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MH-60R HAC PREP > CNAF Definitions > Flashcards

CNAF Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

*NATOPS Program Purpose

A

The NATOPS program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishap rates. This manual issues policy and procedural guidance of the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) that is applicable to all NATOPS users

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2
Q

*CNAF Purpose

A

This manual prescribes general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities. This manual is not intended to cover every contingency that may arise and every rule of safety and good practice

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3
Q

*Deviation

A

In the tactical environment, military exigency may require on-site deviations from instructions/procedures contained here. The existing risk of deviation must continually be weighed against the benefit of deviating from this manual. Deviation from specified flight and operating instructions is authorized in emergency situations when, in the judgment of the pilot in command, safety justifies such deviation

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4
Q

*Manual Deconfliction

A

When more stringent requirements are issued in this instruction, tis instruction shall govern until specific authority to deviate has been granted by COMNAVAIRFOR (N455)

Individual aircraft NATOPS requirements should be at least as stringent as those set forth in this instruction

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5
Q

Intent

A

Lack of intent does not in itself constitute absence of culpability. One can be so grossly negligent as to equate omission with commission. The question is whether the pilot in command or the formation leader could reasonably have been expected to avoid the violation

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6
Q

*Warning

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed

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7
Q

*Caution

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed

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8
Q

*Note

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc. that must be emphasized

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9
Q

*Shall

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is mandatory

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10
Q

*Should

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is recommended

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11
Q

*May or Need Not

A

Are used only when application of a procedure is optional

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12
Q

*Will

A

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure

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13
Q

*Land Immediately

A

Execute a landing without delay

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14
Q

*Land as Soon as Possible

A

Land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made

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15
Q

*Land as Soon as Practicable

A

Extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of the flight are at the discretion of the pilot in command

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16
Q

Aircraft Class

A

A broad classification as to the general mission purposes of an aircraft design (e.g. attack, fighter, helicopter, patrol, transport, vertical takeoff and landing and unmanned aerial vehicles)

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17
Q

Aircraft Type

A

The broadest classification of aircraft as to the physical features (e.g. rotary wing)

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18
Q

Aircraft Model

A

The basic mission symbol and design number (e.g. H-60)

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19
Q

*Aircrew

A

A collective term that applies to all categories of personnel in a flight status either as a crew or non-crewmember. Aircrew are military personnel on competent flight orders or civilian personnel whose duties require frequent and regular participation in aerial flights to perform such functions as installation, maintenance, evaluation of airborne equipment, communication specialists, photo specialists, etc.

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20
Q

Actual Instrument Approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are experienced below 1000’ above the airport/flight deck elevation during an actual instrument approach

21
Q

Actual Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon

22
Q

*Controlling Custodian

A

The command exercising administrative control of assignment, employment and logistic support of aircraft (e.g. CNAF)

23
Q

Cross Country

A

Any flight that either does not remain in the local flying area or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility

24
Q

Flat Hatting

A

Maneuvers conducted at low altitude and/or high speed for thrill seeking purposes overland or water. Any acts conducted for thrill seeking purposes are strictly prohibited

25
Q

*Flight

A
  1. For operational purposes, a flight is one or more aircraft proceeding on a common mission
  2. For helicopters, a flight begins when the aircraft lifts from a rest point or commences ground taxi and ends after airborne when rotors are disengaged or the aircraft has been stationary for 5 minutes with rotors engaged
26
Q

*Flight Crew

A

Personnel whose presence is required on board a manned aircraft to perform crew functions in support of assigned mission

27
Q

Flight Time

A

The elapsed time computed in accordance with the definition of flight. Flight time is logged in hours and tenths of hours and is creditable to the aircraft, personnel onboard and equipment

28
Q

*Hazard

A

A condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation

29
Q

Instrument Meteorological Conditions

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceiling less than the minimums specified for VMC. IMC conditions exist any time a visible horizon is not distinguishable

30
Q

Instrument Time

A

The portion of pilot time in either day or night under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

a) Actual instrument time will be logged by both pilots in a dual/multi-piloted aircraft during flight in actual instrument conditions
b) Simulated instrument time shall be logged only by the pilot actually manipulating the controls

31
Q

Local Flight

A

A flight that remains within the local flying area and terminates at either the same facility or another military facility with which the originating station has direct station to station communications

32
Q

*Local Flying Area

A

The area in the vicinity of an air installation in which locally based aircraft can operate during an average.typical sorties flight time. The local flying area shall not exceed 350 nm from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Operations manual by the CO. Insofar as practicable, local flying areas shall be bounded by prominent terrain features and/or air navigation aid radials/distances

33
Q

*Night Time

A

The portion of pilot time during darkness (i.e. between official time of sunset and sunrise [on the surface below the aircraft in flight], regardless of whether visual or instrument conditions exist

34
Q

*Nonstandard Operation

A

When an urgent requirement exists to fly a short-notice mission in support of humanitarian, contingency, MEDEVAC, special access or state department requirement

35
Q

Oceanic

A

A situation where an aircraft has no radio communication and is greater than 250nm from the nearest navaid

36
Q

*Officer in Tactical Command

A

The senior officer present eligible to assume command or the officer to whom he has delegated tactical command

37
Q

*Official Business

A

The necessity to contact personnel, units, or organizations for the purpose of conducting transactions in the service of and in the interest of the United States Government. This definition does not authorize the use by of official business only airfields, their services, or other items attendant to itinerant operations when making enroute stops while proceeding to an airfield at which official business is to be conducted. Official business only restrictions do not preclude the use of the facility as an alternate during IFR conditions

38
Q

*Operational Necessity

A

A mission associated with war or peacetime operations, in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew

39
Q

*Passenger

A

An individual who is not part of the aircrew traveling in an aircraft designed or normally configured for passenger (non-aircrew) carrying capability on a point-to-point flight

40
Q

First Pilot Time

A

The portion of pilot time during which an individual is positioned with access to the flight controls and is exercising principal active control of the aircraft

41
Q

Copilot Time

A

The portion of pilot time while assisting the pilot exercising principal active control of a multi-piloted aircraft during which the copilot is positioned with access to and is immediately ready to operate the flight controls

42
Q

*Reporting Custodian

A

An organizational unit of the lowest echelon of command accepting responsibility (involving accountability to CNO) for aircraft as designated either by the CNO or by the controlling custodian of the aircraft (i.e. HSM-51/Skipper)

43
Q

*Risk

A

The expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability

44
Q

Simulated Instrument Approach

A

An instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions

45
Q

Simulated Instrument Conditions

A

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight are VMC, but pilot vision is limited primarily to the interior of the aircraft

46
Q

Trip

A

A consecutive series of flights by the same aircraft with the same general purpose of flight (with regard to the aircraft only), pilot in command, and transaction code (e.g. ship operations or shore operations) from point of original departure to destination

47
Q

Very Important Persons (VIP)

A

Flag officers, DOD officials equal to or senior to flag officers, high-profile public figures, elected members of Congress, etc.

48
Q

Visual Meteorological Conditions

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling that are equal or better than specified minimums. Basic weather conditions prescribed for flight under visual flight rules

49
Q

VOD

A

For the purpose of this instruction, all helicopter and tilt-rotor aircraft that have the capability to deliver passengers or cargo

MH-60R HAC PREP (36 decks)

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