skeleton of flatworms and annelids

A

an incompressible fluid that gives the flatworm and annelids it’s shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do flatworms move

A
  1. when they contract their circular muscles the incompressible fluid moves longitudinally lengthening the worm
  2. the longitudinal muscles contract causing the worm to shorten
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do annelids move

A

then can compress of expand each section independently, and they have setae which anchor them to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are setae

A

bristles on the underside of annelids that allow them to anchor to the ground while their muscles push against it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an exoskeleton

A

a hard skeleton that covers all muscles and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is an arthropod

A

insect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are insect exoskeletons composed of

A

chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are all exoskeletons composed of

A

noncellular material secreted by the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a problem with exoskeletons

A

they restrict growth, so periodic molting and deposition of new skeletons are necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an endoskeleton

A

The normal interior skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are trabeculae

A

the interconnecting lattice of bony spicules in spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is endochondral ossification

A

when cartilage is replaced by bone (long bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is intramembranous ossification

A

when mesenchymal (undifferentiated embryonic) connective tissue is turned into bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the latent period of a muscle twitch

A

the time between stimulation and the onset of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is another name for the relaxation period of a muscle twitch

A

absolute refractory period (when it is unresponsive to stimulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is tonus of muscle

A

the constant partial contraction of muscle, they are never fully relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an analog of creatine phosphate in some organism

A

arginine phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is digestion

A

the breakdown of large food molecules into small ones that can be absorbed into the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how is food captured in unicellular organisms

A

by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is phagocytosis done to food in unicellular enzymes

A
  1. the cell surrounds the food and pulls it into a vacuole
  2. Lysosomes fuse with the vacuole and release enzymes to break down the food
  3. small molecules diffuse into the cytoplasm
  4. large molecules are eliminated from the vacuole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is digestion done in paramecium

A
  1. cilia sweep food into the oral groove and down into the cytopharanx
  2. a vacuole forms around the food at the end of the cytopharanx
  3. vavuoles move to the anterior portion where enzymes break down the food
    4, small molecules diffuse into the cytoplasm
  4. large molecules are expelled through the anal pore
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the physical breakdown of food do

A

it breaks down food into smaller particles increasing surface area
it doesn’t affect the molecular composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how is physical breakdown done

A

cutting and mashing food in the mouth and churning of the digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

chemical breakdown does what

A

breaks food down into smaller absorbable things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is digestion done in cnidarians

A
  1. tentacles bring food to the mouth
  2. particles go from the mouth to a sac
    3, the endodermal cells lining this cavity secrete enzymes to break down food.
  3. small fragments are engulfed by gastrodermal cells and digestion is completed intracellulary
  4. un absorbed food is expelled through the mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is digestion done in annelids

A
  1. it is eaten at the mouth
  2. passes through the pharynx and esophagus
  3. enters the crop (food storage)
  4. from the crop to the gizzard (food grinder)
  5. into the large intestine
  6. excreted by the anus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is unique about the large intestine of the annelid

A

it has a large dorsal fold to increase surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the large dorsal fold of annelid digestive system called

A

the thypholosole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the arthropod digestive system like

A

they are just like annelids except they have jaws for chewing and glands to help with digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where is nutrient absorption done in a annelids and arthropods

A

the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the order of food passing in humans

A
  1. oral cavity
  2. pharynx
  3. esophagus
  4. stomach
  5. small int.
  6. large int.
  7. anus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the acessory organs to the digestive system

A

salivary glands
pancreas
liver
gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens in the oral cavity

A

mechanical breakdown by mastication

chemical breakdown by saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the functions of saliva

A
  1. lubricate the food for easier swallowing

2. breakdown starch to maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the enzyme released by saliva in the mouth

A

salivary amylase (ptyalin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the rhythmic waves of involuntary smooth muscle contraction of the esophagus called

A

peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where are the stomach glands found

A

in the gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the pH of the stomach

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does pepsin do

A

it hydrolizes proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does HCL do in the stomach

A
  1. kills bacteria
  2. dissolves the intercellular “glue” holding food tissues together
  3. activates certain enzymes (pepsin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is chyme

A

an acidic semifluid mixture of partially digested food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the first section of the small int.

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the two sphincters of the stomach

A

gastric and pyloric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three sections of the small int

A

duodenum, jejunum and the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is found in vili of the small int

A

capillaries and lacteals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are lacteals

A

small vessels of the lymphatic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What goes into capillaries and into lacteals in the small int

A

amino acids and monosaccharides go into the capillaries

large fatty acids and glycerol go into the lacteals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what happens to fatty acids and glycerol in the lacteals

A

they are reconverted into fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what two things must be actively absorbed

A

glucose and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where does most digestion occur

A

the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are lipases for

A

fat digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are aminopeptidases for

A

polypeptide digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are disaccharidases for

A

digestion of disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does the liver do for digestion

A

produces bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what stores bile

A

gall bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what does bile do

A

emulsifies fat (breaks it down into small globs) which increases surface area for lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does the pancreas do for digestion

A

secretes amylase, trypsin, and lipase

secretes a bicarbonate juice to neutralize acidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does the large intestine do for digestions

A

it absorbs salt and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does the rectum do

A

stores feces prior to elimination through the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

do plants have a digestive system

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how do things like fungi get food

A

they secrete enzymes into whatever they are growing on, then the smaller molecules are absorbed and used for energy or syntehsized to larger molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is rhizoids

A

they are a thing in bread mold

saprophyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does the venus flytrap use the insect it eats as

A

a nitrate source because they grow in nitrogen poor soils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is excretion

A

the removal of metabolic wastes produced by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is elimination

A

the removal of indigestible material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

where does excretion occur

A

the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

how do protozoans and cnidarians excrete

A

the metabolic byproducts simply diffuse out of the cell since they are all external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What do freshwater protozoans and cnidarians have for excretion

A

contractile vacuoles needed for active transport to pump against osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how does CO2 excretion occur in annelids

A

it diffuses directly through the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how do annelids excrete water, mineral salts, and nitrogenous wastes

A

in the form of urea by nephridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how many nephridia do annelids have per body segement

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How is carbon dioxide excreted by arthropods

A

it diffuses from the cells to the tracheae, then through those out the spiracles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How are nitrogenous wastes excreted by arthropods

A

in the form of solid uric acid crystals with the solid wastes of digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

why do insects excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of solid uric crystals

A

to conserve water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

where do the salts and uric acid accumulate for excretion in arthropods

A

malphigian tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are the principal organs of excretion of the human body

A

lungs
liver
skin
kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what do the lungs excrete

A

CO2 and water vapor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what does the skin excrete

A

water and salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what does the liver do for excretion

A

processes nitrogenous waste, blood pigment waste, and other chemicals
Produces Urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What do the kidneys do

A

they regulate the concentration of salt and water in the blood by formation and excretion of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what makes up the kidneys

A

nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the three regions of the kidney

A

outer cortex, inner medulla, and the renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the path that blood takes in the kidney

A
afferent arteriole
bowmans capsule 
glomerulus
proximal convoluted tubule
loop of henle
distal convuloted tubule
collecting duct
renal pelvis
ureter
urinary bladder
urethra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Where are the structures of the nephron located

A

bowmans capsule, glomerulus, both convuloted tubules are in the cortex.
loop of henle is in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what surrounds the nephron

A

the peritubular capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the purpose of the periubular capillary

A

facilitate reasbsorption of amino acids, glucose, salts and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the three processes of urine formation

A

filtration
secretion
reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is filtration

A

the process of blood plasma flowing through the glomerulus, and bowmans capsule, then into the nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What percent of blood plasma is pushed through the glomerulus and by what

A

blood pressure pushes 20% of blood plasma through into the nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the fluid called that enters the nephron through the glomerulus

A

filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What stays in the blood when it is filtrated

A

large particles like blood cells and albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is secretion in the kidney

A

when the nephron pulls potentially harmful stuff into the filtrate from the peritubular capillaries for excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What kinds of transport do secretion

A

both active and passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is reabsorption

A

when essential substances are pulled back into the peritubular capillaries from the filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What things are reabsorbed

A

glucose, salts, amino acids, water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Is reabsorption active or passive transport

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

where does reabsorption primarily occur

A

the proximal convuloted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what does reabsorption do for the concentration of urine

A

when it pulls substances back into the capillaries it also pulls water, this means that urine will be more concentrated, or hypertonic to the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

how does tissue osmolarity of the kidney change

A

it increases from the cortex to the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the solutes that contribute to the maintenance of the kidney gradient

A

urea and salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what establishes the osmolarity of urine

A

the countercurrent multiplier system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What concentrates urine

A

the hyperosmolarity of the medulla pulls water out of the collecting tubules on it’s way to the renal pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What hormone regulates the permeability of the collecting tubule

A

ADH or vasopressin (increases permiability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How does excess water leave plants

A

transpiration through leaf stomates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what do plants do with their metabolic wastes

A

they reuse many of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are reflexes

A

automatic responses to simple stimuli that are reliable behavioral responses to a given stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is a simple reflex

A

sensory neuron sends a signal to the spinal cord, there it connects to an interneuron and then to the motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is different about a complex reflex as opposed to a simple reflex

A

they involve neural integration at a higher level

brainstem or cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is an example of a complex reflex

A

startle response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what does the reticular activating system do

A

in charge of sleep/wake cycles
behavoiral motivation
complex reflexs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are fixed action patterns

A

complex, coordinated, innate behavioral responses to stimulation in the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the stimulus that starts fixed action patterns called

A

the releaser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

are fixed action patterns ususally modified through learning

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what are examples of fixed-action patterns

A

swimming actions of a fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are behavior cycles also called

A

circadian rythyms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what happens to behavoir cycles if you are taken away from the light/dark environment

A

they lose some precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is internal and external control of behavior cycles

A
internal = body rhythms of hunger/satiation
external  = dinner bells, clocks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are environmental rhythms

A

things like stop lights, environmental factors that creates repeated behavoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What determines how much learning a species can do

A

the degree of neurological development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is habituation

A

a form of learning in which repeated stimulation results in decreased responsiveness to that stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is it called when after habituation with a stimulus, the stimulus is stopped and the reaction occurs again

A

spontaneous recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is classical conditioning

A

Pavlovs dogs, you make an unassociated stimulus replace a biological stimulus by associated the two stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is the innate stimul called

A

unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what is the innate reflex to the innate simuli called

A

unconditioned response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the unassociated response called

A

neutral stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is pseudo conditioning

A

when you accidentally pick a neutral stimulus that does the same thing as the real stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is operant or instrumental conditioning

A

when you conditioning with a reward or reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What did skinners box show

A

operant conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what is positive reinforcement

A

when you reward the animal for doing something you wanted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

how effective is positive reinforcement

A

very effective, it can be involved in normal habit forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is negative reinforcement

A

? either removal of an unwanted stimulus

or rewarding something for not doing something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

is negative reinforcement effective

A

pretty effective, not as effective as positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

how good is punishment at conditioning

A

pretty good, not as good as positive reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is habit family hierarchy

A

when one stimulus has a few different responses
reward for one response increases it’s occurence
punishment for one response decreases it’s occurence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what is extinction in conditioning

A

when a conditioned response is lost in the absence of reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

how does extinction happen in instrumental or operant conditioning

A

the conditioned response will gradually decrease as the stimulus is stopped and will eventually go away. but it will come back quickly when the stimuli is brought back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

how does extinction happen in classical conditioning

A

the conditioned response will gradually decrease if you don’t pair up the conditioned stimuli and the unconditioned stimulus occasionally. it can be relearned after extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what is it called when a conditioned response comes back after extinction

A

spontaneous recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is stimulus generalization

A

the ability of a conditioned organism to respond to a stimulus that is different but similar to the conditioned stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What happens to varying stimuli in stimulus generalization

A

the further from the initial stimulus, the weaker the reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what is stimulus discrimination

A

organisms can learn to differentiate between very similar stimuli. they will respond to the good, and do nothing for the unconditioned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is imprinting

A

when a stimulus during the “critical period” becomes accepted permanently as an element of it’s behavoiral environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

what is an example of imprinting

A

baby ducks thinking that the first large thing they see is their mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Who id Konrad Lorenz

A

the mother of the ducks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is the critical period

A

a time in the early development when the organism is able to develop behavioral patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what is the visual critical period

A

a period during which if the organism doesn’t get light, it’s visual effectors wont’t develop correctly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are behavioral displays

A

innate communication behavior amongst a species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are categories of behavioral displays

A

reproductive displays
agonistic displays
antagonistic displays
dancing displays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what is territoriality

A

when males space themselves out to maintain resources and competition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are pheromones

A

chemical scents released by an organism that affects the behavoir of other organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are releaser pheromones

A

pheromones that trigger a reversable behavoiral change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what are examples of releaser pheromones

A

sex-attractant pheromones

alarm and toxic defensive pheromones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are primer pheromones

A

pheromones that produce long-term behavoiral alterations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is ecology

A

the study of the interactions between organisms and their environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what are the two components of an environment

A
the physical non-living (abiotic)
the living (biotic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

what composes the physical environment

A
climate 
temperature
light
water
topology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the individual unit of an ecological system

A

the organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is a species

A

any group of similar organisms capable of reproducing fertile offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

what is a population

A

a group of organisms in the same species, living together in a given location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are communities

A

populations of different plants and animal species interacting with each other in a given environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is a biotic community

A

only includes the populations and their physical environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what is an ecosystem

A

the community and the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

How many of the 5 kingdoms do communities normally have

A

all 5 depending on each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is a biosphere

A

everything about the planet that supports life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What are the parts of the biosphere

A
the atmospere
the lithosphere (rock and soil surface)
the hydrosphere (sea and oceans)
170
Q

what is the ultimate source of energy for all organisms

A

sunlight

171
Q

What is the photic zone

A

the top layer of water into which sunlight can penetrate and photosynthetic activity can happen

172
Q

What is the aphotic zone

A

the bottom layer of water where no light can get to

173
Q

Which is worse for temperature changes moveing away from the equator or increasing altitude

A

they actually cause similar ecosystem changes

174
Q

What is the substratum

A

the soil or rock

175
Q

What affects the substratum

A

acidity
texture (affects water holding capacity)
Minerals, (nitrates, phosphates)
humus

176
Q

What plants do well in acidic soil

A

rhododendrons and pines

177
Q

what does acid rain do to the substratum

A

increases the acidity making it hard for certain organisms to grow

178
Q

What are loams (soil)

A

it is soil that contains high percentages of each kind of soil

179
Q

what determines humus quantity in the soil

A

the amount of decaying plants and animal life in the soil

180
Q

What is the niche

A

the functional role of an organism in it’s ecosystem

181
Q

what is the habitat

A

the physical place where the organism lives

182
Q

What does a niche include

A

every aspect of an organisms existence

183
Q

What are the outcomes when species compete for resources

A
  1. dominant species will drive the other to extiction
  2. dominance in certain regions could differ, this would cause separation to those areas
  3. the two species could evolve in divergent directions, changing their niche, not their location
184
Q

What are the three kinds of heterotrophs

A

herbivores
carnivores
omnivores

185
Q

What are some unique physiological aspects of herbivore

A
  1. long digestive tracts = more surface area and time for digestion
  2. symbiotic bacteria in the digestive tract
  3. hooves for faster movement on grasslands
  4. cutting insicors, grinding molars
186
Q

What causes the physiological differences in herbivores

A

they only eat plants, and the tough cellulose-containing plant tissues are hard to digest

187
Q

What are some behavioral differences in herbivore

A

they are more adept in defense because they are often prey

188
Q

What are some physiological differences in carnivores

A
  1. pointed teeth and fanglike canines for tearing flesh

2. shorter digestive tracts

189
Q

What are omnivores

A

things that eat both plants and animals

190
Q

What are the types of interpsecific interactions

A

symbiosis
predation
saprophytsm
scavenging

191
Q

What is symbiosis

A

symboints live together in an intimate, often permanent association which may or may not be beneficial to both participants.

192
Q

What is an obligatory symboitic relationship

A

one or both organisms can’t survive without the other

193
Q

What are the types of symbioitic relationships

A

commensalism
mutualism
parasitism

194
Q

what is commensalism

A

one organism is benefitted, the other is unaffected

195
Q

What are two examples of commensalism

A

remora and shark - remora attaches to the shark, eats it’s leftovers, travels, and gets protection
barnacle and whale - barnacle attaches to the whale and gets more feeding opportunities due to the travel of the whale

196
Q

What is mutualism

A

a symbiotic relationship where both organims get some benefit

197
Q

What are examples of mutualism

A
tick bird and rhino
fungi and algae
nitrogen fixing bacteria and legumes
protozoa and termites
intestinal bacteria and humans
198
Q

What is parasitism

A

the parasite benefits at the expense of the host

199
Q

When does parasitism usually occur

A

when competition for food is most intense

200
Q

what are the two types of parasitism

A

ectoparasites (cling to the outside of the organism)

endoparasites (reside inside the organism)

201
Q

do very successful parasites kill their hosts

A

no, that would lead to it’s own death

202
Q

What are examples of parasites

A
leeches  ticks
virus and host cell
disease bacteria and animals
disease fungi and animals
ringworm and humans
worms and animals
203
Q

What is predation

A

when one species eats other species.

204
Q

what usually happens with predation

A

predators regulate the growth of the population of the prey, but doesn’t cause them to be extinct

205
Q

What is saprophytism

A

when protists and fungi decompose dead organic matter externally and absorb the nutrients

206
Q

What are scavengers

A

animals that consume dead animals

207
Q

What animal could be both a scavenger and a predator

A

the snapping turtle

208
Q

What are intraspecific interactions

A

interactions between organisms of the same species

209
Q

what is intraspecific competition

A

when organisms of a species compete for the same resources, those resources get more scarce and the organisms must compete

210
Q

what are examples of intraspecific cooperation

A

reproduction
protection from predators
protection from destructive weather

211
Q

What is osmoregulation

A

the ability of animals to adapt to their specific water supplies

212
Q

What is the osmoregulation of saltwater fish like

A

they live in a hyperosmotic environment.
they are constantly losing water
they must constantly drink, never urinate, and excrete salt through their gills

213
Q

What is the osmoregulation of freshwater fish like

A

they live in a hypoosmotic environment
they are constantly taking in water and losing salt
They seldom drink, absorb salt through the gills, and excrete diluted urine

214
Q

What is the osmoregulation of insects like

A

they escrete solid uric acid crystals to conserve water

215
Q

What is the osmoregularion of a camel like

A

they can tolerate wide ranges of temperatures and posses fat layers that are exposed to solar radiation

216
Q

What is the osmoregulation of the horned toad like

A

they have thick scaly skin that prevents water loss

217
Q

Why do some animals burrow during the day in the desert

A

to look for food and avoid the heat of the day that causes water loss

218
Q

What do non desert plants do for osmoregulation

A

they posses waxy cuticles on leaf surfaces, and stomata on the lower leaves.
they shed leaves in winter to prevent water loss

219
Q

what do desert plants do for osmoregulation

A

they have extensive root systems, fleshy stems to store water, spiny leaves to limit water loss, extra thick cuticles, and few stomata

220
Q

roughly what percent of energy from ATP is heat

A

60 %

221
Q

What is the body temperature of poikilothermic organisms like

A

the temperature of their environement, becuase they give off most of the heat they produce

222
Q

What happens to poikilotherms metabolism with external temperature changes

A

the metabolic rate changes drastically with temperature changes
hotter = more active cold blooders
cold = less active cold blooders

223
Q

What are homeothermic animals

A

warm blooded animals

224
Q

What keeps homeothermic animals warm

A

fat, hair, feathers.

225
Q

What is the body temperature of hometherms like

A

it is higher than the external temperature

226
Q

What is an advantage of being homeothermic

A

you can live in many different regions because you aren’t affected by temperature as much

227
Q

how is energy flow in the ecosystem done

A

by the food chain, or food web

228
Q

what is the food chain

A

a single chain showing the transfer of energy

229
Q

What are the participants in the food chain

A
  1. producers
  2. primary consumers
  3. secondary consumers
  4. tertiary consumers
  5. decomposers
230
Q

what are producers in the food chain

A

autotrophic green plants and chemosynthetic bacteria, because they use solar energy to manufactor carbs, lipids, and proteins.

231
Q

What are primary consumers in the food chain

A

herbivores, anything that eats the green plants

232
Q

what are secondary consumers in the food chain

A

animals that consume primary consumers

233
Q

what are tertiary consumers in the food chain

A

animals that consume secondary consumers

234
Q

What are decomposers

A

the bacteria and fungi that decompose the organic wastes and dead tissues to simpler compounds.

235
Q

What is the food web

A

it is basically an expanded food chain, it shows all of the different food connections.

236
Q

what does the number of pathways in a food web indicate

A

the more pathways in a food web, the more stable the system.

237
Q

What are food pyramids

A

they show that with each step up the food chain, energy, total mass, and number of organisms decrease

238
Q

What is the energy pyramid

A

because each level uses some energy to get the energy from the earlier with each step up the chain there is less available energy
producers have total energy that primary consumers and so on

239
Q

what is the mass pyramid

A

because energy is the most at the bottom (producers) and the least at the top (tertiary consumers) the total mass of the producers is more than each level after it

240
Q

what is the numbers pyramid

A

with each step up the food chain you get less and less organisms

241
Q

What happens in material cycles

A

the materials usually change from inorganic to organic and back to inorganic forms

242
Q

what is the first step of the nitrogen cycle

A

elemental nitrogen is inert, so lightening and nitrogen-fixing bacteria change the nitrogen to usable soluble nitrates

243
Q

What are the steps of the nitrogen cycle

A
  1. nitrogen is activated
  2. nitrogen is taken up in plants and synthesize nucleic acids and plant proteins
  3. animals eat the plants and syntesize animal proteins
  4. both plants and animals die
  5. proteins and nitrogens locked up in waste and dead organisms is turned to ammonia by decaying things
  6. ammonia can be turned back to useless nitrogen and some is broken down to release free usable nitrogen
244
Q

What are the four bacteria in the nitrogen cycle

A
  1. decay
  2. nitrifying
  3. denitrifying
  4. nitrogen fixing
245
Q

What do nitrifyin bacteria do

A

turn ammonia into useless nitrogen

246
Q

what do denitrifying bacteria do

A

turn ammonia into useable nitrogen

247
Q

what do nitrogen fixing bacteria do

A

turn inert nitrogen into useful nitrogen

248
Q

What are the steps of the carbon cycle

A
  1. gasseous CO2 enters the living world through plants and photosynthesis
  2. animals eat plants and the animals release CO2 through respiration
  3. some carbon is left in dead things, but then decaying produces CO2 and puts it back into the air
249
Q

what are the three requirements for a self-sustaining ecosystem

A
  1. a stable physical environment + stable biotic community
  2. a constant energy source and producers
  3. cycling of materials between living system and it’s environment
250
Q

What is ecological sucession

A

the orderly process by which one biotic community replaces or succeeds another until a climax community is established

251
Q

In ecological succession what is each community stage called

A

a sere

252
Q

How is each sere in ecological succession indetified

A

by a dominant species

253
Q

What causes community changes in ecological succession

A

each new community changes the environment, making it more unfavorable for itself and more favorable for the community that succeeds it.

254
Q

At what point in ecological succession do we reach the climax community

A

when the succeeding community alters the environment in such a way that the original conditions that brought that community in are recreated.

255
Q

what happens once we have our climax community

A

replacement stops

256
Q

What determines what the climax community will be

A

abiotic factors

  • rainfall
  • soil conditions
  • temperature
  • shade
257
Q

What causes the climax community to fail

A

a major change in the climate (abiotic things)

or a major change in the biotic (disease, mutations)

258
Q

where is the evolutionary origin of plants

A

the seas

259
Q

what things did plants have to overcome to move to land from the seas

A
  1. relative lack of water
  2. relative lack of food
  3. varying temperatures
  4. varying composition of the soil
260
Q

What is a biome

A

distinct geographical regions inhabited by a distinct community

261
Q

What are land biomes characterized by and named after

A

the climax vegetation of the region

262
Q

What determines the climax animal population

A

the climax vegetation of the region

263
Q

What defines a desert biome

A
  1. recieves < 10” rain per year
  2. growing season only after rainfall
  3. small plants and animals
  4. few birds and mammals
  5. Examples (sahara and gobi)
264
Q

What defines a grassland biome

A
  1. low rainfall (10” - 30”) per year
  2. no shelter for herbivorus mammals
  3. animals have long legs many are hoofed
  4. Examples (praries east of the rockies, steppes of ukraine, pamapas of argentina)
265
Q

what defines a tropical rainforest biome

A
  1. Jungles classified by high temperatures and torrential rains
  2. Climax vegetation is dense vegetation that doesn’t shed leaves
  3. trees grow close together
  4. the floor has saprophtyes (living off dead stuff)
  5. Examples (central africa, central america, amazon basin, southeast asia
266
Q

What defines a deciduous forest biome

A
  1. cold winters, warm summers, moderate rainfall
  2. beech, maple, oaks, willows shed thier leaves during the winter
  3. animals include deer, fox, woodchuck, squirrel
  4. examples (northeast, cenrtal east USA, central europe)
267
Q

What defines a temperate coniferous forest biome

A
  1. cold, dry and inhabited by fir, pine and spruce trees
  2. most plants have evolved for water conservation (needles)
  3. examples (extreme northern USA and canada)
268
Q

What defines a Taiga biome

A
  1. less rainfall than temperate forests
  2. long cold winters
  3. only inhabited by the spruce
  4. cheif animal is the moose (black bear, wolf, and birds)
  5. examples extreme north of canada and russia
269
Q

What defines a tundra biome

A
  1. Treeless, frozen plain
  2. very short summer and very short growing season
  3. polar bears, musk oxen, artic hens
270
Q

What defines the polar region

A
  1. frozen area with no vegetation
  2. few animals
  3. animals that do live here live near the polar oceans
271
Q

What happens to your biome change as you go up a tall mountain

A

you would pass through biomes just like you do as you leave the equator.

base of the mountain = temperate deciduous biome
coniferous like biome
taiga like biome
tundra like biome
polar like biome at the mountain peak
272
Q

What determines biomes

A

temperature and rainfall

273
Q

how much of the earths food and oxygen production takes place in the water

A

90%

274
Q

What are the two major aquatic biomes

A

marina and freshwater

275
Q

Why are aquatic biomes so stable

A

because the oceans are much less likely to change in any way

276
Q

What are the three zones of the marine biome

A

intertidal zone
littoral zone
pelagic zone

277
Q

What is characteristic of the intertidal zone

A
  1. region exposed during low tide
  2. variations in temperature and dryness
  3. algae, sponges, clams, snails, sea urchins, starfish, crabs
278
Q

What is characteristic of the littoral zone

A
  1. region on the continental shelf that goes up to 600 feet deep
  2. algae, crabs, crustacea, fish
279
Q

What are the characteristics of the pelagic zone

A
  1. the open seas (anything after the continental shelf

2. Divided into the Photic and Aphotic zones

280
Q

What are the characteristics of the Photic zone

A
  1. The sunlight layer of the ocean
  2. 250 - 600 feet deep
  3. contains plankton, microscopic photosynthetic and heterotropic organims, nekton
281
Q

What is nekton

A

active swimmers like fish, sharks, whales that feed on smaller fish or plankton

282
Q

What is the chief autotroph in the photic zone

A

the diatom, an algae

283
Q

What are the characteristics of the Aphotic zone

A
  1. Region of the ocean that receives no sunlight
  2. only heterotrophs here
  3. Deep sea organisms with adaptations to survive the cold, dark, high-pressure environment
  4. nekton and benthos live here
  5. fiercely competitive habitat
284
Q

what are Benthos

A

organisms that live on or near the sea bed

285
Q

what happened to ancient organisms that tried to adapt to land but couldn’t

A

well they tried to do so in rivers, so instead of adapting to land, they adapted to freshwater. (some even adapted to be able to live in both)

286
Q

What factors affect life in water

A
temperature
transparency
depth of water
available CO2 and O2
Salt concentration
287
Q

How do freshwater biomes differ from marine biomes

A
  1. Freshwater is hypotonic, so water moves into the cells. so freshwater organisms must remove their excess water
  2. Swift currents exist, favoring strong muscles fish and plants with root like holdfasts
  3. Freshwater biomes are very affected by climate and weather
288
Q

What is taxonomy

A

the classification and nomenclature used for organisms

289
Q

How is modern taxonomy grouping up organisms

A

by their evolutionary relationships

290
Q

What is the classification system from most broad to most specific

A
Kingdom
Phyla (divisions)
Subphyla (subdivisions)
Classes
Orders
Families
Genera
Species
291
Q

What is my thingy for remembering classification systems

A
King
Phil
Said 
Classes
On 
Family
Get 
Spiritual
292
Q

When is Phyla and Subphyla used

A

only in the animal kingdom

293
Q

How are specific names assigned to organisms

A

you simply put their genus and species together

Homo - Sapiens

294
Q

What is the specific name for the house cat

A

felis domestica

295
Q

Who started the assignment of specific names for organisms

A

Carl Linn

296
Q

What are the Five kingdoms

A
Monera
Protista
Fungi
Plantae
Animalia
297
Q

How many kingdoms are there

A

5

298
Q

What is the thingy to remember the 5 Kingdoms

A
Many 
People
Find 
People
Annoying
299
Q

Why aren’t viruses put into any of the kingdoms

A
  1. because they do not carry out any activities outside of a host
  2. they can be considered non-living
300
Q

What are viruses that infect bacteria called

A

bacteriophages

301
Q

What are characteristics of the monera kingdom

A
  1. They are prokaryotes (bacteria)
  2. They lack a nucleus or membrane bound organelles
  3. single celled organisms
  4. asexual reproduction
302
Q

What are the characteristics of the protista kindgom

A
  1. Primitive eukaryotic organisms
  2. plant like and animal like characteristics
  3. no differentiation of tissues
  4. each cell can carry out all of the life processes
  5. any eukaryote not classified as plants or animals
303
Q

What are the characteristics of the fungi kingdom

A
  1. non-photosynthetic plants
  2. saprophytic or parasitic
  3. varied and unique modes of reproduction
  4. cell walls of chitin, not cellulose
304
Q

How are fungi similar to plants

A
  1. Multicellular
  2. differentiated
  3. nonmotile
305
Q

how do fresh water plants deal with the hypoosmolarity of the water

A

they store the water in their rigid cell walls, minimizing the gradient

306
Q

What is turgor

A

when a cell builds up pressure as water comes in

307
Q

What are the characteristics of the plantae kingdom

A
  1. multicellular organisms
  2. differentiation of tissues
  3. non-motile
  4. photosynthetic
  5. alternation of generations and a distinct embryonic phase
308
Q

What are the characteristics of the animalia kingdom

A
  1. Multicellular
  2. generally motile
  3. heterotrophic
  4. differentiated tissues
  5. have organs in higher forms
309
Q

What is cyanobacteria

A

blue-green algae

310
Q

where is cyanobacteria found

A

in freshwater, sometimes marine water

311
Q

What are some characteristics of cyanobacteria

A
  1. have photosynthetic pigments
  2. don’t have flagella, true nucleus, chloroplasts, mitochondria
  3. can withstand extreme temperatures
  4. believed to be direct descendants of the first photosynthetic organisms
312
Q

What is most bacteria like

A
  1. single celled prokaryotes
  2. 1 double stranded DNA ring
  3. no nuclear membrane
  4. have cell walls
  5. are important in biogeochemical cycles
313
Q

how are some bacteria classified

A

by their morphoogical appearances

314
Q

What are cocci

A

round bacteria

315
Q

what are cabili

A

rod like bacteria

316
Q

what are spirilla

A

spiral bacteria

317
Q

what are diplococci

A

bacterial duplexes

318
Q

what are staphylococci

A

bacterial clusters

319
Q

what are streptococci

A

chain like bacteria

320
Q

What are the two categories of the protista kingdom

A

protozoa

algae

321
Q

what are protozoa

A

single celled heterotrophic organisms

322
Q

What are two types of protozoa

A

rhizopods

ciliophors

323
Q

What is algae

A

phtosynthetic single celled eukaryotes

324
Q

What are slime molds

A

they are a coenocytic mass of protoplasm (many nuclei) with a unique life cycle similar to plants and animals

325
Q

What do waxy cuticles do in plants

A

they minimize water loss and allow sunlight

326
Q

What are bryophyta

A

simple plants with a few specialized organs and tissues

327
Q

What is the dominant generation in bryophyta

A

the gametophyte

328
Q

What are the two types of bryophyta

A

mosses and liverworts

329
Q

What are liverworts

A

flat leaf like plants

330
Q

What are tracheophyta

A

vascular plants

331
Q

What is the dominant generation in tracheophytes

A

the sporophyte

332
Q

what are the four divisions of tracheophytes

A
  1. psilophyta
  2. lycophyta
  3. spenophyta
  4. pterophyta
333
Q

Which divisions of tracheophytes are almost extinct

A

psilophyt
lycophyta
spenophyta

334
Q

What is an example of a pterophyta plant

A

fern

335
Q

What in the coniferophyta division

A

conifers like cycads, pines, spruce, and fir trees

336
Q

conifers are gymnosperms, what are gymnopserms

A

naked-seeded plants

337
Q

What are the types of cones from conifers

A
  1. Large female cones whose sporangia produce megaspores

2. small male cones whose sporangia produce microspores

338
Q

What does deciduous mean

A

the leaves fall off

339
Q

What is the anthophyta divison of plants

A

flowering plants known as angiosperms

340
Q

What are the two subclasses of angiosperms

A

dicotyledons (dicots)

monocotyledons (monocots)

341
Q

What are dicots

A
  • have two cotyledons (seeded leaves)
342
Q

What are monocots

A
  • have seeds with single cotyledons
343
Q

What are the 6 characteristics used to define animalia

A
  1. Differentiation of cells
  2. alimentation
  3. Locomotion
  4. Bilateral symmetry
  5. Nervous system
  6. Chemical coordinating systems
344
Q

What kinds of foods do most animals eat

A

holotrophic foods

345
Q

What are sessile animals

A

stationary animals that trap food

346
Q

What are the characteristics of sponges

A
  1. two layers of cells
  2. have pores
  3. are sessile
  4. have low cellular specialization
347
Q

What are the characteristics of cnidarians

A
  1. sealed digestive sac at one end
  2. Two layers (ectoderm and endoderm)
  3. tentacles, stinging cells, net nerves
  4. Hydra, jellyfish, sea anemone, and coral
348
Q

What are the characteristics of platyhelminthes

A
  1. flatworms
  2. three layers of cells
  3. no circulatory system
  4. inferior nervous system
349
Q

What are the characteristics of nematoda

A
  1. round worms
  2. digestive tubes and anus
  3. no circulatory system
  4. nerve cords, and nerve ring
350
Q

What are the characteristics of annelida

A
  1. segmented worms
  2. have a coelom
  3. well defined systems
  4. earthworms and leeches
351
Q

What is a coelom

A

a true body cavity

352
Q

What are the charateristics of mollucsca

A
  1. soft bodied
  2. mantles that secrete calcareous exoskeletons
  3. breath by gills
  4. chambered hearts
  5. snails, clams, squid
353
Q

What are the characteristics of arthropods

A
  1. jointed appendages
  2. chitin exoskeletons
  3. open circulatory systems
354
Q

What are calcareous exoskeletons

A

calcium carbonate

355
Q

What are the three classes of arthropods

A
  1. insects
  2. Arachnids
  3. Crustaceans
356
Q

What are the characteristics of insects

A
  1. Three pairs of legs
  2. spiracles
  3. tracheal tubes for breating
357
Q

what are the characteristics of arachnids

A
  1. four pairs of legs
  2. book lungs
  3. (spiders and scorpions)
358
Q

what are the characteristics of crustaceans

A
  1. segmented body
  2. variable numbers of appendages
  3. gills
  4. lobster, crayfish, shrimp
359
Q

What are the characteristics of echinoderms

A
  1. spiny
  2. radially symmetrical
  3. water vascular system
  4. regeneration of parts
  5. starfish, sea urchins
360
Q

What are the characteristics of chordates

A
  1. have a notochord in development
  2. paired gill slits
  3. tail beyond the anus in development
361
Q

What is unique about lancelets and tunicates

A

they are chordates, but not vertebrates

362
Q

What are verterbrates

A
  1. most advances chordates
  2. have vertebrae
  3. amphibians, reptiles, birds, fish and mammals
363
Q

What are the characteristics of fish

A
  1. two chambered heart
  2. gills
  3. use external fertilization for reproduction
364
Q

What are the three kind of fish

A
  1. jawless fish
  2. cartilagenous fish
  3. bony fish
365
Q

What are the characteristics of jawless fish

A
  1. eel-like
  2. retain notochord
  3. catrilagenous internal skeleton
  4. lamprey and hagfish
366
Q

What are the characteristics of cartilagenous fish

A
  1. have jaws and teeth
  2. reduced notochord
  3. Sharks
367
Q

What are the charateristics of bony fish

A
  1. the most common kind of fish
  2. have scales
  3. lack notochord
  4. bony skelton
  5. tuna, sturgeon, trout
368
Q

What are the characteristics of larval amphibia

A
  1. larval stage found in water

2. has a tail, gills and no legs

369
Q

What are the characteristics of adult amphibia

A
  1. live on land
  2. have lungs, two pairs of legs
  3. 3 chambered heart
  4. uses external fertilization
  5. frog, salamander, toad, newt
370
Q

What are the characteristics of reptiles

A
  1. terrestrial animals
  2. breath air by lungs
  3. lay leathery eggs.
  4. use internal fertilization
  5. poikilothermic
  6. turtle, lizard, snake crocodile
371
Q

What are the characteristics of bird

A
  1. four chambered heart
  2. warm-blooded (homeothermic)
  3. eggs in shells
  4. hen and eagle
372
Q

What are the characteristics of mammals

A
  1. homeothermic

2. feed offspring with milk

373
Q

What are the kinds of mammals

A
  1. monetremes
  2. marsupials
  3. placental mammals
374
Q

What are the charateriscics of monotremes

A
  1. lay eggs
  2. horny bills
  3. milk glands with no nipples
  4. duckbilled platypus and the spiny anteater
375
Q

What are the characteristics of marsupials

A
  1. pouched mammals
  2. begins development in the uterus, finishes attached to nipples in the abdominal pouch
  3. kangaroo, opossum
376
Q

What are the characteristics of placental mammals

A
  1. fully develop in the uterus
  2. placenta
  3. bats, mice, humans
377
Q

What is evolution

A

the change in the genetic makeup of a population over time

378
Q

What are the 6 main evidences of evolution

A
1, types of fossils
2, comparative anatomy
3. comparative embryology
4. comparative biochemistry
5. vestigial structures
6. geographic barriers
379
Q

Where are fossils generally found

A

sedementary rock

380
Q

What are the different type of fossils

A
  1. actual remains
  2. petrification
  3. imprints
  4. molds
  5. casts
381
Q

What is petrification

A

when minerals replace the cells of an organism

382
Q

What are molds

A

hollow spaces in rock left from decayed organisms

383
Q

What are casts

A

minerals depositing in molds

384
Q

What are the two types of comparative anatomy

A

homologous structures

analogous structures

385
Q

What are homologous structures

A

structures with the same features and origins

386
Q

What are analogous structures

A

structures that have similar functions but different origins

387
Q

What are examples of homologous structures

A

wings of a bat
flippers of a whale
forelegs of a horse
arms of humans

388
Q

What are examples of analogous structures

A

wings of a fly and wings of a bird

389
Q

What is comparative embryology

A

when stages of development of a more evolved organisms resemble other organisms

390
Q

What are examples of common embryology

A

human fetus’ have gills like fish
fish embryo’s have teeth like reptiles
human embryo’s have a tail

391
Q

What is comparative biochemistry

A

looking at DNA, chemical processes, enzymes and genetic similarities and differences
(many organisms have common DNA sequences, indicating common ancestors)

392
Q

What is divergence

A

when two species became evolutionary different

the longer ago the divergence, the more different they are now

393
Q

What are vestigial structres

A

apparently useless strucutres that apparently had some use in ancestors

394
Q

What are examples of vestigial structures

A

appendix in humans (helps in herbivore cellulose digestion)
Coccyx in humans (tail)
splints on the legs of the horse (two side toes of eohippus)
python has useless legs embedded in it’s sides (whales have similar hind-limb bones)

395
Q

how do geographic barriers prove evolution

A

once organisms of the same species were separated, they kept some of their traits and the advantageous ones were highlighted differently in each one.

396
Q

What is systematics

A

a field that studies and constructs evolutionary relationships

397
Q

What is a phylogeny

A

the evolutionary history of a group of organisms

398
Q

What is cladistics

A

the classification of organisms based on their phylogenic tree

399
Q

what is important in cladistics

A

parsimony

400
Q

What is lamarckian evolution

A

it said that the useful developped traits of a parent were passed on to a child. (not true)

401
Q

Why is lamarckian evolution wrong

A

only changes in DNA of sex cells can be inherited

402
Q

What is darwins theory of natural selection

A

that the most fit of organisms survive and reproduce

403
Q

What are some agents leading to evolutionary change according to darwin

A
  1. Overpopulation (some offspring die)
  2. Variations (not all offspring are the same)
  3. Competition (many young die)
  4. Natural selection (the best things live)
  5. Inheritance of variations (the longer you live the more you reproduce)
  6. Evolution of the new species (favorable changes are perpetuated)
404
Q

What is the gene pool

A

the sum total of all the alleles for any given train in the population

405
Q

What id gene frequency

A

the decimal fraction representing the presence of an allele for all members of the population that have this gene locus

406
Q

What does p + q = 1 mean

A

that the frequency of the dominant allele (p) and the frequency of the recessive allele (q) when added must equal 1 (100%)

407
Q

What are the 5 conditions that have to be met for a population to be in Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium

A
  1. Population is large
  2. No mutations
  3. Random mating
  4. no net migration in or out of the pool
  5. genes in the pool can all equally reproduce
408
Q

What is the hardy weinburg equation

A

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

409
Q

what does p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 mean

A
p^2 = number of homozygous dominants
2pq = number of heterozygous 
q^2 = number of homozygous recessive
410
Q

What is microevolution

A

The deviations from hardy weinburg equilibrium that happen in real life

411
Q

What are the factors in microevolution

A
  1. natural selection
  2. mutation
  3. assortive mating
  4. genetic drift
  5. gene flow
412
Q

What is assortive mating

A

some traits lead to more mating, so they will be passed on

413
Q

What is genetic drift

A

changes in composition of the gene pool due to chance

414
Q

What is gene flow

A

migration in or out of a population will cause a change in composition of a popluations gene flow

415
Q

What is speciation

A

the evolution of a new species that can reproduce with itself and no other species

416
Q

What are demes

A

small populations of interbreeding organims that begin to resemble eachother more than other organisms of the same species

417
Q

What leads to the creation of a new species

A
genetic variation
environment changes
migration
adaptation
natural selection
isolation
418
Q

at what point can one say that a new species has been created

A

when two individuals of the same species can’t mate to form a viable offspring

419
Q

what is adaptive radiation

A

the emergence of a number of species from a single ancestral species.

420
Q

how does adaptive radiation occur

A

organisms diverge into specific niches

421
Q

What are the three evolutionary patterns

A
  1. divergent evolution
  2. convergent evolution
  3. parallel evolution
422
Q

how does isolation cause evolution

A

when two populations of the same species are isolated, change in them become permanent and different from the other because there is no gene flow between them