Clinicals 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what sterilization techniques clean, but does not sterilize?

A

disinfectant

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2
Q

what bandage wrapping technique is used on a joint that requires movement?

A

figure-eight

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3
Q

what type of drape has an opening on it allowing access to the surgery site?

A

fenestrated

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4
Q

locking mechanisms located between the rings of the handles that are used for locking the instrument closed are known as?

A

ratchets

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5
Q

the recommended temperature for effective sterilization in an autoclave is what?

A

270

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6
Q

what is not considered a purpose of using a bandage?

A

helps stop bleeding

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7
Q

what is the smallest suture size?

A

6-0

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8
Q

what wound terms best describes an example of a closed wound?

A

contussion

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9
Q

what is the most appropriate action when setting up a surgical tray?

A

set up the tray just prior to surgery

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10
Q

what instrument is a long, slender instrument used to determine the size and shape of a hidden area to detect the presence of a foreign body?

A

sound

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11
Q

what instrument is inserted into narrowed or constricted ducts and tubes for the purpose of gradually enlarging the opening?

A

dilator

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12
Q

what best sterilizes equipment that is delicate or sensitive to heat?

A

cold sterilization

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13
Q

which suture would be used on the face or neck?

A

6-0

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14
Q

what best describes practices known as sterile technique?

A

surgical asepsis

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15
Q

when loading the autoclave, what is the appropriate amount of space to have between packs and the autoclave wall?

A

1-3 inches

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16
Q

what term best describes a procedure that creates an opening in the skin, such as a surgical incision, or inserting a urinary catheter?

A

invasive

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17
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: all sterile items are to be at waist level

A

false

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: all sterile objects must be held in front of and away from the body

A

true

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19
Q

which instrument is commonly used to clamp blood vessels?

A

hemostat

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20
Q

what should be noted by the patient to observe for infection?

A

drainage, swelling, pain, redness, and heat

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21
Q

fiber-optic endoscopes uses which type of sterilization?

A

chemical

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22
Q

what terms best describes the result when a non-sterile item or surface comes in contact with a sterile item?

A

contamination

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23
Q

how should articles for sterilization in the autoclave be wrapped?

A

double wrapped

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: do not cough, talk, or sneeze over a sterile field

A

true

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25
Q

what best describes sutures made from materials that dissolve when they encounter the tissue enzymes in the body?

A

absorbable

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26
Q

cryosurgery destroys tissues by what means?

A

freezing

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27
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: reach slowly and carefully over the sterile field

A

false

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28
Q

what is the primary purpose of surgical asepsis?

A

to prevent microorganisms from entering the body during invasive procedures

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29
Q

what is the most appropriate action when applying a sterile adhesive skin closure strip?

A

apply the first strip to the center of the incision

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30
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: if a sterile field that is not poly-lined gets wet, it is still considered sterile

A

false

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31
Q

what type of material is commonly used to wrap instruments when using an autoclave?

A

muslin

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32
Q

what is required when labeling packages for autoclaving?

A

providers name, name of the item, date of sterilization, your initials

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33
Q

device used to cut the skin

A

scalpel

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34
Q

pulls back edges of a wound

A

retractors

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35
Q

used in nose and ear procedures

A

bayonet forceps

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36
Q

lighted instrument used for viewing

A

scopes

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37
Q

used to probe into a body cavity or wound

A

probes

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38
Q

what does ABN stand for?

A

advanced beneficiary notice

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39
Q

What best describes normal daily self-care such as brushing teeth, getting dressed, and eating?

A

activities of daily living

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40
Q

what best defines the use of activities to help restore independent functioning after an illness?

A

occupational therapy

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41
Q

the instrument used to measure joint motion is called?

A

goniometer

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42
Q

a method of using electric current to stimulate fevers is known as what?

A

TENS

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43
Q

what is the most appropriate when transferring a patient?

A

use a gait belt around the patient’s waist always

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44
Q

when instructing patients in the use of axillary crutches, what is the most important?

A

put all weight on hands

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45
Q

for what type of patient is the platform crutch used?

A

cannot bear weight on hands

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46
Q

which of the following best describes when the forearm or Canadian crutches are generally used?

A

for patients who need them long term

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47
Q

what is an appropriate step when transferring a patient from the wheelchair to the exam table?

A

place the wheelchair next to the examination table, place the gait belt snugly around the assistants waist, place the patient’s feet flat on the floor, have the patient sit on the edge of the wheelchair

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48
Q

what is true when starting any heat or cold modality treatments?

A

infants and the elderly are particularly susceptible to burns, cover device with a cloth before applying

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49
Q

which type of assistive device provides maximum assistance with balance and coordination, as well as stability and support, when the patient is standing or walking?

A

walkers

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50
Q

what involves the process of recording muscle activities on a graph to determine how well muscles contract?

A

electromyography

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51
Q

paralysis of one side of the body resulting from a stroke, accident, or other condition is known as what?

A

hemiplegia

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52
Q

turning a body part on its axis

A

rotation

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53
Q

moving the hand to put the palm up

A

supination

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54
Q

pushing the foot downward towards the floor at the ankle joint

A

plantar flexion

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55
Q

movement of a body part in a circular motion

A

circumduction

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56
Q

moving the hand so the palm is down

A

pronation

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57
Q

straightening a body part

A

extension

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58
Q

moving the foot upward at the ankle joint

A

dorsiflexion

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59
Q

moving a body part towards the body

A

adduction

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60
Q

the medical term for “armpit”

A

axilla

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61
Q

the acronym ROM stands for

A

range of motion

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62
Q

describes a structure x-rays penetrate easily

A

radiolucent

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63
Q

what best describes why medical assistants need an understanding of diagnostic imaging?

A

to instruct patients in preparation

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64
Q

which of the following refers to an x-ray directed from the front of the body to the back?

A

anteroposterior

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65
Q

noninvasive diagnostic method that uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures, including valves

A

echocardiogram

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66
Q

toxicity is most likely to occur with ___ because they are stored in tissues composed of lipids and in the liver and are not carried easily into the bloodstream

A

fat soluble vitamins

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67
Q

___ are ingested substances that help the body maintain a state of homeostasis

A

nutrients

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68
Q

what is the total of all changes, chemical and physical, that take place in the body?

A

metabolism

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69
Q

an ___ is a device that senses and corrects dangerous cardiac rhythms

A

implantable cardioverter defibrillator

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70
Q

what is true about the dosimeter?

A

records radiation exposure on a strip of film

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71
Q

___ counteract the damaging effects of oxidation

A

antioxidents

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72
Q

nutrients function is to build and repair tissue

A

protein

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73
Q

deficiency is mostly likely to occur with __ vitamins

A

water soluble

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74
Q

used to view the urinary bladder for lesions and stones

A

cystography

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75
Q

views internal organs in motion

A

fluroscopy

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76
Q

___ begins at the mouth with chewing and ends with the small intestines

A

digestion

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77
Q

toxicity is most likely to occur with ___ vitamins

A

fat soluble

78
Q

basic structural unit used as a building block in all body tissues and cells

A

amino acids

79
Q

ordered to study the gallbladder for diseases such as stones or inflammation

A

cholecystography

80
Q

ingested substances that help the body maintain homeostasis

A

nutrients

81
Q

what refers to an x-ray directed from one side to the opposite side?

A

lateral

82
Q

what tests require injecting the patient with a radioactive substance?

A

thallium stress test

83
Q

describes a structure that x-rays do not penetrate

A

radiopaque

84
Q

a non-invasive screening tool to measure one’s risk for fractures

A

bone densitometry

85
Q

what are emergency situations that require first priority assessments?

A

poisoning, airway and breathing problems, head injuries, bleeding, allergic reaction

86
Q

what is the first and most critical step in responding to an emergency in an ambulatory care emergency situation?

A

recognize when emergency measures should be taken

87
Q

what statement pertaining to Good Samaritan law is false?

A

no matter what level of training, providers must do everything for the patient

88
Q

what types of burns should be seen by the provider?

A

all burns involving very young or elderly, a burn involving an area larger than a child’s hand, and any burns on the face, hands, feet, or genitals

89
Q

what is NOT a characteristic of heat exhaustion?

A

pulse full, strong, and bounding

90
Q

what is the main purpose of the crash cart in the ambulatory care setting?

A

all emergency supplies are together and available

91
Q

what is NOT an appropriate response when caring for a person who is having a seizure?

A

hold patient in position and restrain from convulsing

92
Q

what statement tis false regarding shock?

A

blood pressure increases

93
Q

what body areas would be more suited to a spiral bandage for wounds or injuries?

A

arms or legs

94
Q

what is the common term for the medical term syncope?

A

fainting

95
Q

what types of shock might occur if a person who has a hypersensitivity to a sting is not seen by a physician immediately?

A

anaphylactic

96
Q

what is the most applicable for symptoms of shivering, cool skin, listlessness, confusion, and slowed pulse and respirations?

A

hypothermia

97
Q

what is the most applicable for skin that becomes off color, waxy, and numb?

A

frostbite

98
Q

what is the most appropriate when dealing with poisonings?

A

identify the name and amount of poison taken

99
Q

what statement is true regarding bleeding?

A

serious loss of blood and profound irreversible shock can happen quickly

100
Q

what is a condition that occurs as a result of an inability of the body to properly convert sugar from food into energy?

A

diabetes

101
Q

what condition occurs as a result of an excess of insulin and an insufficient amount of sugar circulating through the blood stream?

A

insulin shock

102
Q

CPR plus automated external defibrillation (AED) can boost survival significantly if it is begun within how many minutes of collapse?

A

3-5 minutes

103
Q

what is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant if a patient feels like fainting in the examining room?

A

lay the patient down or have the head down, level with the knees

104
Q

what would be the most appropriate assessment for symptoms of exaggerated, air-hungry respirations and “fruity acetone breath”?

A

acidosis

105
Q

a patient calls and states her husband is having some loss of vision, confusion, slurred speech, and nausea. What might be the possible assessment?

A

stroke

106
Q

what is the most appropriate assessment for the symptoms of cold and clammy skin, profuse perspiration, pain radiating into the left shoulder or the jaw, and nausea?

A

heart attack

107
Q

what is the most appropriate of the medical assistant in responding to an emergency situation?

A

act quickly and assess the nature of the situation

108
Q

Jane, a patient in the clinic, comes in with a jagged 3-inch open laceration on her hand, which she calmly shows to you. What is your first priority for care?

A

minimize risk of infection

109
Q

neurogenic

A

trauma to nervous system

110
Q

cardiogenic

A

greatly inadequate cardiac output

111
Q

septic

A

overwhelming infectious process

112
Q

anaphylactic

A

massive hypersensitivity reaction

113
Q

occurs with a sever twisting action, causes break to wind around bone

A

spiral

114
Q

bone protrudes through the skin surface, creating the possibility of infection

A

compound

115
Q

cracked bone, but the break is not all the way through; frequently seen children

A

greenstick

116
Q

involves the distal end of the radius and results in displacement, causing a bulge at the wrist

A

colles

117
Q

more than one fracture line with several bone fragments present

A

comminuted

118
Q

complete break in bone in which there is no involvement with the skin surface

A

simple

119
Q

occurs with severe head injuries in which a broken piece of skull is driven inward

A

depressed

120
Q

broken ends are jammed into each other

A

impacted

121
Q

what is not recommended choice for ingested poison?

A

ipecac

122
Q

ml

A

milliliter

123
Q

ab lib

A

as desired

124
Q

qh

A

every hour

125
Q

tbsp

A

tablespoon

126
Q

tsp

A

teaspoon

127
Q

NPO

A

nothing by mouth

128
Q

bid

A

twice a day

129
Q

gtt

A

drops

130
Q

mg

A

milligram

131
Q

IV

A

intravenous

132
Q

in

A

inches

133
Q

ac

A

before meals

134
Q

pc

A

after meals

135
Q

gm

A

gram

136
Q

kg

A

kilogram

137
Q

sig

A

signature

138
Q

IM

A

intramuscular

139
Q

what is not considered to be parenteral?

A

ingestion

140
Q

what is the recommended maximum volume of fluid introduced to the dorsogluteal site?

A

3ml

141
Q

when is the medication label to be read?

A

when the medication is taken from the storage area, just before removing it from its container, and when returning the medication to the storage area

142
Q

what is the measure of volume?

A

milliliter

143
Q

the hazards associated with parenteral medications

A

allergic reaction, injury to the bone, nerve or blood vessel, injecting into a vessel instead of the tissue

144
Q

what is a long-lasting insulin preparation?

A

lantus

145
Q

subscription

A

this gives directions to the pharmacist for filling the prescription

146
Q

inscription

A

states the names and quantities of ingredients to be included in the medication

147
Q

signature

A

gives directions to the patient

148
Q

superscription

A

includes Rx, which means take thou

149
Q

what angle is used when giving an intradermal injection?

A

10-15 degrees

150
Q

what is the most commonly used syringe?

A

1, 3, and 5cc

151
Q

the amount of medication that is prescribed for administration

A

dosage

152
Q

type of injection given on the anterior forearm

A

intradermal

153
Q

a route other than the alimentary canal for injection of a liquid

A

parenteral

154
Q

the absence of breathing

A

apnea

155
Q

a lack of oxygen in the blood

A

hypoxemia

156
Q

type of injection that would be given into the deltoid

A

intramuscular

157
Q

type of injection in the abdomen or on the posterior aspect of the upper arm

A

subcutaneous

158
Q

the hollow core of the needle

A

lumen

159
Q

a dosage of insulin is measured in

A

units

160
Q

a small sterile prefilled glass bottle with a rubber stopper containing a hypodermic solution

A

vial

161
Q

when a provider writes a prescription for controlled substances, what must be on the prescription?

A

date, DEA number, full address of the patient

162
Q

what best describes grams?

A

weight

163
Q

what is the most appropriate action when locating the ventrogluteal site?

A

use palm of hand against trochanter with tip of finger on anterior iliac spine

164
Q

what types of injections requires you to pull the skin to the side before the needle insertion?

A

z-track

165
Q

a small, sterile, prefilled glass container that usually holds a single dose of hypodermic solution is known as what?

A

ampule

166
Q

what is the number of pills needed per day for the Allegra 60mg BID?

A

two

167
Q

in children 2 years or older, what is the correct angle of injection into the vastus lateralis?

A

90 degrees

168
Q

why is choosing the proper site for injections important?

A

ensures the medication is delivered to the correct tissue type

169
Q

the gentle pulling back on the plunger of the syringe to ensure the needle tip is not in a blood vessel is

A

aspiration

170
Q

what is the correct interpretation of a prescription that reads penicillin V 500 mg po qid #50?

A

dispense 50 tablets of penicillin 500mg each and have the patient take one tablet four times a day

171
Q

what is equal to 5ml

A

1 tsp

172
Q

what does not require aspiration with giving an injection?

A

intradermal

173
Q

how many grams is equal to 1,000 milligrams?

A

1

174
Q

what syringe type is most frequently used to inject minute amounts for allergy testing and allergy injections?

A

tuberculin

175
Q

what is the preferred site for infant and children intramuscular injections?

A

vastus lateralis

176
Q

what injections do not require massage after administration?

A

z-track and intradermal

177
Q

list the 6 rights of administering a medication

A

patient, dose, route, documentation, time, medication

178
Q

when administering a TB test, always remember __ up so you’re able to create a __

A

bevel, wheal

179
Q

what best describes an electrocardiogram?

A

graphic representation of the heart’s electrical activity

180
Q

where is the lead for a V6 reading placed?

A

horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line

181
Q

why should the ECG tracing be performed in a quiet, warm, exam room away from electrical equipment?

A

artifacts are reduced

182
Q

what indicates ventricular depolarization?

A

QRS complex

183
Q

what is the name of the body’s natural pacemaker?

A

SA node

184
Q

where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart?

A

right atrium

185
Q

what occurs if the metal tip of a lead wire becomes detached from an electrode?

A

interrupted baseline

186
Q

what does the cardiac cycle represent?

A

one heartbeat

187
Q

what best describes the electrical conduction system of the heart?

A

SA node to Purkinje fibers

188
Q

what best describes what the P wave represents?

A

atrial depolarization

189
Q

the standard electrocardiogram shows the heart’s electrical activity from different angles through “leads” How many leads are recorded?

A

12

190
Q

what procedure involves taking a portion of a vein and transplanting it into one or more of the hearts’ coronary arteries?

A

coronary artery bypass

191
Q

what is the term used to refer to an ECG reading that is within normal limits?

A

normal sinus rhythm

192
Q

what is an example of an artifact caused by electrical interference?

A

AC interference