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DAT > DAT bootcamp Test 1 > Flashcards

DAT bootcamp Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Do all cells have a nucleus

A

nope

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2
Q

What diseases are characterized by excessive apoptosis

A

Alzheimers
Parkinsons
Huntingsons disease

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3
Q

what is apoptosis

A

the process of programmed cell death

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4
Q

what else is similar between alzheimers, parkinsons, huntingtons disease

A

they are all neurodegenerative diseases

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5
Q

What kind of disease would result from insufficient apoptosis

A

cancerous growth

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6
Q

How are peripheral membrane proteins held in place

A

by electrostatic interactions and hydrogen bonding

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7
Q

how would you cause peripheral membrane proteins to release from their place

A

change the salt concentrations

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8
Q

How would you cause integral proteins to be extracted

A

adding a detergent

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9
Q

how does adding a detergent cause intergral proteins to be extracted

A

The hydrophobic detergent will break down the membrane and expose the hydrophobic protein

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10
Q

What does a light centrifuge do to a solution

A

precipitates cells and nuclei at most

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11
Q

What could a heavy centrifuge do to a solution

A

they may extract small soluble proteins

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12
Q

What compounds were used in the Miller-Urey experiment

A

ammonia
Methane
Water
Hydrogen

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13
Q

If a toxin is released into the body that degenerates the microfilaments what part of the body will be most affected

A

Muscles, because actin is a microfilament

not spindle fibers for they are microtubules

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14
Q

What is the name of the structure that helps bacteria stick to a surface

A

Pili

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15
Q

What does flagella do for bacteria

A

flagella is like a tail of microtubules that allows bacteria to move

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16
Q

What is clathrin

A

a receptor protein on the surface of a cell

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17
Q

What are Teichoic acids

A

they are only found in gram-positive bacteria and they help to keep the cell wall rigid

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18
Q

When seeing in which situation a plant is doing more or less photosynthesis what do you look for

A

more CO2 being used up and going away, more O2 present

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19
Q

What does a reaction being Exergonic mean

A

that energy is produced, given off

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20
Q

What does an endergonic indicate

A

that the reaction required the input of energy

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21
Q

What does it mean when a plant cell is turgid

A

that it has taken up too much water

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22
Q

What does it mean when a plant cell undergoes plasmolysis

A

that it releases too much water a shrivels

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23
Q

What does the notochord eventually become

A

the spine

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24
Q

What is the notochord

A

a band of cartilage that runs the length of the body that will eventually become the spine

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25
Q

What does the spinal cord begin as

A

the dorsal neural tube

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26
Q

What are pharyngeal slits

A

in chordates they become gills or the pharynx

in urochordates they are part of the filter-feeding system

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27
Q

What is the muscular tail that extends behind the anus known as

A

the post-anal tail

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28
Q

What does the endostyle do

A

produces mucus for filter feeders

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29
Q

What is a poikilothermic

A

a cold blooded animal

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30
Q

What is a homeotherm

A

a warm blooded animal

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31
Q

What is unique about the cell walls of fungi

A

they use both glucans and chitin

They are the only organism that does

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32
Q

What is peristalsis

A

Muscle movement in the esophagus and the intestine responsible for food motility

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33
Q

What does reflux mean in the digestive system

A

food moving backwards in the digestive system

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34
Q

Oligodendrocytes are best associated with

A

the White matter of the brain because the white matter is caused by the myelin sheaths it makes

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35
Q

What is the main extracellular buffer system in the body

A

bicarbonate

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36
Q

What is the main intracellular buffer system in the body

A

phosphate and other proteins

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37
Q

How do marine fish maintain homeostasis

A

they constantly drink water, because they are constantly losing it

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38
Q

Are marine fish normally hypoosmotic or hyperosmotic to their environment

A

Hypoosmotic, it has less salt in it than the ocean

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39
Q

How often do marine fish urinate

A

rarely

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40
Q

What happens to the salt that marine fish ingest

A

they secrete it out

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41
Q

Are fresh water fish usually hypoosmotic or hyperosmotic

A

hyperosmotic, they have more salt than the water

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42
Q

So what happens with osmoregulation in freshwater fish

A

water flows into them so they have to constantly urinate to get rid of excess water.

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43
Q

do freshwater fish drink water

A

rarely

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44
Q

how do freshwater fish get the salt they need

A

they absorb it through the gills

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45
Q

Why does cartilage take a long time to heal

A

because it doesn’t have direct blood supply

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46
Q

Where is apoptosis used in embryological development

A

removal of the webbing of the fingers

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47
Q

In deuterostomes what does the first opening that forms give rise to

A

Anus

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48
Q

In protostomes what does the first opening that forms give rise to

A

Mouth

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49
Q

Are human embryo’s deuterostomes of protostomes

A

deuterostomes

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50
Q

What develops into the anus in deuterostomes and the mouth in protostomes

A

The blastophore or the opening in the archenteron

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51
Q

What eventually forms the placenta

A

Chorionic vili

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52
Q

Vitelline is a portion of the female egg in sea urchins that does what

A

binds the sperm

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53
Q

What is the part of the egg in mammals that binds the sperm

A

Zona pellucida

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54
Q

What does progesterone do in the process of fertilization

A

leads the sperm to the egg

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55
Q

What does the ZP3 protein do for the fertilization process

A

helps GalT activate the acrosome reaction

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56
Q

What is phrenology

A

the study of the contours of the brain

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57
Q

What are vectors

A

tools in biology used to transform the DNA of organisms for gene splicing

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58
Q

What is a cladogram for

A

determining if organisms are related, but not on a molecular or gene level. often they are based on phenotypes or physical appearance

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59
Q

What is a karyotype

A

a digital image of the size, shape, and number of chromosomes of an organism

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60
Q

What is an aneupoloid

A

when something has an abnormal amount of schromosomes

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61
Q

What does disomic refer to when talking of chromosomes

A

it is the same thing as diploid

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62
Q

What is the hardy-weinburg equilibrium equation

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p + q = 1

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63
Q

So if there are 9 out of 100 organsims that have recessive traits

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p + q = 1

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64
Q

What is Brackish water

A

a mix between salt water and fresh water

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65
Q

What is an estuary

A

where saltwater meets fresh water

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66
Q

What kind of water is in an estuary

A

brackish water

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67
Q

Can marshes be brackish water

A

yep

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68
Q

What is fitness in genetics

A

the ability reproduce and pass on inherited traits to their offspring

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69
Q

What determines an organisms reproductive fitness

A

the % viability of her offspring and the total number of offspring that live

70
Q

What is interference competition

A

When the establishment of other individuals who would compete for mutual resources is prevented

71
Q

what is allelopathy

A

a type of interference competition in which a toxic chemical is used

72
Q

What is intraspecific competition

A

When competition for resources occurs within the same species

73
Q

What is the largest biome on earth with long harsh snowy winters, short rainy and humid summers, and a landscape dominated by conifers

A

Taiga

74
Q

What is the biome of dedacious forests like

A

They are known for having four distinct seasons

75
Q

What is the savanna biome like

A

they have small grasses, shrubs, and scattered trees and have a rainy and dry season

76
Q

What is the tundra biome like

A

regions that have short growing seasons, cold temperatures all year round, and a layer of permafrost over the soil

77
Q

What are conifers

A

spruce, fir and pine trees

78
Q

What is the tropical desert biome like

A

extremely high temperatures with sporadic rainfall

79
Q 
A sample of chromium oxide is 76.5% chromium by weight. What is the simplest formula of the oxide?
 A. CrO3
  B. CrO2
  C. CrO
  D. Cr2O
  E. Cr2O3
A

C. CrO

What you have to do is use the masses of each atom and see which combination is the mass of the total 76% chromium

80
Q 
In air bags, the reaction of sodium azide (NaN3, 65 g/mol) to form sodium and nitrogen gas is triggered by an electric current, thus expanding the air bag. If there are 65 grams of sodium azide in the air bag, how many mols of nitrogen gas are formed?
 A. 1 mol
  B. 1.5 mols
  C. 3 mols
  D. 5 mols
  E. 0.1 mols
A

B. 1.5 mols

Steps
write out the balanced reaction
NaN3 –> Na + 1.5N2
2NaN3 –> 2Na + 3N2

So if you have one mole of NaN3 then you have 1.5 moles of N2

81
Q 
3. How many grams of lead(II) sulfate (303 g/mol) are needed to react with sodium chromate (162 g/mol) in order to produce 0.162 kg of lead(II) chromate (323 g/mol)?
 A. 112.8
B. 151.5
C. 189.2
  D. 289.6
  E. 212.5
A

B. 151.5

  1. Write out the balanced reaction
    PbSO4 + Na2CrO4 -> PbCrO4 + Na2SO4
  2. How many moles are we making
  3. how many moles do we need to use
  4. how many grams are in those moles
82
Q

What is sulfate

A

SO4

83
Q

What is chromate

A

CrO4

84
Q

What is the combined gas law

A

(P1 x V1)/(n1 x T1) = (P2 x V2)/(n2 x T2)

85
Q

What equation do you use when looking for moles of gas

A

PV = nRT

86
Q

What does R = when using atm

A

.082

87
Q

What does R = when using kPa

A

8.314

88
Q

What is pressure at sea level

A

1 atm

89
Q

how many degrees must you add to C to get K

A

273

90
Q 
The bond length of the chlorine molecule, Cl2, is 199 pm. On the other hand, a pure carbon structure, such as diamond, has C-C bond lengths of 154 pm. What is the bond length of a C-Cl bond?
  A.	154 pm
  B.	218 pm
  C.	176 pm
  D.	120 pm
  E.	188 pm
A

C. 176 pm

In order to get bond length you just need the average of the bond lengths between the two pure compounds

91
Q

What is an electrolyte

A

an ion in water

92
Q

what determines the melting point of a substance

A

the strength of the intermolecular forces between the molecues

93
Q

What are the bonds like between pure elemental gasses like

A

they are covalent and non-polar, this gives rise to weak intermolecular forces

94
Q 
Which of the following solutions has the lowest freezing point?
  A. 0.20 m C6H12O6
  B. 0.20 m Ba(NO3)2
  C. 0.20 m H2SO4
  D. 0.20 m Na3PO4
  E. 0.20 m K2CrO4
A

D. 0.20 m Na3PO4

this is because it breaks down into the most particles in solution

95
Q

What is the freezing point depression equation

A

ΔTF = -(KF · m · i)

T = temperature change
K = constant
m = molality
i = van't Hoff Factor (number of particles in solution)
96
Q

What does a large T if freezing point depression mean

A

a lower freezing point

97
Q

What is the formula for osmotic pressure

A

Pie = iMRT

Pie = osmotic pressure
i = van't hoff factor
M = molarity
R = constant
T = temperature
98
Q

An aqueous solution of potassium chloride is heated from 20C to 60C (no vaporization occurred). Which of the following occurs while the solution is being heated?
A. The mole fraction of solute decreases.
B. The mole fraction of solvent increases.
C. The density of the solution is constant.
D. The molarity of the solution is constant.
E. The molality of the solution is constant.

A

E. The molality of the solution is constant.

  1. Mol fractions don’t change since no KCl was added
  2. Density changes since volume changes
  3. molarity changes since volume changes
  4. molality doesn’t change since mass doesn’t change
99
Q

What is thermal expansion

A

that the volume of a liquid increase due to added heat

100
Q 
If the conjugate base of a molecule has a pKb of 1.4, what would you expect the conjugate acid to be?
  A.	Strong acid
  B.	Weak acid
  C.	Neutral
  D.	Weak base
  E.	Strong base
A

pKb + pKa = 14
pKa of conj, acid = 12.6

B. Weak acid

101
Q 
A researcher has a solution of 3M nitric acid that she needs to neutralize. In order to do this, she decides to add the acid to a solution to neutralize it. Which of the following would neutralize the acid the fastest?
  A.	Br-
  B.	Na3PO4
  C.	NH3
  D.	Cl-
  E.	H2O
A

In order to neutralize an acid you want something that will absorb the most H+’s.

B. Na3PO4

102
Q

Consider the below chemical equilibrium in a closed vessel at a constant temperature. The easiest method to measure the equilibrium constant for this system is to measure: Na2CO3(s) CO2(g) + Na2O(s)
A. the temperature of the reaction.
B. the pressure of the CO2 gas.
C. the molar concentrations of all the reactants.
D. the forward and reverse rate constants.
E. the mass of the solid present.

A

B. the pressure of the CO2 gas.

The equilbrium constant doesn’t include solids or liquids so the gas is the only determinant

103
Q

What is the gibbs free energy equation and what does it do

A

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

helps us determine if a reaction is or isn’t spontaneous

104
Q 
Describe the reaction below.
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)→ PCl5(g) ; ΔHf = -87.9 kJ/mol
  A.	spontaneous at all temperatures
  B.	nonspontaneous at all temperatures
  C.	ΔGrxn
A

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS

ΔH is negative
ΔS is negative (because entropy decrease with fewer molecules than we started with

so ΔG is only negative when T is low

105
Q

All of the following statements are true of entropy EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Entropy will increase as temperature increases
B. Entropy is a measure of the disorder in a system
C. A spontaneous reaction can produce an increase in entropy
D. The entropy of a forward reaction is the same as the entropy of the reverse reaction
E. The entropy of a gas vessel increases as volume increases

A

D. The entropy of a forward reaction is the same as the entropy of the reverse reaction

106
Q 
The rate law of a certain reaction is rate = k[X][Y]2. The units of k is(are):
  A.	s-1
  B.	M-1s-2
  C.	M-2s-1
  D.	M-1
  E.	M-1s-1
A

Steps
1. Add up exponents in the rate law to find what order the reaction is
1 + 2 = 3
Third order reaction = M^-2s^-1

107
Q

what do the units of K look like as order reaction changes

A

First order: s^-1
Second order: M^-1s^-1
Third order: M^-2s^-1

You start out with s^-1 and just add an M^-1 with every increase in reaction order

108
Q

Given the reaction 2A + B –> C and the provided table with various concentrations and initial rates, what is the correct rate law? Assume the rate constant K does not change.

Trial [A] [B] Rate
1 0.05 0.05 6.5 x 10-2
2 0.05 0.1 6.5 x 10-2
3 0.1 0.05 0.13

  A. rate = k[A]1[B]1
  B. rate = k[B]1
  C. rate = k[A]1
  D. rate = k[A]2[B]1
  E. rate = k[A]1[B]2
A
  1. A change in the concentration of B doesn’t affect the reaction rate so it wont be found in the rate law B = zero order
  2. A double in the concentration of A doubles the reaction rate so it is first order

C. rate = k[A]1

109
Q

Two half-reactions of silver(I) solution are set up in an galvanic cell with differing concentrations. In this concentration cell, which of the following is driving the current?
A. Voltage from an external battery source
B. Attraction of electrons to the higher concentration of Ag+ ions
C. Deposition of balancing ions from the salt bridge into the half reactions
D. Tendency for the two differing concentrations to equalize due to entropy
E. Deposition of electrons and ions onto the anode

A

D. Tendency for the two differing concentrations to equalize due to entropy

110
Q 
Which of the following best describes the bond character for aluminum sulfide (Al2S3)?
  A.	Polar covalent
  B.	Covalent
  C.	Ionic
  D.	Hydrophobic
  E.	Hydrogen bonding
A

A. Polar covalent

111
Q

Single, double, and triple covalent bonds exist in chemistry. Why does N2 have a triple covalent bond whereas O2 only has a double covalent bond?
A. Nitrogen is unable to form a double bond due to its uneven amount of non-bonding electrons.
B. Having 5 valence electrons, Nitrogen fills it’s octet by sharing 3 bonding pairs of electrons.
C. Oxygen is more electronegative than Nitrogen and therefore cannot make as many bonds as Nitrogen.
D. Oxygen has only 4 valence electrons, which results in 2 bonds
E. Having 4 valence electrons, Nitrogen forms a bond for each orbital it fills.

A

B. Having 5 valence electrons, Nitrogen fills it’s octet by sharing 3 bonding pairs of electrons.

112
Q 
What is the difference between the bond angles of water and methane?
  A. 5 degrees
  B. 10.5 degrees
  C. 61.5 degrees.
  D. 70.5 degrees.
  E. They have the same bond angle
A

A. 5 degrees

Because they are both tetrahedral the bond angles are close to 109.5. but because the electrons pairs repel the H’s the angle is just slightly smaller

113
Q 
Which element has the smallest first ionization energy?
  A.	N
  B.	C
  C.	B
  D.	Be
  E.	Li
A

E. Li

Ionization energy increase left to right along any period

114
Q

What causes ionization energy to increase from left to right in a peroid

A

the more protons there are the more tightly held the electrons will be

115
Q

Is an element in the 7th group always heavier than the one in the 6th group

A

nope, Iodine is lighter then tellurium

116
Q

Where is electronegativy the highest

A

the upper right of the periodic table

117
Q

True of false, as the period number increases the molecular weight always increases

A

True

118
Q

A 100mL 1M solution of calcium nitrate Ca(NO3)2 is mixed with 500 mL of 1M NaOH. The resulting mixture shows no precipitate – what is the most likely reason for this?

A

Because CaOH2 is quite unsoluble in water you would expect to see precipitate, so solubility must have been increased by increasing the temperature

119
Q

Is a methyl group activating or deactivating (strongly or weakly)

A

activating weakly

120
Q

How does an activating group direct the addition of stuff

A

ortho para directing

121
Q

What is a radical propogation like

A

start with one radical and end with one

122
Q

what is a radical initiation reaction like

A

start with zero radicals and end with two

123
Q

What is a radical termination reaction like

A

start with two and end with 0 radicals

124
Q

What kind of reaction does a Strong unhindered base participate in

A

E2

125
Q

for the hole punching exercise what do I need to watch for

A

holes that punch on crease lines

126
Q

For the folding one what should I do

A

Check the shapes on the unfolded pattern and see which objects have those same shapes

127
Q

Angle ranking strategies

A
  1. find smallest angle
  2. find largest angle
  3. quick glances, hill method
128
Q

Reading strategies

A

key words of all of the questions, then read through

129
Q

how do you add exponents

A

write out the whole numbers and add them. if it is 10 to the something and they are aren’t close they will likely just round up to the largest one

130
Q

What is an exponential equation

A

When a fixed number is raised to a variable exponent

131
Q

What is a power function

A

when a variable number is raised to a fixed exponent

132
Q 
Given 2x + 2y = -8 and 3x – 3y = 2, what is y?
 A. 2
  B. -15/4
  C. -7/3
  D. 3/4
  E. 18/5
A

C. -7/3

  1. Subtract the first one from the second one to figure out what x is equal to
  2. plug x into one of the two equations and solve for y
133
Q

how many kilometers are there in a mile

A

1.7

134
Q

How much is a metric ton

A

1000 kg

135
Q

How much is an english ton

A

2000 lbs

136
Q

when doing this one Tracing around the OUTSIDE of the box, what is the shortest distance from point A to point B?
what should you remember

A

that you have to unfold the object and then work on in

137
Q 
In the U.S., 1 out of 100 people has metal fillings. A metal detector, at the airport, is able to detect the metal fillings a person's mouth. What is the probability that twenty people are able to pass through the metal detector without it going off? Choose the closest answer.
  A. 0.01*0.9920
  B. (0.99)20
  C. (0.01)20
  D. 20*0.99
  E. 20*0.01
A
  1. find the likelyhood of setting off the alarm
    =.01
    2, since we DON’T want to set the alarm off we need to subtract that from 1
    = .99
  2. Since there are twenty people we must raise that to the 20th
138
Q

How many people fall within the first standard deviation

A

68%

139
Q

How many people fall within the second deviation

A

95% (half above the first SDV, half below)

140
Q

how many people fall within the third standard deviation

A

99.7% (half above the first SDV, half below)

141
Q 
Tom has a 4 sided die and a 20 sided die. If the product is greater than 70, he gains 5 points. What is the probability that he can gain 10 points in 2 rolls?
  A. 0.14%
  B. 0.55%
  C. 1.25%
  D. 3.75%
  E. 5.25%
A

what is the probability of rolling a 70 once
1/4 for the first die, times by 3/20 for the second die = 3/80 = .0375

The probability of doing that twice, you must times that by itself

3/80 X 3/80 = 9/6400 = .0014 = .14%

142
Q

in a 45, 45, 90 triangle what is the hypoteneuse

A

Y x (square root of 2) side length

143
Q

What does the tan x =

A

sin x / cos x

144
Q

What is the interest equation

A 
FV = PV (1 + I)^n
FV = future value
PV = present value
I = interest rate 
n = number of years
145
Q

What is molarity

A

moles/liter

146
Q

what is molality

A

moles of solute / kg of solvent

147
Q

is Ca(OH)2 water soluble

A

not very

148
Q

what does a methyl group do to a benzene (activate/deactivate, opm director)

A

weakly activating

Ortho, para director

149
Q 
what kind of reactions does 
NaOCH3
------------->
CH3OH
do
A

strong and unhindered base = SN2/E2

150
Q

What are the conditions that favor SN1 reactions

A
  • weak Nu (by not favoring SN2)
  • more likely on tertiary > secondary > primary carbons
  • creates a racemic mixture
151
Q

What are the conditions that favor SN2 reactions

A
  • Strong Nu
  • more likely on primary and secondary carbons (not on tertiary)
  • causes inversion of stereochemistry
152
Q

What are the conditions that favor E1 reactions

A
  • weak base (by not favoring E2)
  • more likely on tertiary > secondary >primary carbons
  • causes the bulkiest groups to be on opposite sides
153
Q

What are the conditions that favor E2 reactions

A
  • Strong base
  • more likely on tertiary > secondary >primary carbons
  • secondary carbons = E and Z isomers
  • major product = one with the bulkiest sides opposite
  • Hydrogen Anti to the leaving group is removed
154
Q

what kind of hydrogen is removed in cyclohexane by E2 reactions

A

axial H’s

155
Q

What is a stereospecific reaction

A

one that only produces one single product with specific stereochemistry

156
Q

what are the atoms capable of h bonding

A

F O N

157
Q

How does fractional distillation separate compounds

A

based on their boiling point

158
Q

What are meso compounds

A

compounds with chiral centers and a plane of symmetry

159
Q

What does PBr3 do

A

convert alcohols into alkyl bromides

160
Q

does organolithium prefer to attack the more or less substituted carbon

A

organolithium attacks the less substituted carbon

161
Q

What does NaNH2 do to a terminal alkyne

A

it removes the H making the triple bond an Nu

NaNH2 is a strong base

162
Q

is an ester an electron withdrawing or donating group

A

esters are electron withdrawing groups which deactivate the ring and are meta directors

163
Q

What does NaNH3 do to an alkyne

A

turns it into a trans double bond

164
Q

what does H2/Lindar do to an alkyne

A

turns it into a cis double bond

165
Q

in diels alder reactions, what happens when the dienophile has cis groups

A

they will remain cis in the product

166
Q

What does mCBPA and H3O+ do to a double bond

A

creates a epoxide, then it turns into a trans diol

167
Q

what does Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4 do

A

oxidizes alcohols to ketones and aldehydes

168
Q

What does BH3, THF and H3O+ do to a double bond

A

a single anti-markovnikov alcohol

169
Q

What does OSO4, H2O2 do to a double bond

A

creates a cis diol

170
Q

what does ozone do to a double bond

A

creates two aldehydes

DAT (14 decks)

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