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dr taher classes HK > CVS 8 > Flashcards

CVS 8 Flashcards

1
Q

CD 34 positive means

A

hematopoetic stem cell

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2
Q

CD 31 postive

A

PE CAM

diapedesis

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3
Q

CD 54

A

ICAM

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4
Q

CD 106

A

VCAM

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5
Q

NADPH oxidase def

A

CGD

treatment -= interferon gamma

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6
Q 
def of SOD 
O2 ----> H2O2
A

Amyotropic lateral sclerosis

pure motor disorder

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7
Q

decrease progression of ALS by

A

riluzole

blocks NMDA rec

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8
Q

greenish discolouration of sputum by

A

myeloperoxidase

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9
Q

function of dorsal column

A

vib and proprioception

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10
Q

lateral spinothalamic

A

pain and temp

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11
Q

Inf ALPHA used to treat

A 
MARCK
Multiple myeloma/ malignant melanoma
Antiviral hep b/c
RCC
CML / condyloma accuminatum
Kaposci ( CD4 <500)
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12
Q

IFN BETA

A

multiple sclerosis

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13
Q

IFN GAMMA

A

CGD

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14
Q

other treatment for MS

A 
capoxone glatiramir
high dose steroids
natalizumab ( alpha 4 integrin)
ocrelizumab ( CD 20)
rituximab (CD20)
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15
Q

how to treat spasticity in MS

A

baclofen tizanidine

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16
Q

treatment with natalizumab increases risk of

A

JC virus induced PML

circular DNA virus

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17
Q

treatment with rituximab causes

A

SERUM SICKNESS type III

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18
Q

mention type III HSR ( immune complex)

A 
SHARP 
SLE / serum sickness
HSPN/ HSP
Arthus reaction
RPGN
PAN/ PSGN
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19
Q

monoclonal antibodies are safe to use in

A

liver and renal failure

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20
Q

what are aeur rods made of

A

crystals of MPO

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21
Q

pt with AML M3 is at risk of

A

DIC … aeur rods can lead to this

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22
Q

AML M3

A

acute promyelocytic leukemia
(15;17)
aeur rods

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23
Q

AML M5

A

acute myelomonocytic leukemia

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24
Q

AML M7

A

acute megakaryocytic leukemia

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25
Q

which type of AML is assoc with DOWN SYNDROME age less than 5

A

AML M7

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26
Q

O2 independent mechanism

A

lysozymes—- Neutrophls

Major basic protein—- eosinophils

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27
Q

cytokines for apoptosis

A

IL 10
TGF beta
IL4

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28
Q

TH1 makes

A

IL2 IFN gamma

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29
Q

what induces TH1

A

IL 12 IFN gamma

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30
Q

TH2 mkes

A

IL 4 5 6 10 13 TGF beta

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31
Q

what induces TH2

A

IL 2 IL 4

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32
Q

T REG makes

A

IL 10 TGFbeta IL 35

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33
Q

what induces TREG

A

TGF beta IL 2

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34
Q

TH 17 makes

A

IL 17 21 22

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35
Q

what induces TH 17

A

IL 1 ,6 , TGF beta

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36
Q

IL 12 receptor defect is seen in

A

low th1 response
recall IL 12 is released by TH0 to induce TH1 cells

LOW IFN gamma

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37
Q

Jbs sydnrome

A 
HYPER igE 
def of th17 STAT 3 mutation
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38
Q

FOXp3 mutation

A

IPEX immune dysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy

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39
Q

what is the function of FOXp3

A

transcription factor that is expressed in T REG cells and it is important for their normal function

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40
Q

IPEX

A 
x link recessive
FOX P3 genetic defect 
absent CD 4+ ------CD 25+ reg T cells
early onset of disease
Diarrhea
Diabetes
Dermatitis
Dystrophy of nails
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41
Q

AIRE gene is involved in

A

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

T cell dysf leads to candida infection

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42
Q

misfolded abnormal aggregate proteins in form of b pleated sheets

A

insoluble

amyloidosis

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43
Q

how can we visualize amyloid deposits inside cell

A

congo red stain

apple green birefringence under polarized light

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44
Q

what is the most common organ involved in amyloidosis

A

kidney

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45
Q

Mesangial deposits can be seen in these conditions

A 
Bergers disease (IgA nephropathy)
Amyloidosis
Diabetes
46
Q

role of AB amyloid in dementia linked to down synd

A

ch 21 has amyloid precursor preotein

AB amyloid PHOSPHORYLATION —— apoptosis of neurons —– cortical atrophy

47
Q

systemic AL

A

light chains

48
Q

systemic AB2

A

B2 microglobulin from MHC 1

hemodialysis / ESRD

49
Q

systemic AA

A

chronic inflammatory disease

50
Q

Localized AB

A

alzheimers

51
Q

AIAPP

A

type 2 DM

amylin

52
Q

ANP

53
Q

A cal

A

calcitonin

54
Q

ATTR

A

tranthyretin familial senile amyloidosis

55
Q

Diastolic dysf due to restrictive heart disease can be caused by

A

amyloidosis

sarcoidosis ( calcification fibrosis)

radiation therapy (mostly presented as a pt with lymphoma because lymphocytes are most susceptible to radiation)

56
Q

Loeffler syndrome

A

INCREASE in eosinophils

damage due to the major basic protein in eosinophils

57
Q

most common cardiac complication seen with hemochromatosis

A

DILATED CM

58
Q

macroglossia can be seen in

A

cretinism
acromegaly
down syndome

59
Q

components of the carpal tunnel

A

4 flexor digitorum superfic
4 felxor digitorum profundus
1 felor pollicis longus
1 MEDIAN nerve

60
Q

medullary carcinoma of thyroid is linked to MEN

A

MEN 2A B
RET mutation
calcitonin is produced from the c parafollicualr cells

61
Q

increase in calcitonin production leads to

A

HYPOcalcemia —- long QT

62
Q

ATTR

A

Trans—- transp
thy——- thyroid horm
retin—— retinol A

leads to restricive heart disease

63
Q

hereditary ATTR mutation

A

familial amyloid cardiomyopathy

familial amyloid polyneuro

64
Q

acute phase reactants secondary to inflammation are induced by which cytokine

65
Q

anti IL 6 drug

A

tocilizumab

66
Q

list of acute phase reactants secondary to inflammation

A 
CRP
hepcidin
ferritin
fibrinogen 
procalcitonin
67
Q

CRP

A

opsonin — phagocytosis

atherosclerosis — inflammation

68
Q

hepcidin

A

negative iron regulatory protein

locks off iron in the liver and bone marrow — so micro organisms cant feed on it

69
Q

ferritin

A

macrophages increase ferritin

70
Q

fibrinogen

A

factor 1

endothelial repair

71
Q

procalcitonin

A

in BACTERIAL inf procalcitonin is increased x 10

72
Q

what happens to ESR when fibrinogen is increased

A

ESR IS INCREASED

73
Q

causes of increased ESR

A 
GTA/ takayusu
autoimmune disease
infections
pregnancy
renal complications
cancers
74
Q

causes of decreased ESR

A

sickle cell disaese
polycythemia
chronic heart failure
hypofibrinogenemia

75
Q

formation of what in hep b and c can lead to hepatocellular carcinoma

A

scar tissue

by CD 8 t cell

76
Q

h. pylori can lead to

A

adenocarcinoma

and MALTOMA —- b cell non hodg

77
Q

wound healing steps

A

hemostasis
inflammatory ( 1-3 days)
proliferation (3days - 3 weeks)
maturation remodelling (3 w to 3 months)

78
Q

what happens in the inflammatory phase

A

neutrophils and macrophages — phagocytosis of necrotic debri and bacteria

79
Q

what happens in the proliferation phase

A

granulation tissue is formed (type 3 collagen)
fibroblast for connective tissue

VEGF — neo vascularization and wound contraction

80
Q

name anti VEGF

A

bevacizumab

ranibizumb

81
Q

what happens in maturation or remodelling phase

A

fibroblasts synthesize connective tissue
granulation tissue type 3 ———> type 1
mediated by COLLEGENASE that requires ZINC

82
Q

what would happen in zinc def

A

poor wound healing

due to colleganse dysf

83
Q

zinc is necessary for what other enzymes

A
  1. zinc finger domain ( transcription factor)

2. metalloproteinase - zinc containing enzymes that degrade components of ECM and basement membrane

84
Q

what is the role of metalloproteinase in cancer

A

invade BM membrane and lead to metastasis

decrease expression of E CADHERIN

85
Q

Zinc finger motifs comprise of

A

amino acid chains bound by zinc atom

also have cyteine and histidine residues that help in recognition of specific DNA sequence

86
Q

which hormone receptors hace zinc finger binding domains

A

INTRACELLULAR recptrs
thyroid
steroid
fat soilube vitmins ADEK

87
Q

necrolytic migratory erythema is seen in

A

GLUCAGUNOMA

88
Q

what is ACRODERMATITIS ENTEROPATHICA

A

intestinal zinc absp defect

89
Q

zinc def can cause these signs and symptoms

A 
erythematous skon lesions (pustular vesicular)
hypogonadism
taste smell absence
impairement in wound healing 
night blindness
LIVER CIRRHOSIS can also occur
decreases axillary pubic hair
90
Q

which parasite can cause granulomatous response

A

schistosoma hematobium

91
Q

S. hematobium can cause

A

granuloma inf
hemorrhagic cystitis
sq cell carcinoma

92
Q

Painless hematuria can be seen in

A

bladder cancer
kidney cancer
nephritic synd

93
Q

oainful hematuria

A

RENAL STONES

94
Q

where is transitional cell epthelium found

A

bladder
ureters
renal pelvis
calyces

95
Q

PSAC mnemonic is for

A 
sq cell carcinoma bladder
Phenacetin
Smoking
Aniline dyes
Cyclophosphamide (alkylating agent)
96
Q

sq cc of bladder is caused by prolinged irritation to the bladder by

A

smoking
renal stones
schistosoma hematobium

97
Q

portal HTN vs Pulm HTN

A

portal + Hepatosplenomegly —- s. mansoni

pulmonary —- s. hematobium

98
Q

intermediate hosts for schistosoma and the stage of invasion

A

snails

cercaria —- penetrates teh skin

99
Q

what is the mechanism of praziCAntel

A

increases permeability for schistosoma CALCIUM

100
Q

systemic mycosis — pneumonia all are dimorphic EXCEPT

A

coccidoides its a spherule

101
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

smaller than RBCs
missisipi ohio —- birfds/bats POOP (cave explorers)
macrophages filled with histoplasma

102
Q

tongue ulcers, pancytopenia , hilar adenopathy seen in

A

histoplasmosis

103
Q

Blastomycosis

A

same size as RBC
Great lakes
Blasto has Broad Base BUDS

104
Q

blastomycosis mannifestations

A

BONE SKIN LUNG

skin — verrucous sq cc and granulomatous nodules

105
Q

coccidoides

A

LARGER than RBC
not a YEAST
CAlifornia

exposure to DUST / earthquakes — spherules with spores —— desert rheumatism
erythema nodosum

106
Q

paracoccicoides

A

LARGER than RBC
Latin america
Captain wheel

107
Q

transmitted through BATS

A

HER
Histoplasmosis
Ebola ( flavivirus RNA)
Rabies ( rhabdovirus RNA)

108
Q

localized infection with systemic mycoses

A

fluconazole itraconazole

109
Q

systemic infection

A

amphotericin B pore in fungal cell membrane

110
Q

pores in BACTERIAL cell membrane

A

daptomycin

polymyxin

111
Q

daptomycin SE

A

rhabdomyolysis

dr taher classes HK (24 decks)

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