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Medical Assistant > Anatomy & Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy & Physiology Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What is the definition of “anatomy?

A

the study of the structures of the body

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2
Q

What is the definition of “physiology”?

A

the study of how the body functions

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3
Q

The body is arranged in __

A

a hierarchy

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4
Q

The hierarchy ranges from __

A

the most simple to the most complex

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5
Q

How is the hierarchy of the body arranged?

A

atoms > molecules > organelles > cells > tissues > organs > organ systems > human (AMOCTOOH)

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6
Q

What is the smallest /living/ unit that make up the body’s structure?

A

cells

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7
Q

Organelles are metabolic units within __ but are not living units on their own

A

cells

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8
Q

How many organs does the body consist of?

A

11

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9
Q

True or False:

Some organs belong to more than one system

A

True

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10
Q

The “Integumentary System” consists of __

A

hair, skin, & nails

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11
Q

The “Skeletal System” consists of __

A

bones, cartilage, & ligaments

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12
Q

The “Muscular System” consists of __

A

skeletal muscles

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13
Q

The “Lymphatic System” consists of __

A

lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, lymph, thymus, spleen, & tonsils

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14
Q

The “Respiratory System” consists of __

A

nose, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, & lungs

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15
Q

The “Urinary System” consists of __

A

kidneys, uterus, urinary bladder, & urethra

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16
Q

The “Nervous System” consists of __

A

brain, spinal cord, & sense organs

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17
Q

The “Endocrine System” consists of __

A

pituitary gland, arenas, pancreas, thyroid, & parathyroids, etc.

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18
Q

The “Circulatory System” consists of __

A

heart, arteries, veins, & capillaries

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19
Q

The “Digestive System” consists of __

A

stomach, small & large intestines, esophagus, liver, mouth, & pancreas

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20
Q

The “Male Reproductive System” consists of __

A

testes, vas deferens, prostate, seminal vesicles, & penis

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21
Q

The “Female Reproductive System” consists of __

A

ovaries, Fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, & breasts

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22
Q

What is the mid sagittal line?

A

a line that separates the body from left to right, marked by the navel

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23
Q

What is a sagittal line?

A

a line away from the midline, & splits into unequal parts. Ex: an arm

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24
Q

Medial

A

is towards the body’s midline

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25
Q

Lateral

A

goes away from the body’s midline

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26
Q

Distal

A

farthest from the point of origin (attachment)

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27
Q

Proximal

A

closest to the point of origin (attachment)

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28
Q

Superior

A

above

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29
Q

Inferior

A

below

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30
Q

Anterior (Ventral)

A

front

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31
Q

Posterior (Dorsal)

A

Back

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32
Q

Superficial

A

at the surface

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33
Q

Deep

A

away from the body’s surface

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34
Q

Sagittal Plane

A

AKA mid sagittal plane if made exactly in the midline; divides lengthwise, into right/left sides; used to reveal the organs in the cranial or pelvic cavity

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35
Q

Traverse Plane

A

AKA horizontal plane; divides horizontally from superior/inferior portions; used for CT scans to reveal internal organs

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36
Q

Frontal Plane

A

AKA coronal plane; divides lengthwise into anterior/posterior portions; to show the contents of the abdominal & thoracic cavities

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37
Q

“Ventral Cavity” consists of __

A

thoracic & abdominopelvic cavity

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38
Q

“Thoracic Cavity” consists of __

A

mediastinum & pleural

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39
Q

“Abdominopelvic Cavity” consists of __

A

abdominal & pelvic cavities

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40
Q

“Dorsal Cavity” consists of __

A

spinal cavity & cranial cavity

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41
Q

Which cavity is the diaphragm located? Dorsal or Ventral?

A

neither

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42
Q

What surrounds the thoracic cavity? How is it divided?

A

ribs & chest muscles; subdivided by two pleural cavities (each containing a lung) & the mediastinum

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43
Q

How is the abdominopelvic cavity divided? What does each cavity contain?

A

subdivided into the abdominal & pelvic cavities; the abdominal contains stomach, intestines, spleen, & livers, etc; the pelvic contains bladder, some reproductive organs, & rectum

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44
Q

Explain the Cranial Cavity

A

formed by the skull; contains the brain

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45
Q

Explain the Spinal Cavity

A

formed by vertebrae; contains the spinal cord

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46
Q

Locate the Right Hypochondriac

A

top right section of the abdominal region

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47
Q

Locate the Left Hypochondriac

A

the top left section of the abdominal region

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48
Q

Locate the Epigastric Region

A

top middle section of the abdominal region

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49
Q

Locate the Right Lumbar

A

below the Right Hypochondriac

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50
Q

Locate the Left Lumbar

A

below the Left Hypochondriac

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51
Q

Locate the Umbilical

A

the mid section between the Right/Left Lumbar

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52
Q

Locate the Right Iliac

A

bottom right section of the pelvic region

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53
Q

Locate the Left Iliac

A

the bottom left section of the pelvic region

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54
Q

Locate the Hypogastic

A

the bottom section of the mid pelvic region

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55
Q

Homeostasis

A

the state of dynamic equilibrium of the internal environment of the body

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56
Q

The body operates within a narrow range of __; the range of normal is called the __

A

temperature, fluids, & chemicals; set point

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57
Q

Receptor

A

detects change

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58
Q

Control Center

A

area of the body that receives & processes info from the receptor

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59
Q

Effector

A

sends signals that either oppose or enhance the stimulus

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60
Q

Negative Feedback

A

when the effector opposes the stimulus & reverses the direction of change Ex: being cold

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61
Q

Positive Feedback

A

when the effector reinforces the stimulus & amplifies the direction of change Ex: child birth

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62
Q

Cephalic

A

head

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63
Q

Frontal

A

forehead

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64
Q

Orbital

A

eyes

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65
Q

Nasal

A

nose

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66
Q

Buccal

A

cheeks

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67
Q

Oral

A

mouth

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68
Q

Cervical

A

neck

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69
Q

Atoms link together to form __

A

molecules

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70
Q

Molecules are organized into various structures including __

A

organelles

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71
Q

Organelles are the __

A

the metabolic units within a cell that perform a specific function necessary to the life of the cell

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72
Q

Examples of Organelles

A

Mitochondria — the powerhouses that furnish the cells’ energy — & the cell’s nucleus

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73
Q

Organelles are contained within __

A

cells

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74
Q

Cells are the __ living units that make up the body’s structure

A

smallest

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75
Q

Cells group together to form __

A

tissues

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76
Q

Tissues come together to form __

A

organs

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77
Q

Organs are structures of __ or more tissue types working together to carry out a particular function; examples of organs

A

two; heart, stomach, & kidney

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78
Q

Organs form __

A

organ systems

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79
Q

Organ Systems all together form __

A

a human organism

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80
Q

Epithelial Tissue

A

covers or lines body surfaces; ex: outer layer of the skin, walls of capillaries, & kidney tubules

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81
Q

Connective Tissue

A

connects & supports parts of the body; some transports & stores materials; ex: bone, cartilage, & adipose tissues

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82
Q

Muscle

A

contracts to produce movement; ex: skeletal muscles & the heart

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83
Q

Nerve Tissue

A

generates & transmits impulses to regulate body function; ex: brain & nerves

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84
Q

Which organ system works in isolation?

A

None; the systems work together, orchestrating their actions to keep the body functioning

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85
Q

All terms are based on the body being in __ position

A

anatomical

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86
Q

In Homeostasis, how does the Nervous System contribute to helping the body generate heat?

A

the hypothalamus in the brain contains the body’s thermostat

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87
Q

In Homeostasis, how does the Cardiovascular System contribute to helping the body generate heat?

A

blood vessels constrict to conserve heat

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88
Q

In Homeostasis, how does the Muscular System contribute to helping the body generate heat?

A

the muscles contract to cause shivering

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89
Q

In Homeostasis, how does the Integumentary System contribute to helping the body generate heat?

A

sweat production stops & “goose bumps” form, which creates an insulating layer

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90
Q

In Homeostasis, how does the Endocrine System contribute to helping the body generate heat?

A

thyroid hormone production increases metabolism, which raises body temperature

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91
Q

In Homeostasis, how does the Digestive System contribute to helping the body generate heat?

A

the metabolism of food & stored fat generates heat

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92
Q

The body’s internal temperature should remain between __

A

97 - 99

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93
Q

Most systems supporting homeostasis operate by __

A

negative feedback

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94
Q

Pathophysiology

A

functional changes resulting from disease

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95
Q

The term patellar is used to identify the __

A

knee

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96
Q

The study of the structure of the body

A

anatomy

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97
Q

Specialized groups of cells with similar structure & function are __

A

tissues

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98
Q

The term use to describe something toward the body’s midline is __

A

medial

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99
Q

Which organ system functions to destroy pathogens that enter the body?

A

immune system

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100
Q

What is the name of the major body cavity encompassing the front portion of the body?

A

ventral

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101
Q

What is the term used to describe the abdominal region just under the breastbone?

A

hypochondriac

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102
Q

What type of tissue covers or lines body surfaces?

A

epithelial

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103
Q

Cells are the __ units of all living matter

A

simplest

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104
Q

cells vary in __ & __, & all cells are __

A

size; shape; microscopic

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105
Q

True or False: a cell’s function dictates its form

A

true

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106
Q

Types of cells (5)

A

nerve, muscle, red blood cells, gland, & immune

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107
Q

Nerve Cells

A

long extensions allow these cells to quickly transmit electrical impulses from one part of the body to another

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108
Q

Muscle Cells

A

Elongated, thread-like fibers can shorten to allow body parts to move

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109
Q

Red Blood Cells

A

Concave shape allows these cells to bend & squeeze through tiny blood vessels

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110
Q

Gland Cells

A

Intracellular sacs store & release substances, such as hormones, enzymes, mucus, & sweat

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111
Q

Immune Cells

A

can recognize & destroy foreign invaders such as viruses, fungi, & bacteria either directly, or manufacturing antibodies

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112
Q

Plasma Membrane

A

surrounding the cell; contains phospholipids, cholesterol, & protein; selective permeability

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113
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

Delivery man; receives proteins from the ER, prepares & packages those proteins to export to other parts of the body

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114
Q

Centrioles

A

microtubules responsible for cell division

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115
Q

Mitochondrion

A

powerhouse of the cell that have cristae folds that contain enzymes that the organelle uses to convert organic compounds into ATP, which cells use for energy

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116
Q

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

has no ribosomes; contains enzymes that synthesize certain lipids & carbohydrates

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117
Q

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

a network of membranous canals & curving sacs, with ribosomes that dot the surface; the ribosomes synthesize proteins, which move through the network of canals toward the GA

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118
Q

Ribosomes

A

serve to synthesize protein

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119
Q

Lysosomes

A

cellular garbage disposal, cleans out the cell through enzymes to break down protein the cell doesn’t need

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120
Q

Cytoplasm

A

gel-like substance that fills the space between the plasma membrane & the nucleus containing organelles

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121
Q

Nucleus

A

the cell’s control center because it contains all of a cell’s genetic information

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122
Q

Nuclear Envelope

A

a double layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus

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123
Q

Nucleolus

A

in the center of the nucleus, manufactures components of ribosomes

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124
Q

Microvilli

A

folds of the cell that do not move & greatly increase the surface area of the cell

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125
Q

Cilia

A

hair-like processes along the surface of a cell that move

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126
Q

Flagella/Flagellum

A

hair-like projections with a whip-like tail that helps move a cell

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127
Q

Active Transport

A

requires energy in the form of ATP

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128
Q

Endocytosis

A

form of vesicular transport that brings substances into the cell

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129
Q

Exocytosis

A

form of vesicular transport that releases substances outside the cell

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130
Q

Phagocytosis

A

process in which large particles are trapped in the plasma membrane & brought into the cell

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131
Q

Pinocytosis

A

process in which fluid & dissolved particles are trapped in the plasma membrane & brought into the cell

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132
Q

Cells can be categorized as belonging to one of four distinct groups of tissue

A

epithelial, connective, nervous, & muscular

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133
Q

Epithelial Tissue

A

continuous sheet of tightly packed cells that provide protection, absorption, filtration, & secretion; its bottom surface adheres to underlying connective tissue by means of a basement membrane

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134
Q

Cells shapes of epithelial tissue

A

squamous, cuboidal, columnar

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135
Q

Squamous Cells

A

flat, plate-like, scaly

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136
Q

Cuboidal Cells

A

cube shaped

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137
Q

Columnar Cells

A

tall & cylindrical

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138
Q

Simple Epithilia

A

cells touches the basement membrane

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139
Q

Stratified Epithelia

A

stack on top of each other & upper layers do not touch the basement membrane

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140
Q

Exocrine Glands

A

secrete their products into the ducts; ducts empty onto a body surface or inside a body cavity

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141
Q

Endocrine Glands

A

ductless glands; secrete their products called hormones directly into the blood

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142
Q

Goblet Cells

A

modified cells containing secretory vesicles that produce large quantities of mucus

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143
Q

Connective Tissue

A

the most widespread & the most varied tissue

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144
Q

Dense Fibrous

A

Ligaments

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145
Q

Cartilage

A

vertebral discs

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146
Q

Areolar

A

loose connective tissue that lies under the epithelia; consists of collagen & elastin fibers; surrounds blood vessels, nerves, esophagus, & trachea

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147
Q

Adipose

A

fat; forms protective pads around structures; acts as a storage depot for excess food; helps insulate the body

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148
Q

Cartilage

A

composed of chondrocytes, has a rubber, flexible matrix; contains no blood vessels; heals very slowly or not at all

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149
Q

Hyaline Cartilage

A

most common of cartilage; found at the ends of movable joints

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150
Q

Elastic Cartilage

A

flexible support to the external ear & the epiglottis

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151
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

strongest of cartilage; forms discs between the vertebrae & in the knee because it resists compression & absorbs shock

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152
Q

Osseous Tissue

A

composed of osteocytes; embedded in a metrics of collagen fibers & mineral salt crystals responsible for the hardness of bone

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153
Q

Some bones contain __, which produces new blood cells

A

red bone marrow

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154
Q

True or False: Bone does not have a rich blood supply

A

false; bones do have a rich blood supply allowing for the bones to heal quickly after a fracture

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155
Q

Blood Tissue

A

exists as a fluid; surrounded by a liquid matrix known as plasma; doesn’t contain any fibers; transports cells & dissolved substances from one part of the body to another

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156
Q

Nervous Tissue

A

found in the brain; spinal cord; & nerves; consists of neurons & neuroglia

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157
Q

Neurons

A

conduct nervous impulses

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158
Q

Neuroglia

A

assist & protect neurons

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159
Q

Soma

A

contains the nucleus of the nerve cell as well as the organelles

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160
Q

Dendrites

A

receive impulses from other cells which they transmit to the soma

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161
Q

Axon

A

transmits signals to other cells

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162
Q

Skeletal Muscle Tissue

A

striated & voluntary muscle

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163
Q

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

A

striated & involuntary muscle

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164
Q

Smooth Muscle Tissue

A

non-striated & involuntary muscle

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165
Q

Membranes

A

thin sheets of tissue; mucous, cutaneous, & serous

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166
Q

Mucous

A

line body surfaces that open directly to the body’s exterior; secrete mucus that coats & protects the cells of the membrane, acting as a lubricant

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167
Q

Cutaneous

A

known as the skin, body’s largest membrane

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168
Q

Serous

A

composed of simple squamous epithelium resting on a thin layer of areolar connective tissue, lines some of the closed body cavities & many organs within those cavities; parietal & visceral; secrete serous fluid to help prevent friction as the organs move

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169
Q

Parietal Membrane

A

part of the membrane lines the wall of the cavity

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170
Q

Visceral Membrane

A

the part of the membrane that covers the organs

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171
Q

Pleura

A

surrounds each lung

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172
Q

Pericardium

A

surrounds the heart

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173
Q

Peritoneum

A

covers the abdominal organs

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174
Q

Integumentary System

A

self-regenerating tissue also separates the internal from the external environment, protects the body from invasion by harmful substance, & helps maintain homeostasis

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175
Q

Cutaneous Membrane consists of

A

the epidermis & the dermis

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176
Q

Epidermis

A

outermost layer; contains no blood vessels; obtains oxygen & nutrients by diffusion from the dermal layer beneath it

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177
Q

Dermis

A

inner, deeper layer; composed of connective tissue; contains primarily collagen fibers & elastin fibers; abundance of blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, & nerve endings

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178
Q

Hypodermis

A

layer of subcutaneous tissue; made of areolar & adipose tissue; helps insulate the body & acts as an energy reservoir

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179
Q

During the course of life, the cells of the out layer of the epidermis are __

A

sloughed off, continually renewing itself

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180
Q

True or False: New cells are created in the lowest level of the epidermis

A

true

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181
Q

cells in the lowest layer of the epidermis continually undergo __

A

mitosis – producing new cells

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182
Q

Keratin

A

a tough, fibrous protein that replaces cytoplasm & nucleus in each cell

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183
Q

Melanocytes

A

scattered throughout the basal layer; produce melanin

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184
Q

Two types of melanin

A

pheomelanin (reddish) & eumelanin (brown-black)

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185
Q

True or False: a person’s skin color is determined by the amount & type of melanin – not the number of melanocytes

A

true

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186
Q

What happens when UV radiation reaches the nucleus of the cell?

A

damages the cell’s DNA & can lead to cancer

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187
Q

Cyanosis

A

blue tint; deficiency of oxygen in circulating blood

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188
Q

Jaundice

A

yellow discoloration of the skin & whites of the eyes; impaired liver function that allows bile to accumulate, which stains the skin

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189
Q

Bronzing

A

a golden brown skin color; deficiency of hormones from the adrenal gland, such as occurs with Addison disease

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190
Q

Albinism

A

extremely pale skin, white hair, & pink eyes; a genetic lack of melanin

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191
Q

Erythema

A

abnormal redness; increased blood flow in dilated blood vessels close to the skin’s surface; may result from heat, exercise, sunburn, or emotions such as embarrassment or anger

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192
Q

Pallor

A

pale skin; decreased blood flow, such as occurs from cold temperatures, fear or emotional stress, low blood pressure, or blood loss

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193
Q

Hematoma

A

bruise; bluish, black, or yellowish mark on the skin; breakdown of clotted blood under the skin

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194
Q

The skin performs what variety of functions that are crucial to human survival?

A

protection; barrier; vitamin D production; sensory perception; thermoregulation

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195
Q

Although skin acts as a barrier it can still __

A

absorb many chemicals making the skin a possible route for medication administration or may absorb toxic chemicals as well such as metals, nail polish removers, pesticides, etc that can cause cancer or damage to organs

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196
Q

Axillary

A

armpit

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197
Q

Brachial

A

arm

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198
Q

Antecubital

A

front of elbow

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199
Q

Sternal

A

sternum

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200
Q

Pectoral

A

chest

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201
Q

Mammary

A

breast

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202
Q

Abdominal

A

abdomen

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203
Q

Hair occurs everywhere except

A

lips, nipples, palms/soles, & some parts of the genitals

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204
Q

True or False: hair follicles do not have a rich nerve & blood supply

A

false; hair follicles do have a rich nerve & blood supply

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205
Q

Arrector Pili Muscle

A

a small bundle of smooth muscle attached to each hair follicle; contracts when cold or scared, causing hair to stand up right, or goosebumps

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206
Q

Alopecia

A

excessive hair loss due to age, disease, poor nutrition, chemotherapy, or emotional distress

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207
Q

Male Pattern Baldness

A

occurs only in individuals who have inherited a specific gene & have high levels of testosterone

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208
Q

Long-term oxygen deficiency, usually as a result of lung disease. Causes the distal ends of the finger to enlarge, the nail bed softens, & causes the nail to angle downward

A

clubbing

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209
Q

Often is the first sing of oxygen deficiency

A

cyanosis

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210
Q

Flattened or concave nail beds

A

may indicate an iron deficiency

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211
Q

Dark lines beneath the nail

A

may indicate melanoma in lighter-skinned individuals, although such lines may be normal in individuals with dark skin

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212
Q

White nails

A

may occur in liver diseases such as hepatitis

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213
Q

Yellowish, thickened, slow-growing nails

A

often occur in individuals with lung diseases such as emphysema

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214
Q

Pale nail beds

A

may be a sign of anemia

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215
Q

Eccrine Glands

A

contains a duct that leads from a secretory portion through the debris & epidermis, & onto the skin’s surface producing sweat

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216
Q

Sweat contains

A

potassium, ammonia, lactic acid, uric acid, & other wastes

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217
Q

Apocrine Glands

A

contain a duct that leads to a hair follicle; located mainly in the axillary & anogenital regions; begin to function at puberty

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218
Q

Sebaceous Glands

A

secrete an oily substance called sebum; helps keep the skin & hair from drying out & becoming brittle; mild antibacterial & antifungal effect

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219
Q

When excess sebum accumulates in the gland ducts __

A

pimples & blackheads can form; when exposed to oxygen, the sebum darkens forming a blackhead, which results into a pustule if the area becomes infected by bacteria

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220
Q

Ceruminous Glands

A

exist in the external ear canal, secrete a waxy substance called cerumen

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221
Q

Cerumen

A

ear wax; helps keep the ear canal from drying out; however, excess cerumen can accumulate & Harden, diminishing hearing

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222
Q

Partial-Thickness Burn: Superficial

A

first-degree burn; only on the epidermis; causes redness, slight swelling, & pain

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223
Q

Partial-Thickness Burn: Deep

A

second-degree burn; involves the epidermis as well as part of the dermis; results in blisters, sever pain, & swelling; may result in scaring; appear red, white or tan

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224
Q

Full-Thickness Burn

A

third-degree burn; extends through the epidermis & dermis into the subQ layers; may not initially be painful due to destruction of nerve endings; appear white or black & leathery; often requires skin grafts

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225
Q

Rule of Nines

A

estimating the percentage of body surface area (BSA) affected; divides the body in areas of 9%

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226
Q

Most common type of skin cancer that seldom metastasizes making it the least dangerous; typically on the nose or face appearing as a small, shiny bump; as it enlarges, developed a central depression & a beaded, “pearly” edge

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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227
Q

Cancer that arises in the epidermis & slow growing; often occurs on the scalp, forehead, backs of the hands, & top of the ears; raised, red, scaly appearance; some forms may metastasize

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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228
Q

Most deadly of all skin cancers; develops from melanocytes; metastasizes quickly

A

Malignant Melanoma

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229
Q

Inflammation of the sebaceous glands

A

acne

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230
Q

Inflammation of the skin characterized by itching & redness

A

dermatitis

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231
Q

Itchy, red rash caused by an allergy; lesions initially weep or ooze serum & may become crusted, thickened or scaly

A

Eczema

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232
Q

Contagious bacterial infection of the skin producing yellow to red weeping, crusted, or pustular lesions around the nose, mouth, cheeks or extremities

A

Impetigo

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233
Q

A recurring skin disorder characterized by red papule & scaly silvery plaques with sharply defined borders

A

psoriasis

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234
Q

Any fungal infection of the skin usually occurring in moist areas such as the groin, axilla, & foot

A

tinea

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235
Q

Allergic reaction resulting in multiple red patches (wheals) that are intensely itchy

A

Urticaria

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236
Q

How many bones are in the human body?

A

206

237
Q

Bone consistently __ & _ itself

A

breaks down; rebuilds

238
Q

Bone is filled with

A

blood vessels, nerves, & living cells

239
Q

True or False: bone is as strong as steel & as light as aluminum

A

true

240
Q

Long bones

A

very long axis & are longer than they are wide; ex: femur

241
Q

Frontal bone

A

thin, flat, often curved bones that protect organs

242
Q

Vertebra

A

clustered in groups, come in various sizes & shapes

243
Q

Short bones

A

as broad as they are long, shaped like cubes

244
Q

The tiniest bone is found in the

A

ear

245
Q

Epiphysis

A

the head of each end of a long bone

246
Q

Articular Cartilage

A

a thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the surface of the epiphysis; eases the movement of the bone within the join along with lubricating fluid between bones

247
Q

Medullary Cavity

A

the central hollow portion of a bone that contains the bone marrow; most of the marrow has turned to yellow marrow for adults which is rich in fat

248
Q

Endosteum

A

a thin epithelial membrane lining the inside of the medullary cavity

249
Q

Periosteum

A

a dense fibrous membrane that covers the diaphysis

250
Q

Diaphysis

A

central shaft-like portion of the bone that is thick, compact, & makes up the hollow cylinder, giving the bone the strength it needs to support a large amount of weight

251
Q

Once growth stops, the epiphyseal plate is replaced by an __

A

epiphyseal line

252
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

growth plate; separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis at each end of a long bone

253
Q

Inflammation of bone & marrow, usually the result of a bacterial infection

A

osteomyelitis

254
Q

Osseous Tissue

A

bone; a type of connective tissue

255
Q

Bone cells include

A

osteoblasts, osteoclasts, & osteocytes

256
Q

Osteoblasts

A

help form bone by secreting substances that comprise the bone’s matrix

257
Q

Osteoclasts

A

dissolve unwanted or unhealthy bone

258
Q

Osteocytes

A

are mature osteoblasts that have become entrapped in the hardened bone matrix; some dissolve bone, whereas other deposit new bone

259
Q

What factors affect bone growth & maintenance?

A

hereditary, nutrition, hormones, exercise

260
Q

Spongy Bone

A

light & porous, spongy or cancellous found in the ends of long bone & in the middle of most other bones; always surrounded by more durable compact bone

261
Q

Compact Bone

A

dense & solid, offers strength which is why it forms the shafts of long bones & the outer surfaces of other bones

262
Q

Bone Marrow

A

type of soft tissue that fills the medullary cavity of long bones as well as the spaces of spongy bone; red & yellow

263
Q

In adults, red bone marrow can be found only in the __

A

ribs, sternum, vertebrae, skull, pelvis, & upper parts of both the humerus & femur; the rest contain yellow marrow

264
Q

Endochondral Ossification

A

cartilage begins turning into bone

265
Q

Bone lengthening __; bone widening & thickening __

A

stops at a certain point; continue throughout the lifespan

266
Q

Osteoporosis

A

porous bones; a condition which bones lose so much mass that they become extremely brittle; the most common bone disease

267
Q

A break in a bone is called a __

A

fracture

268
Q

True or False: broken bones can be manipulated into their original position without surgery?

A

true; its called closed reduction

269
Q

Open Reduction

A

surgery is needed to reposition the bones, after which screws, pints, or plates may be used to stabilize the bones

270
Q

Simple Fracture

A

the bone remains aligned & the surrounding tissue is intact

271
Q

Compound Fracture

A

the bone pierces the skin

272
Q

Greenstick Fracture

A

incomplete, similar to when a green stick breaks

273
Q

Comminuted Fracture

A

the bone breaks into pieces

274
Q

Spiral Fracture

A

fracture line spirals around the bone, result of twisting force

275
Q

Antebrachial

A

forearm

276
Q

Carpal

A

wrist

277
Q

Palmar

A

palm

278
Q

Digital

A

fingers

279
Q

Femoral

A

thigh

280
Q

Patellar

A

knee

281
Q

Tarsal

A

ankle

282
Q

Pedal

A

foot

283
Q

Inguinal

A

groin

284
Q

How many bones do newborn babies have before eventually fusing together?

A

300 or more

285
Q

Out of 206, about how many bones comprise the upright, central supporting axis of the body? & how many make up the other remaining bones that make up?

A

80 which include the skull, rib cage, & vertebral column; 126 including the limbs, pelvic, & shoulder area

286
Q

Differentiate the axial & appendicular skeletons

A

the axial skeleton relates to the body’s axis, a straight line around which a body revolves; the appendicular skeleton relates to the appendages of the body

287
Q

How many bones does each foot contain?

A

26

288
Q

Parietal Bones

A

join together at the top of the head to for the top & sides of the cranial cavity

289
Q

Occipital Bone

A

forms the rear of the skull

290
Q

Temporal Bones

A

form the sides of the cranium & part of the cranial floor

291
Q

What structures does the temporal bones contain?

A

the external auditory meatus (opening of the ear); mastoid process (lump behind the ear); zygomatic arch (cheek bones)

292
Q

Frontal Bone

A

forms the forehead & the roof of the eye sockets (orbits)

293
Q

Sella Turcica

A

found at the top of the sphenoid, houses the pituitary gland

294
Q

Cribriform Plate

A

forms part of the roof of the nasal cavity

295
Q

The skull contains a number of holes called __ that allow for passage of nerves & blood

A

foramina

296
Q

A large opening in the base of the skull is the __, & allows the spinal cord to pass through as it connects to the brainstem

A

foramen magnum

297
Q

When the brain is injured, it __; however, the skull can’t expand to accommodate the swelling, the pressure inside the cranium __ as the brain pushes against the sides of the skull. If swelling becomes sever, the pressure will force the __ __, through the foramen magnum, resulting in __ & usually __

A

swells; increases; brainstem down; respiratory arrest & death

298
Q

Maxillae

A

form the upper jaw; foundation of the face

299
Q

Zygomatic Bones

A

shape the cheeks & form the outer edge of the orbit

300
Q

Mandible

A

largest & strongest bone of the face; articulates with the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) making it the only facial bone that can move

301
Q

Hyoid Bone

A

u-shaped that sits between the chine & the larynx; only bone that doesn’t articulate with any other bone; serves as an attachment point for muscles that control the tongue, mandible, & larynx

302
Q

Upon autopsy, pathologists look for a fractured hyoid bone as a sign of __

A

strangulation

303
Q

Four pairs of sinuses

A

sphenoid, frontal, ethmoid, & maxillary

304
Q

Sinuses are fill with __, they lighten the skull & act as resonators for __

A

air; sound production

305
Q

An infants skull contains __

A

fontanels

306
Q

Fontanels

A

areas between the unfused bones, covered by fibrous membranes; soft to the touch & over time shrink & usually completely close by age 2yr

307
Q

Suture lines in a newborn that are abnormally wide suggest __

A

hydrocephalus; a condition in which excessive amounts of cerebrospinal fluid accumulate in the brain causing the cranium to expand

308
Q

A bulging anterior fontanel in a newborn signals __

A

increased intracranial pressure, such as may occur following a head injury or infection

309
Q

A sunken fontanel in a newborn suggests __

A

dehydration

310
Q

An infant’s skull attains half its adult size by age __ where as its final size is reached by age __

A

9m; 9yr

311
Q

How many vertebrae does the cervical vertebrae contain?

A

7

312
Q

How many vertebrae does the thoracic vertebrae contain?

A

12

313
Q

How many vertebrae does the lumbar vertebrae contain?

A

5

314
Q

How many vertebrae does the sacrum contain?

A

5 fused

315
Q

How many vertebrae does the coccyx contain?

A

4 fused

316
Q

A lateral curvature of the spine, most often in the thoracic region

A

scoliosis

317
Q

Also known as “hunchback”, an exaggerated thoracic curvature resulted from poor posture & common in individuals with osteoporosis

A

kyphosis

318
Q

Also known as a “swayback”, is an exaggerated lumbar curvature resulted from the possibility of poor posture, osteoporosis, or abdominal weight gain

A

lordosis

319
Q

Vertebral Foramen

A

an opening that allows for passage of the spinal cord

320
Q

The bumps you feel when you run your hand along the spine

A

spinous process

321
Q

Extend from each side of the vertebra, & serves an attachment point with the spinous process for muscles & ligaments

A

transverse processes

322
Q

In between each vertebra is a layer of cartilage called __

A

intervertebral disc

323
Q

Intense pressure on the intervertebral discs can cause the annulus of the disc to crack, the nucleus pulpous can then ooze out from the center of the disc & press on the spinal cord or spinal nerve causing pain

A

herniated disc

324
Q

To repair a herniated disc, a procedure where both laminae & the spinal processes are removed

A

laminectomy

325
Q

The most unique of all the vertebrae are the first two cervical vertebrae, known as the __

A

C1 Atlas & C2 Axis

326
Q

C1 Atlas moves the head __ such as when saying __

A

back & forth; yes

327
Q

C2 Axis has a projection called the __, that projects the atlas & allows the head to __ such as saying __

A

dens; side to side; no

328
Q

True or False: a hard blow to the top of the head can drive the dens through the foramen magnum & into the brainstem, resulting in sudden death

A

true

329
Q

Three regions of the sternum

A

manubrium, body, xiphoid process

330
Q

Manubrium

A

the broadest portion of the sternum

331
Q

Body of the sternum

A

the longest portion, joins the manubrium at the sternal angle, also the location of the second rib

332
Q

Xiphoid Process

A

important landmark for CPR, provides an attachment point for some abdominal muscles

333
Q

Clavicle

A

collarbone; helps support the shoulder

334
Q

Scapula

A

shoulder blade; lies over ribs 2-7

335
Q

True Ribs

A

1-7, attach to the sternum by a strip of hyaline cartilage called costal cartilage

336
Q

False Ribs

A

8-12; 8-10 attach to the cartilage of 7

337
Q

Besides protecting the thoracic organs, the ribs also protect the __

A

spleen, liver, & portion of the kidneys

338
Q

Humerus

A

the long bone of the upper arm

339
Q

Ulna

A

other long bone of the lower arm, longer than the radius, same side as the pinkie

340
Q

Radius

A

long bone in the lower arm, same side as the thumb

341
Q

Phalanges

A

bones that form the fingers

342
Q

Metacarpal Bones

A

5 bones that form the palm of the hand

343
Q

Carpal Bones

A

8 bones arranged in 2 rows of 4, form the wrist

344
Q

Ilium (pelvic bone)

A

a large, flaring section you can feel under the skin

345
Q

Ischium (pelvic bone)

A

the lower posterior portion

346
Q

Pubis (pelvic bone)

A

most anterior portion that joins with the other pubis at the symphysis pubis

347
Q

Symphysis Pubis (pelvic bone)

A

a disc of cartilage that separates the two pubic bones

348
Q

Os Coxae/Coxal Bone

A

each of the two large bones of the hip

349
Q

Longest & strongest bone in the body

A

femur

350
Q

Triangular sesamoid bone embedded in the tendon of the knee

A

patella

351
Q

Long & slender bone residing alongside the tibia & helps stabilize the ankle

A

fibula

352
Q

Of the two bones the lower leg, this bone is the only one that bears weight

A

tibia

353
Q

The bones that form the middle portion of the foot

A

metatarsals

354
Q

The bones that comprise the ankle

A

tarsal bones

355
Q

The largest tarsal bone that forms the heel, & bears much of the body’s weight

A

calcaneus

356
Q

Synarthrosis

A

Fibrous joints result when collagen fibers from one bone penetrate the adjacent bone, anchoring the bones in place

357
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

Cartilaginous joints, two bones joined by cartilage; slightly movable

358
Q

The branch of science that studies joint structure, function, & dysfunction

A

Arthrology

359
Q

Diarthroses

A

Synovial joints are freely movable; the most numerous & versatileof all the body’s joints

360
Q

A slippery, viscous fluid that has the consistency of an egg white, lubricating the joint, nourishes the cartilage, & contains phagocytes to remove debris

A

Synovial fluid

361
Q

Articular Cartilage

A

Thin layer of hyaline cartilage covers the bone surfaces; with synovial fluid, it permits friction-free movement

362
Q

Tough cords of connective tissue help bind the bones more firmly together

A

Ligaments

363
Q

The knee, shoulder, & elbow contain small sacs filled with synovial fluid called

A

Bursa

364
Q

True or False: all synovial joints are configured the same

A

False; not all synovial joints are configured the same

365
Q

Ball & Socket Joint

A

Widest range of motion, most unstable, found in the shoulder & hip

366
Q

Pivot Joint

A

Allowing the bones to rotate, or pivot; the head of the radius rotates within a groove of the ulna

367
Q

Hinge Joint

A

Allow only back & forth movements (flexation & extension), forming a hinge joint, the convex surface of one bone (ex: humerus) fits into a concave depression on another bone (ex: ulna)

368
Q

Saddle Joint

A

To move back & forth, from side to side; found only in the thumbs

369
Q

Condyloid Joint

A

Articulation of the distal end of the radius with the carpal bones of the wrist & joints at the base of the fingers; allows flexion & extension, & side to side movement

370
Q

Gliding Joint

A

Slide over each other; tarsal bones of the ankle, the carpal bones of the wrist, & the articulat processes of the vertebrae

371
Q

Flexion

A

Bending a joint so as to decrease the angle

372
Q

Extension

A

Straightening a joint, increasing the angle

373
Q

Hyperextension

A

Extreme extension of a joint beyond its normall straight position

374
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Involved moving the toes or foot upward

375
Q

Plantar flexion

A

Moving the toes or foot downward

376
Q

Abduction

A

Movement away from the body

377
Q

Adduction

A

Movement towards the body

378
Q

Circumduction

A

Distal end of an appendage moving in a circle

379
Q

Internal rotation

A

Spinning a bone toward the body

380
Q

External rotation

A

Spinning a bone away from the body

381
Q

Supination

A

Turns the palm upward

382
Q

Pronation

A

Turns the palm downward

383
Q

Inversion

A

Foot movement that turns the sole medially toward the other foot

384
Q

Eversion

A

Foot movement that turns the sole laterally away from the other foot

385
Q

Protraction

A

Moves a part forward

386
Q

Retraction

A

Moves a part backward

387
Q

How many muscles does the body contain?

A

Over 600

388
Q

Only found in the heart; intercalated discs; striated; involuntary

A

Cardiac muscle

389
Q

Found in the digestive tract, blood vessels, bladder, airways, & uterus; non striated; involuntary

A

Smooth muscle

390
Q

Attached to bone causing movement of the body; voluntary; striated

A

Skeletal muscle

391
Q

A skeletal muscle cell

A

Muscle fiber

392
Q

Direct attachment

A

Muscle fibers merge with the periosteum of the bone, forming a strong attachment

393
Q

Indirect attachment

A

The epimysium extends past the muscle as a tendon

394
Q

True or False: muscle contraction does not require energy in the form of ATP

A

False; it does require ATP

395
Q

Besides ATP, muscle contraction also requires __ because __

A

Calcium; without it, tropmyosin & troponin block the sites where the myosin heads would attach

396
Q

Motor unit

A

The neuron & all the fibers it stimulates

397
Q

Threshold

A

The minimum voltage needed to cause a muscle fiber to contract

398
Q

Twitch

A

Single, brief contraction

399
Q

Treppe, Staircase Phenomenon

A

Each successive twitch contracts more forcefully than the previous one

400
Q

Condition of rapid contraction with only partial relaxation

A

Incomplete tetanus

401
Q

Most skeletal muscles remain in a state of __

A

Incomplete tetanus

402
Q

The impulses arrive so fast that the muscle cannot relax at all between stimuli, the twitches merge into one prolonged contraction

A

Complete tetanus

403
Q

The tension within a muscle increases while its length remains the same

A

Isometric contractions

404
Q

The muscle changes length & moves a load, while the tension within the muscle remains the same

A

Isotonic contractions

405
Q

Origin of the muscle

A

Attaches to the more stationary bone

406
Q

Belly of the muscle

A

The thick midsection

407
Q

Insertion of the muscle

A

End of the muscle that attaches to the more movable bone

408
Q

Main muscle triggering the movement

A

Prime mover

409
Q

Muscles that assist the prime mover

A

Synergists

410
Q

Muscles balancing these movements

A

Antagonist

411
Q

Antagonists __ the action of the prime mover

A

Oppose

412
Q

Enlargement of a muscle

A

Hypertrophy

413
Q

Shrinkening of a muscle

A

Atrophy

414
Q

Buccinator

A

assists in smiling & blowing as well as chewing

415
Q

Masseter

A

closes the jaw

416
Q

Sternocleidomastoid

A

flexes the head; rotates the head to the opposite side when only one muscle contracts

417
Q

Trapezius

A

extends the head & flexes the head to one side; also elevates the shoulder, raises & lowers the shoulders; stabilizes the scapula during arm movements

418
Q

Deltoid

A

abducts, flexes, & rotates the arm

419
Q

The difference between the central nervous system & the peripheral nervous system:

A

the central nervous system consists of the brain & spinal cord; the peripheral nervous system consists of the vast network of nerves throughout the body

420
Q

Sensory (afferent) Division

A

detect stimuli such as touch, pressure, heat, cold or chemicals & carries those signals from nerve endings to CNS

421
Q

Motor (efferent) Division

A

relays messages from the brain to the muscle or gland cells from CNS to the rest of the body

422
Q

Somatic Sensory

A

carries singles from skin, bones, joints, & muscles

423
Q

Visceral Sensory

A

carries signals from viscera of heart, lungs, stomach, & bladder

424
Q

Somatic Motor

A

allows voluntary movements of skeletal muscles

425
Q

Autonomic Motor

A

provides “automatic” activities such as control of blood pressure & heart

426
Q

Sympathetic Division

A

arouses the body for action

427
Q

Parasympathetic Division

A

has a calming effect

428
Q

Difference between neurons & neuroglia:

A

neurons are the excitable, impulse-conducting cells that perform the work of the nervous system; neuroglia protect the neurons

429
Q

Supportive cells of the nervous system

A

glial cells (neuroglia)

430
Q

Interneurons

A

found only in the CNS, connect the incoming sensory pathways with the outgoing motor pathways

431
Q

The control center of the neuron & contains the nucleus

A

cell body (soma)

432
Q

look like bare branches of a tree, receive signals from other neurons & conduct the information of the cell body

A

dendrites

433
Q

carries nerve signals away from the cell body, is longer than the dendrites & contain a few branches

A

axon

434
Q

The axons of many but not all neurons are encased in a __, consisting mostly of lipid, myelin acts to insulate the axon

A

myelin sheath

435
Q

gaps in the myelin sheath, occur at evenly spaced intervals

A

nodes of Ranvier

436
Q

The end of the axon branches extensively, with each axon terminal ending in a __

A

synaptic knob

437
Q

True or False: the sciatic nerve consists of the shorted axon in the body

A

false; it consists of the longest axon in the body, extending from the base of the spine to the big toe in each foot

438
Q

Infection or inflammation of the meninges is called __; diagnosis & treatment

A

spinal meningitis; a sample of cerebrospinal fluid is obtained through a lumbar puncture, fluid is then examined for bacteria & white blood cells, viral usually resolves on its own in 7-10 days, whereas bacterial requires hospitalization & treatment with intravenous antibiotics

439
Q

A loss of sensory & motor function in all or part of the trunk, legs, & pelvic organs is known as

A

paraplegia; injury between levels of T1 & L1

440
Q

An injury above the C5 vertebra produces a loss of sensory & motor function in the areas as well as the legs, trunk & pelvic organs is known as

A

tetraplegia or quadriplegia

441
Q

An injury above C4 is especially serious because this is where the phrenic nerve exits the spinal cord, an injury here can cause

A

respiratory failure

442
Q

Babinski Sign

A

used to evaluate disorders of the central nervous system, the plantar reflex occurs when the sole of the foot is stroked in a curved line from the heel to the toes with a blunt instrument; healthy adults, the toes curve downward & inward whereas if the primary motor cortex or corticospinal tract is damaged, the stroking maneuver will cause the great toe to dorsiflex as the smaller toes fan outward

443
Q

If the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) becomes blocked anywhere on its route, the fluid accumulates in the brain’s ventricles, which is a condition called __, or more commonly “water on the brain”

A

hydrocephalus

444
Q

Midbrain

A

contains tracts that relay sensory & motor impulses, as well as centers for auditory & visual reflexes, & clusters of neurons integral to muscle control

445
Q

Pons

A

contains tracts that convey signals to & from different parts of the brain

446
Q

Medulla Oblongata

A

attaches the brain to the spinal cord, contains nuclei that perform functions vital to human life

447
Q

The medulla contains nuclei that perform functions vital to human life that include

A

cardiac center, vasomotor center, & respiratory centers

448
Q
  • houses mores neurons than the rest of the brain combined
  • receives & processes messages from all over the brain
  • joins forces with the cerebral cortex to monitor body movements & send message crucial for balance, coordination, & posture
  • stores information necessary for muscle groups to work together to perform smooth, efficient, & coordinated movements
  • evaluates sensory input such as touch, spatial perception, & sound
A

cerebellum

449
Q
  • controls the autonomic nervous system
  • contains verniers responsible for hunger, thirst, & temperature regulation
  • controls the pituitary gland
  • involved in multiple emotional responses, including fear, anger, pleasure, & aggression
A

hypothalamus

450
Q

Parietal Lobe Lesion

A

dysfunction in this part of the brain causes people to ignore objects on the opposite side of the body, even their own arm or leg. Patients may dress only half their body & even deny that the opposite arm or leg belongs to them

451
Q

Temporal Lobe Lesion

A

an injury here can impair the ability to identify familiar objects. Some may not even recognize their own face. In other instances, the person may lose the ability to differentiate between sounds, causing them to lose any appreciation of music

452
Q

Frontal Lobe Lesion

A

a lesion or injury here can result in severe personality disorders & cause socially inappropriate behavior

453
Q

Occipital Lobe Lesion

A

image here can result in blindness or other vision disturbances, including difficulty perceiving color, shape, size, & dimension; hallucinations; & difficulty reading & writing

454
Q

Insula Lesion

A

damage to the insult can trigger difficulties with sensory perception, such as touch, taste, & smell, language difficulties, emotional imbalances, & addiction

455
Q

The brain has __ cranial nerves to relay messages to the rest of the body

A

12

456
Q

Parkinson’s Disease

A

degenerative brain disorder; classified as a movement disorder, resulting when dopamine-producing cells in a. region of the brainstem degenerate

457
Q

Alzheimer’s Disease

A

degenerative brain disorder; brain tissues shrinks as AD advances; symptoms usually include memory loss, especially memory of recent events, deteriorates, & individuals have difficulty performing routine tasks. Later, judgment becomes increasingly impaired & emotional outbursts may occur. In the final stage, people may lose the ability to feed themselves, speak, recognize people, & control body functions

458
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

dysfunction of the facial nerve causes paralysis of the facial muscles on one side, causing the muscles on ones side of the face to sage, eyelid droops, & shows no expression; the cause is often unclear, although infection by a virus is suspected, or possibly Lyme disease, or a middle ear infection; usually resolves in 3-5 weeks

459
Q

Arachnoid Mater

A

delicate meningeal layer lying between dura mater & pia mater

460
Q

Dermatome

A

a specific area of the skin innervated by a spinal nerve

461
Q

Dura Mater

A

tough, outer meningeal layer

462
Q

Epidural Space

A

small space between the outer covering of the spinal cord & the vertebrae

463
Q

Meninges

A

layer of fibrous connective tissue covering the brain & spinal cord

464
Q

Myelin

A

fatty sheath encasing the axons of many neurons; formed by Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system & oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system

465
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

the ability of the brain to change its physical structure

466
Q

Subarachnoid Space

A

separates arachnoid mater from pia mater around the brain

467
Q

Pia Mater

A

innermost meningeal layer covering brain & spinal cord

468
Q

Subdural Space

A

separates dura from arachnoid mater around the brain

469
Q

Synapse

A

space between the junction of two neurons in a neural pathway

470
Q

Sensory receptors transmit information about the __ (3)

A

type, location, & intensity

471
Q

react to various chemicals; odors, taste, & the concentration of various chemicals in the body

A

chemoreceptors

472
Q

receptors that respond to factors that change the position of a receptor, such as pressure, stretch, or vibration

A

mechanoreceptors

473
Q

receptors activated by a change in temperature

A

thermoreceptors

474
Q

pain receptors that respond to tissue damage from trauma, heat, chemicals, pressure, or a lack of oxygen

A

nociceptors

475
Q

receptor found only in the eyes, respond to light

A

photoreceptors

476
Q

When a stimulus is continuous, the firing frequency of the nerve begins to slow, causing the sensation to diminish is known as

A

adaptation

477
Q

True or False: nociceptors don’t occur in the brain, they do occur in the meninges

A

true

478
Q

headaches don’t result from pain in the brain, but from

A

surrounding tissues

479
Q

Pain originating in a deep organ may be sense as if it’s originating from the body’s surface – sometimes at a totally different part of the body called

A

referred pain

480
Q

drugs used to relieve pain are called

A

analgestics

481
Q

The sense of taste is known as

A

gustation

482
Q

Most taste buds are located around protrusions on the tongue called

A

papillae

483
Q

Umami

A

a Japanese slang word for meaty flavors

484
Q

Taste bud cells replace themselves every __, which explains why you recover the ability to taste only a few days after burning your tongue

A

week or two

485
Q

The sense of smell is known as

A

olfaction

486
Q

Olfactory receptors are quickly __; they will stop sensing even the strongest smells after a short time

A

fatigued

487
Q

Ears provide the sense of hearing, they’re also essential for __

A

balance (equilibrium)

488
Q

The visible part of the ear

A

auricle (pinna)

489
Q

leads through the temporal bone to the eardrum

A

auditory canal

490
Q

Auditory Ossicles

A

3 bones in the body connect the eardrum to the inner ear; named for their shape:

  • malleus (hammer)
  • incus (anvil)
  • stapes (stirrup)
491
Q

equalizes pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane

A

eustachian tube

492
Q

Middle Ear Infections

A

otitis media, occur commonly in children. the size & position of the eustachian tube being fairly short & horizontal allowing drainage from the nose to flow easily into the middle ear, spreading infection

493
Q

Hearing occurs when sound creates __ in the air, known as __

A

vibrations; sound waves

494
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

anything that interferes with the transmission of vibration to the inner ear will result in hearing loss; ex: impacted cerumen, fluid in the middle ear, or foreign body blocking transmission

495
Q

Sensorineural (nerve) hearing loss

A

results from the death of hair cells in the organ of Cortisones, usually a result of frequent exposure to sustained loud noise (factory workers & musicians); once the hairs are damaged, they never grow back, making this a permanent issue

496
Q

transparent mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelid & covers the anterior surface of the eyeball; secretes a thin mucous film to help keep the eyeball moist

A

conjunctiva

497
Q

secretes tears that flow onto the surface of the conjunctiva

A

lacrimal gland

498
Q

The __ & __ oblique muscles help you rotate you eyes to the __ & __

A

superior; inferior; side; downward

499
Q

Four recti muscles move the eye __, __, __, & __

A

up; down; medially; & laterally

500
Q

the outermost layer of the eye, white & opaque

A

sclera

501
Q

sits over the iris & admits light into the eye, containing no blood vessels

A

cornea

502
Q

a ring of colored muscle; works to adjust the diameter of the pupil to control the amount of light entering the eye

A

iris

503
Q

a thin layer of light-sensitive cells

A

retina

504
Q

exiting from the posterior portion of the eyeball is the __ which transmits signals to the brain

A

optic nerve

505
Q

Inside the retina are photoreceptors called __ & __ that are stimulated by light rays to produce an electrical or chemical signal

A

rods & cones

506
Q

the space between the lens & the cornea is the __, that is further divided into an __ & a __

A

anterior cavity; anterior chamber & posterior chamber

507
Q

a clear, watery fluid called __ fills the anterior cavity

A

aqueous humor

508
Q

a transparent disc of tissue just behind the pupil

A

lens

509
Q

the larger cavity lying posterior to the lens & anterior cavity, filled with a jelly-like substance called __

A

posterior cavity; vitreous humor

510
Q

For vision to occur, all of the following must happen:

A
  1. light must enter the eye & focus on the retina to produce tiny, upside-down image of the object being viewed
  2. the photoreceptors in the retina must convert that image into nerve impulses
  3. the impulses must be transmitted to the brain for interpretation
511
Q

bending of light rays

A

refraction

512
Q

__ lines up the visual axis of each eye toward the object so that the light rays fall on the corresponding spots on each retina

A

convergence

513
Q

What causes double vision (diplopia)?

A

when the eyes fail to converge, light rays from the object will fall on different parts of each retina

514
Q

term for double vision

A

diplopia

515
Q

color blindness

A

results when one or more of the chemicals sensitive to a particular color’s wavelength are missing

516
Q

what is the common goal of the nervous system & the endocrine system?

A

homeostasis

517
Q

endocrine glands are __ glands because they __

A

ductless; secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream

518
Q

This gland exerts more influence on body processes than any other endocrine gland & sits just underneath the hypothalamus

A

pituitary

519
Q

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone

520
Q

Prolactin

A

stimulates milk production in the mammary glands in females

521
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A

stimulates ovulation & estrogen & progesterone synthesis in females & the secretion of testosterone by the testes in males

522
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

A

stimulates the production of eggs, or ova, in the ovaries of females & sperm in the testes of males

523
Q

Hypersecretion during a child’s growth years will trigger rapid, excessive skeletal growth resulting in a condition called __

A

gigantism

524
Q

If the epiphyseal plates have already fused when the hyper secretion occurs, cartilage will form new bone, causing the hands, feet, face, & jaw to enlarge – a disorder called __

A

acromegaly

525
Q

thyroid tissue is made of tiny sacs called __

A

thyroid follicles

526
Q

each thyroid follicle is filled with a thick fluid called __

A

thyroid colloid

527
Q

the thymus secretes __ & __, two hormones having a role in the development of the immune system

A

thymosin & thymopoietin

528
Q

lies just behind the stomach with its head tucked in the curve of the beginning of the small intestine & its tail reaching to the spleen

A

pancreas

529
Q

exocrine cells are called

A

acini

530
Q

acini secrete __ into ducts that drain into the small intestine

A

digestive enzymes

531
Q

the clear, extracellular matrix of this liquid connective tissue, accounts for 55% of blood

A

plasma

532
Q

WBCs & platelets for a narrow buff-colored band just underneath the plasma called the __; constitute 1% or less of the blood volume

A

Buffy coat

533
Q

viscosity

A

refers to how thick or sticky a fluid is; the more viscous the fluid, the thicker it is

534
Q

production of blood

A

hemopoiesis

535
Q

tissues that produce blood cells are called __

A

hemopoietic tissues

536
Q

the body has two types of hemopoietic tissue:

A

red bone marrow & lymphatic tissue

537
Q

produces all types of blood

A

red bone marrow

538
Q

by producing lymphocytes, a specific type of WBC

A

lymphatic tissue

539
Q

__ are critical to survival, charged with delivering oxygen to cells & removing carbon dioxide

A

erythrocytes

540
Q

True or False: erythrocytes contain a nucleus & DNA, so they can replicate themselves

A

False; they lack a nucleus & DNA, they cannot replicate themselves

541
Q

a red pigment that gives blood its color

A

hemoglobin

542
Q

hemoglobin consists of four ribbon-like protein chains called __

A

globins

543
Q

the process of producing new erythrocytes is maintained through a negative feedback loop

A

erythropoiesis

544
Q

the process of erythropoiesis takes how many days?

A

3-5

545
Q

when the destruction of RBCs becomes excessive is called __

A

hemolysis

546
Q

the fewest of the formed elements; they are the body’s line of defense against invasion by infectious pathogens; contain a nucleus

A

leukocytes

547
Q

the presence or absence of granules identifies the two classification of WBCs:

A

granulocytes & agranulocytes

548
Q

containing granules in the cytoplasm; contain a single multi lobular nucleus; three types

A

granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, & basophils

549
Q

lack cytoplasmic granules; lack lobes; two types

A

agranulocytes: lymphocytes & monocytes

550
Q

the second most abundant of the formed elements; play a key role in hemostasis

A

platelets

551
Q

hemostasis

A

stopping bleeding

552
Q

when a blood vessel is cut, the body must react quickly to stop the flow of blood by:

A

vascular spasm, formation of a platelet plug & the formation of a blood clot

553
Q

vascular spasm

A

constricts the blood vessel & slows the flow of blood

554
Q

formation of a platelet plug

A

the break in the blood vessel exposes collagen fibers, creating a rough spot on the vessel’s normally slick interior; triggers changes the passing platelets, transforming them into sticky platelets

555
Q

blood clotting

A

coagulation

556
Q

normal clotting requires adequate blood levels of __

A

calcium

557
Q

__ works to dissolve the fibrin meshwork, & the clot breaks up; a process called __

A

plasmin; fibrinolysis

558
Q

the surface of each red blood cell carries a protein called an __; two types

A

antigen (agglutinogen): A & B

559
Q

people with type A blood have the __

A

A antigen

560
Q

people with B blood have the __

A

B antigen

561
Q

people with type AB blood have __

A

both A & B antigen

562
Q

people with type O blood have __

A

neither antigen

563
Q

while the blood cell carries antigens, the blood plasma carries __

A

antibodies (agglutinins)

564
Q

type A blood has anti - __

A

B antibodies

565
Q

type B blood has anti - __

A

A antibodies

566
Q

type AB blood has __ antibodies

A

no

567
Q

type O blood has both anti - __

A

A & B antibodies

568
Q

the antibody-antigen reaction would cause the RBCs to __

A

clump together (agglutinate)

569
Q

produces large clumps of antigen-antibody molecules is called

A

agglutination

570
Q

universal donor blood

A

type O

571
Q

universal recipient

A

AB blood

572
Q

Rh-positive blood contains the __

A

Rh antigen

573
Q

base of the heart

A

where the great vessels enter & leave the heart

574
Q

apex of the heart

A

the point of maximum impulse, where the strongest beat can be felt or heard

575
Q

the heart lies in the thoracic cavity in the __, a space between the lungs & beneath the sternum

A

mediastinum

576
Q

surrounding the heart is a double-walled sac called the __

A

pericardium

577
Q

lines the heart’s chambers, covers the valve, & continues into the vessels; consists of a thin layer of squamous epithelial cells

A

endocardium

578
Q

composed of cardiac muscle, forms the middle layer; thickest of the three layers & performs the work of the heart

A

myocardium

579
Q

consists of a thin layer of squamous epithelial cells, covers the hear’s surface; AKA as the visceral layer of the serous pericardium

A

epicardium

580
Q

the atria move blood only a short distance, therefore, they don’t have to __

A

generate as much force

581
Q

because the ventricles pump rather than receive blood, they must __ than the artia

A

generate more force

582
Q

P wave represents __

A

atrial depolarization

583
Q

QRS complex represents __

A

ventricular depolarization

584
Q

T wave represents __

A

ventricular repolarization

585
Q

Atrioventricular Valves (AV) regulate flow between the __ & the __

A

atria; ventricles

586
Q

Semilunar Valves regulate flow between the __ & the __

A

ventricles & the great arteries

587
Q

Coronary Arteries

A

deliver oxygenated blood to the myocardium, while cardiac veins collect the deoxygenated blood

588
Q

after flowing through the capillaries in the myocardium, the cardiac veins collect the now __

A

deoxygenated blood

Medical Assistant (22 decks)

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