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Biology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is embriology

A

the study of the development of a unicellular zygote into a complete multicellular organism

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2
Q

What are the steps of early development of vertebrates

A

fertilization
cleavage
gastriculation

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3
Q

What is fertilization

A

when an egg is entered into by a sperm

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4
Q

What is the window for fertilization for the egg

A

it can be fertilized between 12 and 24 hours after ovulation

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5
Q

where does fertilization occur

A

in the lateral, widest part of the oviduct or fallopian tube

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6
Q

What happens if more than one egg is fertilized

A

fraternal twins may be conceived

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7
Q

What is cleavage

A

early rapid mitotic division

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8
Q

what does cleavage do

A

leads to an increase in cell number without a corresponding growth in cell protoplasm (volume is constant)

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9
Q

What are the benefits of more cells to less cytoplasm created by cleavage

A

in increases the gas and nutrient exchange

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10
Q

What is an indeterminate cleavage

A

a cleavage that results in cell that maintain the ability to develop into a complete organism

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11
Q

what is a result of indeterminate cleavage

A

identical twins

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12
Q

What is a determinate cleavage

A

a cleavage that results in cell who have different pathways that are determined at an early developmental stage

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13
Q

What is differentiation (embryology)

A

the specialization of cells that occurs during development

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14
Q

When does the first complete cleavage of the zygot occur

A

32 hours after fertilization

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15
Q

when does the 2nd and third cleavage of the zygote occue

A

60 and 72 hours after fertilization

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16
Q

how many cells does the embryo have after the first 3 cleavages

A

8

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17
Q

when does the zygote enter the uterus

A

after the third cleavage (72 hours)

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18
Q

What is the zygote called when it gets to the uterus

A

embryo

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19
Q

What is it called when the embryo continues to divide until a solid ball of cells forms

A

a Morula

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20
Q

What is blastulation

A

when the morula develops a fluid filled cavity called the blastocoel

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21
Q

What is it called when the morula becomes a hollow sphere of cells

A

a blastula

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22
Q

when does gastriculation occur

A

when the blastula has implanted in the uterine wall

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23
Q

What is gastriculation

A

when the blastula’s cells migrate to form a three layered structure called the gastrula.

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24
Q

What are the three layers of the gastrula called

A

Ectoderm
Endoderm
Mesoderm

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25
Q

What does the ectoderm turn into

A

The Integument,
the lens of the eye,
the retina, and
the nervous system

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26
Q

What is the integument

A

epidermis, hair, nails, epithelium of the nose, mouth and anal canal

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27
Q

What does the Endoderm turn into

A 
epithelial linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts, 
parts of the liver
pancreas
thyroid
bladder lininig
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28
Q

What does the mesoderm turn into

A 
musculoskeletal system
circulatory system
excretory system
goands
connective tissue
portions of the digestive and respiratory organs
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29
Q

What are the two types of early developent

A

external
internal placnetal
inter nonplacental

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30
Q

What are some examples of external development

A

fish eggs in water

reptile, bird eggs on land

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31
Q

What is different between the fertilization of fish eggs in water and reptile/bird eggs on land

A

fish eggs are fertilized externally

bird/reptile eggs are fertilized internally and then the egg is laid

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32
Q

How does a fish egg survive

A

the embryo develops within the egg feeding on the nutrients stored in the yolk

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the egg shell

A

to protect the developing embryo

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34
Q

What are the parts of an egg

A

Chorion
Allantois
Amnion
yolk Sac

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35
Q

What is the chorion of an egg, and what does it do

A

it is the lining on the inside of the shell, it permits gas exchange

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36
Q

What is the Allantois of an egg and what does it do

A

a saclike structure involved in respiration and excretion, it contains numerous blood vessels to transport O2, CO2, water, salt and nitrogenous waste

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37
Q

What is the amnion of an egg and what does it do

A

a membrane that encloses the amniotic fluid which provides an aquoeus environment that protects the develooping embryo from shock

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38
Q

What is the yolk sac of the egg and what does it do

A

it encloses the yolk, blood vessles in the yolk sac trasfer food to the developing embryo

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39
Q

What is a case of nonplacental internal development

A

marsupials and some tropical fish.

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40
Q

What happens wwith nonplacental internal development

A

the exchange of food and oxygen between the mother and young is limited so offspring may be born very young

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41
Q

What happens in placental internal development

A

the fetus receives oxygen and nutrients from it’s mother through a specialized circulatory system.

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42
Q

What does the placental circulatory system do besides deliver oxygen and nutrients to the fetus

A

it removes carbon dioxide and metabolic waste products

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43
Q

What are the two key components of the placental circulatory system

A

the placenta and the umbilical cord

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44
Q

When do the placenta and the umbilical cord develop

A

the first few weeks following fertilization

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45
Q

How does gas exchange to the fetus work

A

gas exchange happens across the placenta, the fetal lungs aren’t functional until birth

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46
Q

What four extraembryonic membranes turn into the placenta and the placenta

A

Amnion,
Chorion
Allantois
Yolk Sac

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47
Q

What is the amnion and what does it do

A

it is a thin tough membrane containing amnionic fluid.

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48
Q

What does amnionic fluid do

A

acts as a shock absorber of external pressure and localized pressure from contractions during labor

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49
Q

where does placental formation begin

A

with the chorion

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50
Q

What is the chorion

A

a membrane that surrounds the amnion

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51
Q

What is the allantois

A

a membrane that develops as an outpocket of the gut

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52
Q

What come of the allantois

A

the allantoic wall blood vessels develop and enlarge turning into the umbilical vessels.

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53
Q

What is the yolk sac

A

the site of early development of the blood vessels, is associated with the umbilical vessels

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54
Q

What is labor

A

a series of strong uterine contractions

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55
Q

What happens in the first stage of labor

A

Cervix thins and dialates
the amnionic sac ruptures releasing it’s fluids
relatively mild contractions

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56
Q

What happens in the second stage of labor

A

rapid contractions
birth of the baby
cutting of the umbilical cord

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57
Q

What happens in the third stage of labor

A

placenta and umbilical cord are expelled

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58
Q

What is the pupal stage of arthropods

A

when maturation is suspended in a temporary state. (like when a butterfly is in it’s cacoon)

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59
Q

When is differentiation of cells complete

A

when all organs of an organism reach adult form

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60
Q

What are the parts of a plant embryo

A 
epicotyl
cotyledons
hypocotyl
endosperm
seed coat
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61
Q

What is the epicotyl

A

the precursor of the upper stem and leaves

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62
Q

What is the cotyledons

A

the seed leaves

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63
Q

how many seeds leaves do dicots have, and monocots

A

two for dicots

one for monocots

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64
Q

what is the hypocotyl

A

this develops into the lower stem and root

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65
Q

What is the endosperm

A

the endosperm grows and feeds the embryo

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66
Q

what happens to the endosperm in dicots

A

in dicots the endosperm is absorbed by the cotyledon

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67
Q

What is the seed coat

A

develops to form the outer covering of the ovule.

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68
Q

what makes up the seed

A

the seed coat and the embryo inside

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69
Q

What combines to form the fruit of a plant

A

the ovary walls, the base of the flower, and other consolidated pistil components

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70
Q

What is the purpose of the fruit

A

the fruit serves as a method of seed dispersal (air, water, animals)

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71
Q

Where is the seed released from

A

the seed is released from the ovary, and it will germinate under the proper conditions

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72
Q

What is growth in higher plants restricted to

A

embryonic (undifferentiated) cells called meristem cells

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73
Q

What do meristems do in plant development

A

they eventually undergo reproduction and elongate and differentiate into different cell types

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74
Q

What are the two types of meristems

A

Apical Meristems

Lateral Meristems

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75
Q

What are apical meristems

A

apical meristems are found in the tips of roots and stems, growth only occurs at these points

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76
Q

What are Lateral meristems

A

tissue found between the xylem and phloem. they allow for growth in diameter and can differentiate into new xylem and phloem cells

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77
Q

What is another name for lateral meristems

A

lateral meristems are also called cambium

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78
Q

When are lateral meristems of cambium active and non active

A

non active in monocots (grasses) or herbacious dicots (alfalfa)
Active in woody dicots like oaks

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79
Q

What is circulation in plants called

A

translocation

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80
Q

what is the primary organ of transport in the plant

A

the stem

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81
Q

what run up and down the stem

A

vascular bundles

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82
Q

What is found at the center of the stem

A

the fibrovascular bundle

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83
Q

What is in the fibrovascular bundle at the center of the stem

A

Xylem, phloem and cambium cells

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84
Q

What is the Xylem

A

thick walled, often hollow cells inside the vascular bundle at the center of the stem

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85
Q

What does the Xylem do

A

carry water and minerals up the plant and their thick walls gives the plant rigid support

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86
Q

What is the outer layer of the xylem called

A

the sapwood, and it is alive

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87
Q

What are the two types of Xylem cells that have been differentiated

A

vessel cells and tracheids

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88
Q

how does the xylem make water rise up the stem (3 things)

A

transpiration pull
capillary action
root pressure

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89
Q

How does transpiration pull contribute to the vertical movement of water up the xylem

A

as water evaporates from the leaves of plants a vacuum is created that pulls water up the stem

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90
Q

how does capillary action contribute to the vertical movement of water up the xylem

A

any liquid in a thin tube will rise due to the surface tension of the liquid and interactions between the liquid and the tube

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91
Q

how does root pressure contribute to the vertical movement of water up the xylem

A

water that enters the root exerts pressure that pushes water up the stem

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92
Q

What is the Phloem

A

thin-walled cells on the outside of the vascular bundle

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93
Q

What do the cells of the Phloem do

A

they transport nutrients (carbs) down the stem.

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94
Q

What are the two types of phloem cells

A

sieve tube cells

companion cells

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95
Q

Are phloem cells living

A

yep

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96
Q

What is the cambium

A

undifferentiated cells that are actively dividing that are found between the phloem and the xylem. they are responsible for the lateral growth of plants

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97
Q

What can the cambium cells becoe

A

either phloem cells or xylem cells

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98
Q

What are the layers of the stem from outside to inside

A 
epidermis (outer bark)
cortex
phloem
cambium
xylem, 
pith
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99
Q

What is the pith

A

tissue involved in storage of nutrients and plant support

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100
Q

What are the functions of the roots of plants

A

absorb materials through root hairs
anchor the plant
(some provide energy storage reserves)

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101
Q

What plants roots’ provide a storage for energy reserves

A

carrots and turnips

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102
Q

What are root hairs

A

specialized cells of the root epidermis that increase surface area for absorption of water and minerals from the soil

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103
Q

What are the layers of the root

A 
epidermis
cortex
phloem
cambium
xylem
pith
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104
Q

What is circulation like in protozoans

A

movement of gas and nutrients in protozoans is accomplished by simple diffusion within the cell

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105
Q

What is circulation like in Cnidarians

A

have body walls that are two cells thick, all cell are in direct contact with either the internal or external environment so there is not need for a circulatory system

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106
Q

What are Cnidarians

A

hydra

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107
Q

What is circulation like in Arthropods

A

they have open circulatory systems in which blood is in direct contact with body tissues.
The circulation is caused by body movements
Blood flows through a dorsal vessel and into the sinuses where exchange occurs

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108
Q

What is a open circulatory system

A

blood is in direct contact with the body tissues

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109
Q

what is a closed circulatory system

A

blood is confined to vessels to deliver materials to cells that aren’t in direct contact with the external environment

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110
Q

What is circulation like in Annelids

A
  1. a closed circulatory system
  2. blood moves toward the head in the dorsal vessel by the main hearts coordinated contractions
  3. there are 5 pairs of vessels called aortic loops that connect the dorsal to the ventral vessel and function as additional pumps
  4. blood travels away from the head through the ventral vessel.
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111
Q

What are annelids

A

Earthworms

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112
Q

Do annelids (earthworms) have HGB

A

nope, they have HGB like pigment dissolved in aqueous solution.

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113
Q

What does the bicarbonate buffering system do

A

it can accommodate many pH imbalances that may occur in the body

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114
Q

What role does blood play in the buffering system

A

it acts as a carrier for the crucial gasses and ions used in the system

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115
Q

What is the function of the Cardiovascular system

A

transport of gasses
transport of nutrients
transport of waste

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116
Q

Where are Amino acids and simple sugars absorbed into the bloodstream

A

intestinal capillaries

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117
Q

What are the metabolic waste products that are brought into the blood then excreted

A

urea
water
Co2

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118
Q

What are veins

A

vessels that travel back to the heart

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119
Q

What causes the differences in the fetal cardiovascular system as opposed to the adult

A

the fetal system must bypass the lungs

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120
Q

What are the differences between the fetal and adult CDV system

A

foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus
ductus venosus

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121
Q

What is the foramen ovale in the fetual CDV system

A

a hole between the right and left atrium of the heart that forces blood to bypass the right ventricle

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122
Q

What is the ductus arteriosus

A

a connection between the aorta and the pulmonary artery that prevents any blood in the right ventricle from entering the lungs

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123
Q

What is the ductus venosus

A

moves blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava of the fetus, it bypasses the liver and takes the blood straight to the developing brain

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124
Q

What does the lymphatic system consist of

A

lymphatic vessels
lymph
lymph nodes

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125
Q

What does the lymphatic system do

A
  1. transports excess lymph to the CDV system to keep body fluid levels constant
  2. lymph nodes filter the lymph removing and destroying foreign particles and pathogens
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126
Q

What is lymph

A

interstitial fluid

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127
Q

what is in the lymph nodes

A

leukocytes

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128
Q

how much blood is in the average human body

A

4-6 liters

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129
Q

what percent of blood is liquid, what percent is cellular

A

55 percent liquid

45 percent cells

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130
Q

What is in the blood plasma

A

nutrients, salts, gases, wastes, hormones, and blood proteins

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131
Q

What are some blood proteins

A

albumin
fibrinogen
immunoglobins

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132
Q

What are the cellular components of blood

A

erthythrocytes
leukocytes
platelets

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133
Q

how many HGB molecules can one RBC hold

A

250 million

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134
Q

What is HGB called when it has O bound

A

oxyhemoglobin

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135
Q

What are the advantages of the biconcave disk shape of RBC

A

increased surface area for gas exchange

flexibility to fit through small capillaires

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136
Q

Where are RBC formed

A

from stem cells in bone marrow (there they lose their nuclei, mitochondria, and other organelles)

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137
Q

why do RBC’s lose all of their organelles in the bone marrow where they are formed

A

to make more room for HGB

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138
Q

how long do RBC’s last

A

120 days

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139
Q

Where are RBC’s phagocytized

A

in the liver and spleen

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140
Q

what is larger leukocytes of RBC’s

A

WBC’s

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141
Q

what is the function of WBC’s

A
  1. phagocytize foreign matter and organisms like bacteria
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142
Q

What are some different kinds of WBC’s

A

macrophages
lymphocytes
(T and B cells)

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143
Q

What are macrophages

A

WBC’s that have moved from the blood into the tissues where they can phagocytize pathogens or innitiate an immune response

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144
Q

what do lymphocytes do

A

they are involved in the immune response
production of antibodies (B cells)
cytolysis or death of infected cells (T cells)

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145
Q

What do B cells do

A

produce antibodies

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146
Q

What do T cells do

A

kill infected cells

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147
Q

What are platelets

A

cell fragments that lack nuclei and are involved in clot formation as a response to tissue injury

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148
Q

How does plateleg plug formation happen

A
  1. platelets upon contact with exposed collagen damaged vessel
  2. they secrete a chemical
  3. chemical causes them to adhere to one another
  4. this forms a platelet plug
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149
Q

What do both platelets and damaged tissue release

A

thromboplastin

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150
Q

What does thromboplastin do (with the aid of its cofactors Ca and Vit. K)

A

convert inactive plasma protein prothrombin to its active form Thrombin

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151
Q

What does Thrombin do

A

converts fibrinogen into fibrin

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152
Q

What does fibrin do

A

threads of fibrin coat the damaged area and trap blood cells to form a clot.

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153
Q

What is the purpose of a clot

A

prevention of excessive blood loss while the damaged tissue heals itself

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154
Q

What is the fluid left after blood clotting called

A

serum

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155
Q

Where does prothrombin come from

A

the liver

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156
Q

What are antigens

A

things that are foreign to the body

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157
Q

What are the two abilities of the immune system

A
  1. distinguish between self and nonself

2. remember nonself entities that it has encountered

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158
Q

What are the two specific defense mechanisms of the immune system

A
  1. Humoral immunity

2. Cell mediated immunity

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159
Q

What is humoral immunity

A

the production of antibodies in response to exposure to antigens

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160
Q

What is cell mediated immunity

A

cells that combat fungal and viral infection

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161
Q

What are responsible for both humoral and cell mediated immunity

A

lymphocytes

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162
Q

What is another name for antibodies

A

immunoglobins (Igs)

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163
Q

Where do antibodies come from

A

B cells

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164
Q

What do antibodies do

A

they recognize and bind to specific antigens and trigger the immune system to remove them

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165
Q

What are the two ways that antibodies get rid of antigens

A
  1. attract other cells (leukocytes) to phagocytize them
  2. cause the antigens to agglutinate (clump up) to form large, insoluble complexes that can be easily removed by phagocytic cells
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166
Q

What is active immunity

A

the production of antibodies during an immune response to antigens

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167
Q

how can active immunity be conferred

A

by vaccination

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168
Q

what is vaccination

A

injection of a weakened or inactive form of a particular antigen which stimulates creation of antibodies against that antigen

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169
Q

how long does active immunity take to build up

A

weeks

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170
Q

What is passive immunity

A

the transfer of antibodies produced by another individual or organism

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171
Q

How is passive immunity acquired

A

passively

injection

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172
Q

what is an example of passive passive immunity

A

when a mother passes antibodies onto the fetus

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173
Q

what is an advantage/disadvantage of passive immunity

A

it is acquired immediately, but it only lasts as long as the antibodies circulate in the blood
Passive immunity is not very specific either

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174
Q

What is gamma globulin

A

the fraction of blood containing a wide variety of antibodies

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175
Q

what can gamma globulin be used for

A

gamma globulin can be used to confer temporary protection against hepatitis and other diseases by passive immunity

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176
Q

how are gamma globulins often applied

A

by injection

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177
Q

What does cell mediated immunity do differently from humoral immunity

A

instead of antibodies it uses antigen-specific T-lymphocytes to mediate attacks against foreign material

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178
Q

What do antigen-specific T-lymphocytes use to attack foreign material

A

Macrophages
Natural Killer Cells
Cytokines

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179
Q

What does Cell-mediated immunity primarily attack

A

microbes like
viruses
fungi
pathogens

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180
Q

What is transplant rejection

A

the bodies rejection of a donor’s organ

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181
Q

What causes transplant rejection

A

Cell-meditaed immunity

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182
Q

What can be done to prevent cell-mediated immunity from causing transplant rejection

A

immunosuppresing drugs can be used to lower the immune system

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183
Q

What are some nonspecific defense mechanisms of the body

A 
Skin
passages with mucous coated epithelia
macrophages
inflammatory response
interferons
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184
Q

How does skin protect the body

A

it is a physical barrier against bacterial invasion. And pores on the skin secrete sweat which has enzymes that break down bacterial cell walls

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185
Q

how does mucous coated epithelia protect the body

A

it traps and filters foreign particles

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186
Q

how do macrophages protect the body

A

Macrophages engulf and destroy foreign particles

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187
Q

How does the inflammartory response protect the body

A
  1. activated in response to physical injury
  2. Injured cells release histamine, increasing blood flow
  3. Granulocytes attracted to the site phagocytize antigenic material
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188
Q

What does histamine do locally

A

causes blood vessels to dialate, and increase blood flow to said region

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189
Q

What often accompanies the inflammatory response

A

a fever often accompanies the inflammatory response

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190
Q

How do interferons protect the body

A

Interferons are produced by cells under viral attack, they diffuse to other cells to prevent further spread of the virus

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191
Q

What are allergies

A

allergies are inappopriate immune responses to certain food and pollen. They cause the body to form antibodies and release histamine

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192
Q

What determines the type of blood you have

A

The antigen/s or lack of anitgens on your RBC

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193
Q

so if you have A blood type you…

A

have A antigens and Anti-B antibodies

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194
Q

If you have B blood type you have

A

B antigens and Anti-A antibodies

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195
Q

if you have AB blood type you have

A

both A and B antigens and neither antibody

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196
Q

if you have 0 blood you have

A

neither A or B antigens and both A and B antibodies

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197
Q

What happens if you don’t have compatible blood with a transfusion

A

the antibodies will cause the RBC’s with the wrong antigen to clump up.

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198
Q

what type of blood is the universal acceptor

A

type AB

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199
Q

What type of blood is the universal donor

A

type O

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200
Q

What is the Rh factor

A

the Rh antigen is another RBC antigen that some people have and some don’t

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201
Q

So if you have A+, B+ etc..

A

you have the Rh antigen

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202
Q

What is a problem with the Rh factor

A

an Rh- mother may have an Rh+ child
if the Rh+ factor moves across into the mothers circulation she will build up antibodies against it.
if the mother then has an Rh+ child, the antibodies she has produced will cross the placenta and destroy the fetus’ RBC’s

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203
Q

What is the disorder caused by a mismatch of Rh factor between a mother and child

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

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204
Q

Can Erythroblastosis fetalis be caused by ABO blood type

A

nope, because ABO antigens can’t cross the placenta.

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205
Q

What does the endocrine system do

A

it functions as a means of internal communication, coordinating the activities of the organ systems

206
Q

What glands secrete hormones directly into the blood stream

A

endocrine glands

207
Q

How are exocrine gland secretions transported

A

they are transported by ducts

208
Q

What are the two main types of hormones

A

Steroid

Peptide

209
Q

What are peptide hormones like structurally

A

they can be simple short peptides (ADH)

or they can be complex polypeptides (insulin)

210
Q

how do peptide hormones cause changes in the cell

A

they bind to specific extracellular receptors on the surface of their target cells and trigger a series of enzymatic reactions in the cell

211
Q

What is the typical first reaction caused in the cell by a peptide hormone binding to the outside of the cell

A

ATP to cAMP by the enzyme adenylate cyclase

212
Q

If peptide hormones are the first messengers, then what is the second messenger

A

cyclic AMP

213
Q

What is the cascade effect of hormones

A

with each step of the process (pep hormone –>cAMP—> other reactions) the hormones effects are amplified

214
Q

What inactivates cAMP

A

phosphodiesterase

215
Q

how long and fast are the effects of peptide hormones

A

the effects of peptide hormones are fast acting and short lived

216
Q

What are steroid hormones derived from

A

cholesterol

217
Q

How do steroid hormones affect their target cells

A

because they are lipid soluble they can enter the cell and bind directly to specific intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm

218
Q

What happens once steroid hormones have bound to their receptor in the cell

A

the receptor-hormone complex enters the nucleus and directly activates the expression of specific genes by binding to receptors on the chromatin

219
Q

By what do steroids actually bring about a change

A

they change mRNA transcription and thus protein synthesis

220
Q

What determines the specificity of hormonal action

A

the presence of specific receptors in or on the target cells

221
Q

What are the adrenal gland

A

the adrenal medulla

the adrenal cortex

222
Q

What causes the Adrenal cortex to secrete it’s hormones

A

ACTH adrenocorticotropic hormone (from ANT. Pit)

223
Q

What kind of hormones does the Adrenal cortex secrete

A

steroid hormones called corticosteroids

224
Q

What are the corticosteroids

A

glucocorticoids
mineralocorticoids
cortical sex hormones

225
Q

What are the glucocorticoids

A

Cortisol and Cortisone

226
Q

What do glucocorticoids do

A
  1. they raise blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of proteins and using the products in gluconeogenesis
  2. they decrease protein synthesis
227
Q

What is antagonistic to the effects of glucocorticoids

A

insulin

228
Q

What is a mineralocorticoid

A

aldosterone

229
Q

what does aldosterone do

A
  1. aldosterone causes active resorption of sodium and passive absorption of water in the nephron
230
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidey

A

the nephron

231
Q

What does the resorption of sodium and water by aldosterone cause in the body

A

rise in blood pressure and volume

232
Q

What does excess production of aldosterone cause

A

hypertensions due to the excessive water retention

233
Q

What are the cortical sex hormones

A

Androgens

234
Q

What are androgens

A

male sex hormones

235
Q

Where are the majority of androgens from

A

testes in the male, some from the adrenal cortes in females

236
Q

what can the overproduction of androgens from the adrenal cortex cause in females

A

women can have masculinizing effects such as facial hair

237
Q

what kinds of hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete

A

catecholamines

238
Q

are catecholamines peptide or steroid formones

A

peptide

239
Q

What are the two catecholamines

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

240
Q

What is another name for epinephrine

A

adrenaline

241
Q

What does epinephrine do

A
  1. increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver and muscle causing a rise in blood glucose levels and an increased basal metabolic rate
  2. increases heart rate and contractility of the heart
  3. cause increased blood supply to the muscles, heart, and brain and decreased blood flow to the kidneys skin and digestive system
  4. inhibit vegetative functions like digestion
242
Q

What does norepinephrine do

A
  1. increases heart rate and contractility of the heart
  2. cause increased blood supply to the muscles, heart, and brain and decreased blood flow to the kidneys skin and digestive system
243
Q

Are epinephrine and norepinephrine also neurotransmitters

A

yes

244
Q

How are adrenal hormones controlled

A

by ACTH from the ant. pit

245
Q

What controls secretion of glucocorticoids and sex steroids

A

ACTH

246
Q

what controls secretion of aldosterone

A

the renin-angiotensin mechanism

247
Q

What is another name for the pituitary

A

hypophysis

248
Q

what are the lobes of the pituitary

A

anterior
posterior
intermediate (rudimentary in humans)

249
Q

What are the two types of hormones secreted by the Ant. Pit

A

direct and indirect hormones

250
Q

What are the direct hormones of the Anterior pituitary

A 
Growth hormone (GH)
Prolactin
Endorphins
251
Q

What are the indirect (Tropic) hormones of the Anterior pituitary

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Tyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
lutenizing hormone (LH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

252
Q

What is another name for GH

A

somatotropin

253
Q

What does GH do

A

promotes bone and muscle growth

254
Q

what does a deficiency of GH in children cause

A

stunted growth (dwarfism)

255
Q

What does overproduction of GH in children cause

A

gigantism

256
Q

What does overproduction of GH in adults cause

A

acromegaly

257
Q

What is acromegaly

A

acromegaly is a disorder characterized by overgrowth of bone, usually in the skull, jaw, feet, and hands

258
Q

What does prolactin do

A

prolactin stimulates milk production and secretion in female mammary glands

259
Q

what do endorphins do

A

endorphins are neurotransmitters the behave like opioids relieving pain and producing pleasurable sensations

260
Q

What does ACTH do

A

stimulates the adrenal cortex to synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids and sex steroids

261
Q

What regulates ACTH release

A

corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF)

262
Q

What does TSH do

A

TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to synthesize and release thyroid hormones

263
Q

What does LH do in females

A

in females it stimulates ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum
in males in stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to synthesize testosterone.

264
Q

What does the corpus luteum do

A

secretes progesterone and estrogen

265
Q

what does LH do in males

A

in males in stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to synthesize testosterone.

266
Q

What does FSH do in females

A

causes maturation of the ovarian follicles

267
Q

What do the ovarian follicles do

A

secrete estrogen

268
Q

what does FSH do in males

A

stimulates maturation of the seminiferous tubules and sperm production

269
Q

What is another name for the posterior pituitary

A

the neurohypophysis

270
Q

What does the posterior pituitary do

A

it stores, does not synthesize the peptide hormones Oxytocin and ADH

271
Q

what kind of hormones are ADH and Oxytocin

A

peptide hormones

272
Q

Where are oxytocin and ADH produced

A

the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus

273
Q

When is oxytocin released

A

during childbirth

274
Q

what does Oxytocin do

A

increases the strength and frequency of uterine muscle contractions

275
Q

Is oxytocin ran by a positive or a negative feedback system

A

positive
oxytocin stimulates contraction
contaction stiumlates oxytocin release

276
Q

What besides contractions causes oxytocin release

A

sucking by a baby

277
Q

What does ADH do

A

it increases the permeability of the collecting duct in the nephron to water.
this promotes water reabsorption
decreasing blood osmolarity by increasing blood volume

278
Q

When is ADH secreted

A
  1. when plasma osmolarity increases and is sensed by the hypothalamus osmoreceptors.
  2. when blood volume decreases and is sensed by the baroreceptors in the circulatory system
279
Q

What does the hypothalamus do

A

it receives neural transmissions from other parts of the brain and peripheral nerves, which trigger specific responses from the neurosecretory cells

280
Q

what do the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus do , and how

A
  1. regulate pituitary gland secretions
  2. negative feedback systems
  3. through the actions of inhibiting and releasing hormones
281
Q

how does the hypothalamus influence the anterior pituaitary

A

it’s hormones stimulate or inhibit the release of the anterior pituitary hormones

282
Q

What does GnRH

A

stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete LH and FSH

283
Q

how do hypothalamal hormones get to the ant pit

A

through the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system (capillaries that run straight from one to the other)

284
Q

What does ACTH-RF do

A

causes the anterior pituitary to release ACTH

285
Q

How does the hypothalamus interact with the posterior pituitary

A

the neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus synthesize and transport oxytocin and ADH to the posterior pit for storage

286
Q

What is the thyroid like

A

it’s a bi lobed structure located on the ventral side of the trachea.

287
Q

what does the thyroid secrete

A

thyroxine (T4)
triiodothyronine (T3)
calcitonin

288
Q

What are the thyroid hormones

A

thyroxine and triiodothyronine

289
Q

From where do the tyroid hormones come

A

iodination of the AA tyrosine

290
Q

What do the thyroid hormones do

A

aid in growth and neurological development in children

increase the rate of metabolism

291
Q

What is hypothyroidism

A

when the thyroid isn’t secreting enough thyroxine and triiodothyronine

292
Q

What does hypothyroidism lead to

A

slowed heart and respiratory rate
fatigue
cold intolerance
weight gain

293
Q

What is cretinism

A

hypothyroidism in newborn infants

294
Q

What are the symptoms of cretinism

A

mental retardation and short stature

295
Q

What is hyperthyroidism

A

oversecretion of the thyroid hormones

296
Q

What does hyperthyroidism lead to

A 
increased metabolic rate
feelings of excessive warmth
profuse sweating
palpitations 
weight loss
protruding eyes
297
Q

What can happen in both hyper and hypothyroidism

A

the thyroid may often enlarge, forming a goiter

298
Q

What does calcitonin do

A

decreases plasma CA2+ levels by inhibiting its release from the bone.

299
Q

What regulates calcitonin secretion

A

plasma calcium levels

300
Q

What has antagonistic actions to calcitonin

A

the parathyroid hormone

301
Q

What kind of gland is the pancreas

A

it’s both an exocrine and endocrine organ

302
Q

what does the pancreas secrete exocrinically

A

the cells that secrete digestive enzymes into the small intestine via a series of ducts

303
Q

how does the pancreas act endocrinically

A

the islets of langerhans, which are composed of alpha and beta cells.

304
Q

What do the beta cells of the pancreas produce and secrete

A

insulin

305
Q

what do the alpha cells of the pancreas produce and secrete

A

glucagon

306
Q

what does glucagon do

A

stimulates protein and fat degradation
conversion of glycogen to glucose
stimulate gluconeogenesis

307
Q

What is the result of the actions of glucagon

A

increase in blood sugar

308
Q

What causes glucagon to be released

A

low blood sugar levels

309
Q

What does insulin do

A

stimulates the uptake of glucose into the muscle and adipose cells
stimulates the storage of glucose as glycogen in the muscle and liver
stimulates the synthesis of fats from glucose
stimulate the uptake of amino acids

310
Q

What is the result of the actions of insulin

A

decrease blood sugar levels

311
Q

What hormones cause the increase of blood sugar

A

glucagon
glucocorticoids (cortisol and cortisone)
GH
epinephrine

312
Q

What is the underproduction or insensitivity of insulin lead to

A

diabetes mellitus (characterized by high blood glucose)

313
Q

What are the parathyroid glands like

A

they are four small, pea shaped structures on the back of the thyroid gland

314
Q

What do parathyroid glands do

A

the synthesize and secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH)

315
Q

what does parathyroid hormone do

A

increases plasma Calcium concentration by increasing bone resorption and decreasing calcium excretion in the kidneys

316
Q

What is a side effect of parathyroid hormone action

A

phosphate is bound to calcium in the bone so phosphate is also increased with calcium levels.

317
Q

how does the parathyroid compensate for the increase in phosphate it causes

A

it causes the kidneys to increase phosphate excretion

318
Q

How do the kidneys act hormonally

A

they produce renin

319
Q

What causes the kidneys to produce renin

A

when blood volume falls

320
Q

what does renin do

A

in converts plasma protein angtiontensinogen to angiotensin 1

321
Q

What happens to angiotensin 1

A

it is converted into angiotensin 2

322
Q

what does angiotensin 2 do

A

stimulates the release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex

323
Q

what does aldosterone do

A

aldosterone causes active resorption of sodium and passive absorption of water in the nephron.

324
Q

what removes the stimulus for renin

A

increase in blood volume

325
Q

What are some gastrointestinal hormones

A

gastrin
secretin
cholecystokinin (CCK)
Bile

326
Q

What does gastrin do

A

stimulates the secretion of HCL

327
Q

What causes gastrin release

A

ingested food in the stomach

328
Q

What does secretin do

A

it simulates the secretion of alkaline bicarbonate from the pancreas to neutralize the acidity of the chyme

329
Q

where is secretin secreted from

A

the small intestine

330
Q

what is chyme

A

partially digested food from the stomach

331
Q

What does cholecystokinin (CCK) do

A

CCK causes the contraction of the gall bladder and release of bile into the small intestine
it also travels to the brain causing the “full” sensation

332
Q

Where is cholecystokinin released from

A

the small intestine

333
Q

what causes CCK to be released

A

the presence of fats

334
Q

What does Bile do

A

it helps in the digestion of fats

335
Q

What is the pineal gland, and what does it secrete

A

a tiny structure at the base of the brain that secretes melatonin

336
Q

What does melatonin do

A

plays a role in circadian rhythms (physiological cycles lasting 24 hours)

337
Q

What regulates melatonin secreteion

A

light and dark cycles in the environment

338
Q

what did melatonin do in primitive vertabrates

A

lightens the skin by concentrating pigment granules in melanophores

339
Q

Where are plant hormones produced

A

actively growing parts of the plants like meristematic tissues (apical of shoots and roots)

340
Q

What are the kinds of plant hormones

A 
Auxins
Gibberelins
Kinins
Ethylene
Inhibitors
Anti-Auxins
341
Q

What are the three things auxins do

A

phototropism
geotropism
inhibition of lateral buds

342
Q

What is phototropism

A

The tendancy of the shoots of plants to bend towards the light source

343
Q

How does phototropism occur

A

the auxins on the sunny side of the plant are reduced by the sunlight, this causes it to grow more slowely than the unshaded side

344
Q

What is indoleacetic acid

A

one of the auxins associated with phototropism

345
Q

What is geotropism

A

the tendency of portions of plants to grow towards or away from gravity

346
Q

What is negative geotropism

A

causes shoots of plants grow upwards away from gravity

347
Q

what is positive geotropism

A

causes roots of plants grow towards the pull of gravity

348
Q

How does negative geotropism work

A

in a horizontal shoot the auxins will be more concentrated on the lower side of the shoot and will cause it to grow more quickly, turning the plant up

349
Q

How does positive geotropism work

A

in horizontal roots the auxins will be more concentrated on the lower side of the root, which will cause it to grow more slowely, causing the root to grow down ward

350
Q

What do auxins produced in the terminal bud of a plants growing tip do

A

they inhibit the development of lateral buds

351
Q

what do auxins do in the roots

A

initiate the formation of lateral roots, while inhibiting root elongation

352
Q

What do auxins do for the production of xylem

A

they stimulate it growing from the cambium

353
Q

What do gibberelins do for the production of phloem

A

they stimulate it growing from the cambium

354
Q

What do gibberelins do

A

they stimulate rapid stem elongation (in normally short plants)
terminate the dormancy of seeds and buds

355
Q

What do kinins do (plants)

A

they promote cell division

356
Q

What does auxin levels do to the function of kinins

A

the higher the auxins the higher the level of function in the kinins

357
Q

What does Ethylene do (plants)

A

simulates fruit ripening and aging

358
Q

what is the fancy word for plant again

A

senescence

359
Q

What do inhibitors do (plants)

A

they block cell division

maintain dormancy in lateral buds and seeds of plants

360
Q

what happens to inhibitors during the cold season

A

they break down with time and the cold, causing seeds to be active during the next season

361
Q

What is Abscisic acid

A

one of the most important plant inhibitors

362
Q

What are Anit-auxins

A

hormones that regulate the activities of auxins

363
Q

What is indoleacetic osidase

A

an anti auxin that regulates the concentration of indoleacetic acid

364
Q

What is the functional unit of the nervous system

A

the neuron

365
Q

What is the nervous system like for unicellar organisms

A

they don’t have an organized one,

they respond to touch, heat, light, and chemicals

366
Q

What is the nervous system like in Cnidaria

A

they have a simple nervous system called a nerve net with limited centralization

367
Q

What is the nervous system of the annelida like

A

they have a primitive CNS, with a defined dorsal nerve and an anterior “Brain”

368
Q

what makes up the brain of the annelida

A

fused ganglia (clusters of nerve cell bodies)

369
Q

What is the nervous system like for arthropoda

A

brains similar to annelids, but they have more specialized sense organs (compound or simple eyes and tympanum)

370
Q

What produces myelin in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

371
Q

What produces myelin in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

372
Q

What is the resting potential

A

the potential difference between the extracellular space and the intracellular space

373
Q

What is a typical resting membrane potential

A

-70 mV (the inside is more negative than the outside)

374
Q

What maintains the negative resting potential

A

the sodium potassium pump pumping 3Na out while pumping 2 K in

375
Q

What is the threshold potential

A

-50 mV, when the voltage gated Na open causing an action potential

376
Q

What happens when the membrane has been depolarized by voltage gated Na channels

A

the voltage gated K channels open to repolarize the membrane

377
Q

What determines the speed of propogation of an action potentila

A

the diameter of the axon and the myelination

378
Q

What are effector cells

A

cells that are post-synaptic

379
Q

What are the three ways that neurotransmitters can leave the synapse

A
  1. degraded by enzymes
  2. diffusion
  3. taken back up by uptake carriers
380
Q

What does curare do to the synapse

A

curare blocks the postsynaptic ACH receptors so that ACH can’t interact with receptors

381
Q

What does botulism toxin do to the synapse

A

botulism toxin prevents the release of ACH from the presynaptic membrane, resulting in paralysis

382
Q

What does Anticholinesterases do to synapses

A

They block ACHesterases from degrading AC so that it constantly binds to the post-synaptic receptors.

383
Q

Where are anticholinesterases used

A

nerve gases and in the insecticide parathion

384
Q

What do Anticholinesterases cause

A

no coordination muscular contractions

385
Q

What makes up nerves

A

bundles of axons

386
Q

What kinds of neurons are sensory neurons

A

afferent

387
Q

what kinds of neurons are motor neurons

A

efferent

388
Q

What are neuron cell body clustes called PNS and CNS

A 
PNS = ganglia
CNS = nuclei
389
Q

What makes up the outer portion of the brain

A

gray matter (cell bodies)

390
Q

What makes up the inner portion of the brain

A

white matter (axons)

391
Q

What are the three parts of the brain

A

forebrain midbrain hindbrain

392
Q

What are the parts of the forebrain

A

telencephalon

diencephalon

393
Q

What are the parts of the telencephalon outside and inside

A

outside is the cerebral cortex

inside is the olfactory bulb

394
Q

What are the parts of the diencephalon

A

The thalamus and the hypothalamus

395
Q

What is the thalamus

A

the relay and integration center for the spinal cord and cerebral cortex

396
Q

What does the hypothalamus do

A

controls visceral functions(hunger, thirst, sex drive, water balance, blood pressure, temperature regulation

397
Q

What is another name for the midbrain

A

the mesencephalon

398
Q

What does the midbrain do

A

it is a relay center for visual and auditory impulses

399
Q

What are the parts of the hindbrain

A

cerebellum, pons, and medulla

400
Q

What does the cerebellum do

A

helps with balance, hand-eye coordination, rapid movement timing

401
Q

What does the pons do

A

acts as a relay center between the cortex and the cerebellum

402
Q

What does the medulla do

A

controls vital functions

heart rate, breathing, GI activity

403
Q

what do the midbrain, medulla, and pons make up

A

the brainstem

404
Q

What are the layers of the spinal cord

A 
White outer (axons)
gray inner (cell bodies)
405
Q

What is the path of sensory information flow in the spinal cord

A
  1. flows in through the dorsal horn

2. exits through the ventral horn

406
Q

Where are the cell bodies for the sensory neurons located

A

dorsal root ganglion

407
Q

What are the two parts of the PNS

A

somatic and autonomic nervous system

408
Q

What is the primary sympathetic nervous system neurotransmitter

A

norepinephrine

409
Q

what is the primary parasympathetic nervous system neurotransmitter

A

ACH

410
Q

What is the thick opaque (white)layer of the eye

A

sclera

411
Q

What is the choroid of the eye

A

Lies beneath the sclera
supplies blood to the retina
dark and pigmented to reduce reflection in the eye

412
Q

What is the innermost layer of the eye

A

the retina

413
Q

what does the retina have

A

photoreceptors

414
Q

What is the transparent front of the eye called

A

cornea

415
Q

What does the cornea do

A

it bends and focuses light through the pupil

416
Q

what causes the Iris to constrict

A

light

417
Q

Where is the lens of the eye located

A

behind the pupil

418
Q

what controls the focal length of the lens of the eye

A

the ciliary muscles

419
Q

What are cones of the eye

A

photoreceptors that respond to high-intensity illumination and are sensitive to color

420
Q

what are the rods of the eye

A

photoreceptors that respond to low-intensity illumination and are important for night vision

421
Q

How many pigments do the cones have and what do they do

A

3

they absorb blue, green, and red wavelengths

422
Q

How many pigments do the rods have and what do they do

A

1

absorbs a single wavelength

423
Q

What is the rod pigment called

A

rhodopsin

424
Q

If the photoreceptors in the eye are the presynaptic neurons, what are the post-synaptic neurons

A

Bipolar cells

425
Q

What is the order of propogation of energy harvested by the photoreceptors in the eye

A

photoreceptors are depolarized
they pass the action potential to the bipolar cells
they pass the action potential to the ganglion cells
The axons of the ganglion cells form the optic nerves

426
Q

What is the point in the retina where the optic nerves leaves

A

the blind spot

427
Q

What is the area of the retina where there is a high density of cones

A

the fovea

428
Q

What is the vitreous humor

A

a jellylike material that fills the eye and helps it maintain its shape and optical properties
fills the posterior chamber of the eye

429
Q

What is aqueous humor

A

fills the anterior chamber of the eye

made by the eye and exits through ducts to join venous blood

430
Q

What is myopia

A

nearsightedness, when the image is focused in front of the retina

431
Q

what is hyperopia

A

farsightedness, when the image is focusd behind the retina

432
Q

What is astigmatism

A

when the cornea is irregularly shaped

433
Q

what are cataracts

A

when the lens becomes opaque and light can’t enter the eye = blindness

434
Q

What is glaucoma

A

when the outflow of aqueous humor is blocked the pressure in the eye increases which can damage the optic nerve

435
Q

What are the parts of the outer ear

A

the auricle

and the auditory canal

436
Q

What are the parts of the middle ear

A

the tympanic membrane

the mallus, incus, and stapes

437
Q

what are the parts of the inner ear

A

the cochlea

vestibular aparatus

438
Q

What does the tympanic membrane do

A

vibrates at the same frequency as the incoming sound

439
Q

What do the mallus, incus and stapes do

A

amplify the stimulus and transmit it through the oval window of the cochlea

440
Q

what does the vestibular apparatus do

A

helps maintain equilibrium and balance

441
Q

What happens once the vibration of the ossicles enters the oval window

A

the fluid of the cochlea moves, this stimulates the hair cells that transduce the pressure into action potentials

442
Q

where are the hair cells of the inner ear found

A

in the cochlea on the basilar membrane

443
Q

What is external respiration

A

entrance of air into the lungs and the exchange of gasses between the alveoli and the blood

444
Q

What is internal respiration

A

the exchange of gas between the blood and the cells and the intracellular processes of respiration

445
Q

What X-X bond is capable of releasing the most energy per mole when it is broken

A

C-H

446
Q

What is the reaction type and name when an H is removed from organic molecules

A

dehydrogenaion and it is an oxidation reaction

447
Q

at what step of glycolysis in the former glucose split in two

A

step 4 (fructose 1,6-diphosphate)

448
Q

What are the products/substrates in order of glycolysis

A 
Glucose
glucose-6-phosphate
fructose-6-phosphate
fructose-1,6-diphosphate
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (Dihydroxyacetone phosphate)
1,3-diphosphoglycerate
3 phosphoglycerate
2 phosphoglycerate
phosphoenolpyruvate
pyruvate
449
Q

What are the substrates and products of glycolysis

A

glucose, 2 ATP

2 Pyruvate, 4ATP, 2 NADH

450
Q

What is substrate level phosphorylation

A

when in the synthesis of ATP there is no NADH/FADH2 used, it skips that step

451
Q

what happens to pyruvate in aerobic situations

A

it goes onto the CAC

452
Q

what happens to pyruvate in anaerobic situations

A

it is reduced to ethanol or lactic acid by fermentation

453
Q

What is fermentaion

A

the anaerobic process of glycolysis and the steps to creating ethanol or lactic acid to regenerate NAD+

454
Q

how many ATP does fermentation produce

A

2 ATP per molecule

455
Q

When is ethanol produced in fermentaion

A

in yeast and some bacteria

456
Q

When is lactic acid produced in fermentations

A

in certain fungi, bacteria, and human muscle during strenuous exercise

457
Q

What are the three stages of cellular respiration

A
  1. pyruvate decarboxylation
  2. Citric acid cycle
  3. ETC
458
Q

what happens at pyruvate decarboxylation

A

pyruvate is converted to Acetyl-CoA

NADH is made

459
Q

What happens in the CAC

A
  1. pyruvate and oxaloacetate join
  2. 2 CO2’s, 1 ATP, 1 FADH, 3 NADH formed
    (4 CO2’s, 2ATP, 2FADH, 6 NADH per glucose)
460
Q

Where is the ETC located

A

the inner mitochondrial membrane

461
Q

What are most of the molecules in the ETC

A

cytochromes

462
Q

How many ATP’s are produced per molecule of glucose by substrate level-phophorylation

A

4 (2 from glycolysis, 2 from CAC)

463
Q

How many ATP’s are produced per molecule of glucose by oxidative phophorylation

A

32
28 from 10 NADH
4 from 2 FADH

464
Q

How many total ATP’s are prduced from one glucose

A

36 total

465
Q

Brock style how many ATP’s are produce from one glucose

A

25 from 10 NADH
3 from 2 FADH
4 ATP
32 total

466
Q

What is the order of preferred energy source of the body

A

glucose, other carbs, fats, proteins

467
Q

How are other carbs used for energy

A

most of them are broken down to monosaccharides which can then be converted into glucose

468
Q

How are fats used for energy

A

Triglycerides are hydrolyzed by lipases to fatty acids and glycerols.

469
Q

How is glycerol used in the production of energy

A

it is converted into PGAL, which is an intermediate in glycolysis

470
Q

How are fatty acids used in the production of energy

A
  1. they must be activated using 2 ATP’s so it can be taken to the mitochondria
  2. beta oxidation chops it up into 2 C molecules that are turned into Acetyl-CoA
  3. The Acetyl-CoA enters the TCA cycle
471
Q

what is produced in beta oxidation of a saturated fatty acid

A

1 NADH 1 FADH

472
Q

When is protein used for energy,

A

when no other carbs or fats are available

473
Q

What are the two reactions that activate proteins for energy harvesting

A

transamination

oxidative deamination

474
Q

what does oxidative deamination create

A

Ammonia

475
Q

What does photosynthesis do

A

converts water and CO2 into Glucose and oxygen

476
Q

what is plant storage of glucose

A

starch

477
Q

what is the photosynthetic organelles

A

chloroplasts

478
Q

how do photosynthetic bacteria work without chloroplasts

A

they have membranes that function in a similar manner

479
Q

What are the two reactions of photosynthesis

A

light reaction and dark reactions

480
Q

what do light reactions do

A

convert solar energy into ATP and NADPH

481
Q

What do dark reactions do

A

they incorporate CO2 into organic molecules (carbon fixation)

482
Q

what is another name for the carbon fixation reactions and why

A

reduction synthesis because carbohydrates are produced by reducing CO2

483
Q

Where do the light and dark reactions occur

A

the choloplasts

484
Q

where actually absorbs the photons of light

A

chlorophyll in the thylakoid membranes

485
Q

what is another name for the light reactions of photosynthesis

A

photolysis

486
Q

what happens when light strikes the chlorophyll molecule

A

a P700 molecule is struck and excites electrons to a higher energy level. those electrons can flow in two ways

487
Q

what are the two ways that the excited electrons can flow in photosynthesis

A

the cyclic electron flow and the non-cyclic electron flow

488
Q

what happens in the cyclic electron flow

A

excited electrons of P700 move along a chain of electron carriers where a series of redox reactions occur which produces ATP, and returns the electrons to P700

489
Q

what is cyclic photophosphorylation

A

when ATP is made from the cyclic electron flow

490
Q

What happens in non-cyclic electron flow

A
  1. the electrons from P700 are transfered to NADP+ to make NADPH
  2. Excited electrons from P680 move to P700 filling P700’s holes and creating ATP
  3. P680 oxidizes H2O, fills its holes, and two O’s combine to make O2
491
Q

What are the products of the non-cyclic electron flow

A

NADPH
ATP
O2

492
Q

What do the dark reactions do

A

use NADPH And ATP from the light reactions to reduce CO2 and make carbs

493
Q

What is the calvin cycle

A

the process in plants that converts Co2 into PGAL

494
Q

What happens with the PGAL from the calvin cycle

A
  1. it is used
  2. exported as glucose,
  3. stored
495
Q

how many times must the calvin cycle go to produce a 3C PGAL from Co2

A

3 times

496
Q

In what 3 ways is the calvin cycle just like the krebs cycle in reverse

A
  1. CO2 is fed into the cycle in calvin, in krebs it is released
  2. FADPH was used in the calvin, NADH was made in krebs
  3. ATP was used in calvin, ATP is produced in Krebs
497
Q

What is the product of the calvin cycle

A

PGAL

498
Q

what are the steps of the calvin cycle

A
  1. CO2 binds to RBP (ribulose biphosphate 5C)
  2. RBP breaks down to form two 3C PGA’s
  3. PGA is phosphorylated and reduced (by ATP and NADPH) to PGAL
  4. most PGAL goes back through the cycle
  5. 1 PGAL is ready
499
Q

how many runs through the calvin cycle until you can get a glucose

A

6,
in six turns of the calvin cycle you get
- 12 PGAL from 6 CO2 and 6 RBP

The 12 PGAL recombine to form 6 RBP and 1 glucose

500
Q

How does respiration work in protozoa and hydra

A

since every cell is exposed to the environment gasses simply diffuse through the cell membrane

501
Q

How does respiration work in annelids

A

mucus secreted on the external surface of the earthworm provides a moist surface for gas diffusion through the skin. then the circulatory system brings the O2 to the cells, and the CO2 to the surface to be released.
Aquatic annelids use gills or parapodia for gas exchange

502
Q

how does respiration work in the arthropod phylum (grasshopper)

A

there are surface openings called spiracles, there are tubes that run from the spiracles to the body cells called trachae. gasses go into the spiracles and down the trachae and can diffuse across into cells directly.

503
Q

What is the purpose of ventilation

A

to bring O2 into the blood and get rid of CO2

504
Q

Where is the respiratory control centers

A

medulla oblongata

505
Q

What causes the respiratory control centers to increase firing

A

increase in the partial pressure of CO2

506
Q

What is the purpose of pulmonary surfactant

A

it coats the walls of the alveoli and reduces surface tension
this allows for easier gas exhange, and better compliance

507
Q

what is lung compliance

A

elasticity

508
Q

when does plant respiration occur

A

day and night

509
Q

what does plant respiration do

A

uses oxygen to degrade glucose

510
Q

how many ATP per glucose is made in plants

A

36

511
Q

where do gasses in plants leave from

A

the stoma of the leaf or the lenticels (openings) of woody stems

DAT (14 decks)

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