Contacts Ground School: Contacts #1 & #2

Question 1

What is the IMSAFE checklist?

Answer 1

Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Eating

Question 2

What are the four factors that contribute to the left turning yawing tendency?

Answer 2

1. Torque reaction to the engine and propeller
2. The propeller’s gyroscopic effect
3. The corkscrewing effect of the propeller slipstream
4. The asymmetrical loading of the propeller (P-factor)

Question 3

What are the gyroscopic effects from the propeller?

Answer 3

• If the nose is yawed to the left, the nose pitches up
• If the nose is yawed to the right, the nose pitches down
• If the nose is pitched down, a left yaw develops
• If the nose is pitched up, a right yaw develops

Question 4

What is the general trim sequence?

Answer 4

Rudder, elevator, and then aileron

Question 5

For attitude flying, airplane control consists of what four components?

Answer 5

Pitch control
Bank control
Yaw control
Power control

Question 6

What are the two essential parts of a scan pattern?

Answer 6

It must be complete and continuous

Question 7

What checklists are performed from memory?

Answer 7

Lineup Check
After Takeoff
Ops Check
Before Landing

Question 8

Prior to entering the cockpit and beginning the strap-in process, ensure all of the ____ are fastened and ____ are secure.

Answer 8

Harness buckles
G-suit zippers

Question 9

Extra care should be taken to ensure no straps or buckles are entangled with any of the side panel switches or components before actuating what switch?

Answer 9

Electronic seat adjustment

Question 10

When should the After Landing Checklist be initiated?

Answer 10

After clearing the duty runway

Question 11

What is the visual wing reference for 3/4 WTD?

Answer 11

Where the orange meets the white on the wing leading edge

Question 12

What is the visual reference for 2/3 WTD?

Answer 12

The fuel cap

Question 13

What is the visual wing reference for 1/4 WTD?

Answer 13

Where the canopy rail visually bisects the wing

Question 14

What is the touchdown zone?

Answer 14

The area from the intended point of landing extending 500 feet beyond that point

Question 15

How should the aircraft be established at the initial point after determining the duty runway at an OLF?

Answer 15

1. On extended runway centerline
2. On runway heading
3. Wings level
4. At break altitude and airspeed in accordance with local SOP

Question 16

What is the purpose of the Break?

Answer 16

To transition the aircraft from normal cruise configuration to the landing configuration and position the aircraft on the downwind leg

Question 17

What are the three phases of landing?

Answer 17

1. Landing transition
2. Flare and touchdown
3. Landing roll

Question 18

For landing situations, what flap setting should you use when crosswinds are greater than 10kts? What about crosswinds greater than 20kts?

Answer 18

Use takeoff flaps for crosswinds greater than 10kts

Use no flaps for crosswinds greater than 20kts

Question 19

What is a causal factor for a high flare landing error?

Answer 19

Flare begun or performed too early with excessive pitch up

Question 20

What is the causal factor for a Floating landing error?

Answer 20

Late power reduction, excessive speed, or improper flap setting

Question 21

What is a causal factor for a ballooning landing error?

Answer 21

Rapidly raising the nose to the landing attitude with excessive airspeed

Question 22

In order to depart, what is required?

Answer 22

You must be number one upwind

You DO NOT have to be number one with interval

Question 23

What are the four basic transitions?

Answer 23

1. Climb to cruise
2. Cruise to climb
3. Cruise to descent
4. Descent to cruise

Question 24

Which sensory sensitivity will warn of a decrease in speed or the beginning of a settling or “mushing” of the airplane?

Answer 24

Kinesthesia

Question 25

Recovery from all stall maneuvers must be accomplished above what altitude?

Answer 25

6000’ AGL

Question 26

What are the THREE C’s that are accomplished before performing stall maneuvers?

Answer 26

• Configuration
• Checklist
• Clear area

The THREE C’s can be accomplished in any order and are not required in between maneuvers if flown in a series.

Question 27

What is the purpose of the slow flight maneuver?

Answer 27

To develop the ability to fly the aircraft in a near-stalled condition

Question 28

What is the correct slow flight configuration?

Answer 28

85 KIAS
45% Power
LDG Flaps

Question 29

What is a slip condition?

Answer 29

A slip is an out-of-balance flight condition used to increase sink rate and lose excess altitude while maintaining a constant airspeed and a specific track over the ground

Question 30

If full rudder deflection is used during a slip, what airspeed should you remain below?

Answer 30

150 KIAS

Full deflection of rudder is not required during a slip

Question 31

What are the three phases of a spin?

Answer 31

1. Post stall gyrations
2. Incipient spin
3. Steady-state spin

Question 32

What is the aircraft configuration for an intentional spin entry?

Answer 32

Establish and trim the aircraft in slow cruise and the minimum entry altitude is 13,500’ MSL

Question 33

What are the three basic rules for handling an airborne emergency?

Answer 33

1. Maintain aircraft control
2. Analyze the situation and take proper action
3. Land as soon as conditions permit

Question 34

What are the common errors with the Precautionary Emergency Landing (PEL)?

Answer 34

1. Delaying turn toward the nearest suitable field during intial climb
2. Poor power control & failure to set 4-6% torque once on ELP profile
3. Delaying gratification (gear/flaps) instead of correcting with power

Question 35

What are the common errors with the engine failure (power loss) procedure?

Answer 35

1. Improper position at high key (aircraft not aligned)
2. Excessive or insufficient bank anlge at high key resulting in improper low key spacing
3. Premature configuration (i.e. Takeoff flap lowered at low key with insufficient energy on profile)

Question 36

In a radar environment (or positive radio contact with a tower/RDO), what is the standard procedure for a distress or urgent situation is to ____?

Answer 36

Declare an emergency

Question 37

In a non-radar environment (VFR, Squawking 1200, and not communicating with RDO) emergency voice reports of an immediate or serious nature are ____.

Answer 37

Preceded by the word “MAYDAY”