Chapter 9 review Flashcards

1
Q

Mutations

A

Heritable change in genome

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2
Q

Spontaneous mutations
Occur without

A

external intervention

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3
Q

most mutations occur by

A

Most result from occasional errors by D N A polymerase
during replication

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4
Q

Induced mutations are caused

A

environmentally or deliberately

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5
Q

what Can result from exposure to natural radiation or chemicals
that chemically modify D N A

A

induced mutations

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6
Q

Types of Mutations

A

Base pair substitutions
Frameshift mutations
Reversions
Silent mutations
Missense mutations
Nonsense mutations

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7
Q

What type of mutation does the Ames test detect?

A

Revertant mutations that restore the ability to synthesize histidine.

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8
Q

What type of organism is used in the Ames test?

A

A strain of Salmonella with a mutation in the his gene (histidine auxotroph).

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9
Q

Why can’t the test strain grow on minimal media?

A

It cannot synthesize histidine due to a his gene mutation.

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10
Q

What does growth on minimal media without histidine indicate?

A

A mutation (reversion) restored the ability to produce histidine.

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11
Q

What is the role of minimal medium in the Ames test?

A

It selects for revertants that can grow without added histidine.

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12
Q

Why is the test strain more sensitive to mutagens?

A

It has mutations that inactivate nucleotide excision repair (NER) and increase cell wall permeability.

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13
Q

What does a high number of colonies on minimal media suggest?

A

The chemical being tested is likely mutagenic

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14
Q

Why is the Ames test considered simple and sensitive?

A

It detects rare revertants using a straightforward growth assay.

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15
Q

What are two genetic modifications in the Ames strain (besides his mutation)?

A

1) Defective NER system
2) More permeable cell wall

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the NER-deficient mutation in the test strain?

A

To prevent repair of induced mutations, increasing test sensitivity.

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17
Q

What do genomic islands provide evidence for?

A

Horizontal gene transfer.

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18
Q

What are genomic islands?

A

Segments of DNA in a genome that have been acquired through horizontal gene transfer

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19
Q

Name three types of genomic islands.

A

Pathogenicity islands, symbiosis islands, and fitness islands.

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20
Q

What are pathogenicity islands?

A

Genomic islands that carry genes contributing to a microorganism’s ability to cause disease.

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21
Q

What are symbiosis islands?

A

Genomic islands that contain genes involved in establishing beneficial relationships with hosts.

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22
Q

What are fitness islands?

A

Genomic islands that provide advantages for survival in specific environments.

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23
Q

What protein is essential for homologous recombination in Bacteria, Archaea, and most Eukarya?

A

RecA

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24
Q

What is the first molecular event in homologous recombination?

A

An endonuclease nicks one strand of the donor DNA molecule.

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25
Q

What enzyme separates the nicked strand from the other strand in homologous recombination?

A

Helicase

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26
Q

After helicase action, what binds to the single-stranded DNA?

A

Single-strand binding protein and RecA

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27
Q

What is strand invasion in homologous recombination?

A

The single-stranded donor DNA base pairs with the recipient DNA, displacing one of its strands.

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28
Q

What forms when the donor and recipient DNA strands pair?

A

A recombination intermediate with heteroduplex regions.

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29
Q

What are heteroduplex regions?

A

DNA regions where each strand comes from a different chromosome.

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30
Q

What are the possible outcomes of homologous recombination

A

“Patches” or “splices” of DNA.

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31
Q

What is horizontal gene transfer?

A

The movement of genetic material between organisms other than by descent from parent to offspring.

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32
Q

What is transformation in bacteria?

A

The uptake and incorporation of free DNA from the environment into a bacterial genome.

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33
Q

What type of DNA is taken up during transformation?

A

Free/naked DNA from lysed cells.

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34
Q

What makes a bacterial cell “competent”?

A

Its ability to take up foreign DNA from the environment.

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35
Q

What is transduction in bacteria?

A

Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another via a bacteriophage (virus).

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36
Q

What are the two types of transduction?

A

Generalized and specialized transduction.

37
Q

What happens during generalized transduction?

A

A random piece of host DNA is packaged into a phage and transferred to another cell.

38
Q

What happens during specialized transduction?

A

Only specific bacterial genes near the prophage are transferred by the virus.

39
Q

What is bacterial conjugation?

A

The direct transfer of DNA between two bacteria via cell-to-cell contact.

40
Q

What structure is required for conjugation?

A

A sex pilus (produced by the donor cell).

41
Q

What is the F plasmid?

A

A fertility plasmid that carries genes for pilus formation and DNA transfer in conjugation.

42
Q

What is an Hfr cell?

A

A bacterium with the F plasmid integrated into its chromosome, allowing chromosomal gene transfer.

43
Q

Can bacteria transfer genes across biological domains?

A

Yes, some bacteria can transfer genes to organisms in other domains of life.

44
Q

What bacterium causes crown gall disease in plants?

A

Agrobacterium tumefaciens

45
Q

What special plasmid does Agrobacterium tumefaciens carry?

A

The tumor-inducing plasmid (Ti plasmid)

46
Q

How does Agrobacterium tumefaciens transfer the Ti plasmid to plants?

A

Via conjugation

47
Q

What happens to plant cells when they receive the Ti plasmid?

A

They form tumors (crown galls)

48
Q

What surprising discovery was made about gene transfer from humans?

A

DNA transfer from humans to bacteria has been observed.

49
Q

Which bacterium was found to acquire human DNA?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae (strain L1)

50
Q

What are mobile genetic elements?

A

DNA sequences that can move from one location to another within a genome.

51
Q

What are transposable elements?

A

Segments of DNA that can move between or within chromosomes.

52
Q

Where are transposable elements found?

A

In virtually all life-forms.

53
Q

What is an insertion sequence (IS)?

A

A simple transposable element containing only a transposase gene and flanking inverted repeats.

54
Q

What enzyme do insertion sequences use to move?

A

transposase

55
Q

What are the short DNA sequences flanking an IS element called?

A

Inverted repeat sequences

56
Q

What is the function of the transposase enzyme?

A

It recognizes the inverted repeats and cuts the DNA to move the IS element.

57
Q

What are the two mechanisms by which IS elements can transpose?

A

Replicative transposition and nonreplicative transposition.

58
Q

What happens in replicative transposition?

A

The IS element is copied, and the copy is inserted at a new site while the original stays in place.

59
Q

What happens in nonreplicative transposition?

A

The IS element is cut out of its original location and inserted into a new site (also called “cut and paste”).

60
Q

What are transposons?

A

Complex transposable elements that carry additional genes, such as antibiotic resistance genes.

61
Q

How are transposons different from insertion sequences (IS)?

A

Transposons carry extra genes (e.g., drug resistance), while IS elements only contain transposase

62
Q

Name three types of transposons.

A

Composite transposons, complex transposons, and conjugative transposons.

63
Q

What is a composite transposon?

A

A transposon consisting of two IS elements flanking additional genes (like antibiotic resistance).

64
Q

What is a conjugative transposon?

A

A transposon that can transfer between cells via conjugation.

65
Q

What is the significance of transposons in medicine?

A

They can spread antibiotic resistance genes between bacteria.

66
Q

how can bacteria protect themselves

A

successdul infection

modification of virus receptor

restriction endonucleases degrade dforeign dna

phage exclusion- enzyme modifies viral dna preventing replication

absortive infection- host cell committs suicude to avoid infection

crispr- cas system specifically recognizes foregn dna and degreades it.

67
Q

What is the restriction-modification system?

A

A bacterial defense mechanism involving the cleavage of foreign DNA (restriction) and the protection of host DNA (modification).

68
Q

What is the role of restriction endonucleases in the restriction-modification system?

A

They enzymatically cleave foreign (alien) DNA to protect the host from invaders.

69
Q

What is the protective modification that occurs in the restriction-modification system?

A

Methylation of host DNA to protect it from being cleaved by restriction endonucleases.

70
Q

What is the function of methylation in the restriction-modification system?

A

Methylation marks the host’s DNA as “self,” preventing it from being cut by its own restriction endonucleases.

71
Q

Why is restriction-modification important for bacteria?

A

It protects bacteria from viral (bacteriophage) infections by cleaving foreign DNA while preserving the integrity of their own genome.

72
Q

What does CRISPR stand for?

A

Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats.

73
Q

What is the function of the CRISPR system?

A

It seeks and destroys foreign nucleic acids, such as viral DNA.

74
Q

What are the repeating sequences in CRISPR made of?

A

Short repeats of host DNA sequences alternating with short variable DNA sequences called spacers.

75
Q

What is the purpose of the spacers in the CRISPR system?

A

The spacers act as a “memory bank” storing sequences of DNA that have previously invaded the cell.

76
Q

What are CRISPR-associated (Cas) proteins?

A

Proteins that work with CRISPR to perform endonuclease activity, cutting foreign DNA

77
Q

What are the two main functions of the CRISPR system?

A

Defense – Destroy foreign DNA.

Incorporate new spacers – Add new spacer sequences to the CRISPR region for future defense.

78
Q

How do Cas proteins recognize viral DNA?

A

Cas proteins recognize specific PAMs (protospacer adjacent motifs) in the viral DNA.

79
Q

What happens when Cas proteins recognize a viral DNA with a PAM?

A

Cas proteins cleave the viral DNA near the PAM and insert a short segment of the viral DNA into the host chromosome as a spacer, providing genetic memory.

80
Q

What happens when the cell encounters the same virus again?

A

The CRISPR system recognizes the viral DNA and destroys it through an RNA-dependent process.

81
Q

What is pre-CRISPR RNA (pre-crRNA)?

A

Pre-crRNA is a long RNA transcript processed into smaller spacer RNAs (crRNAs).

82
Q

What is the role of crRNA in the CRISPR system?

A

crRNA associates with Cas proteins and guides them to complementary viral DNA to direct cleavage.

83
Q

How does CRISPR interfere with viral DNA?

A

The viral DNA:crRNA complexes are cleaved and degraded, effectively interfering with the viral DNA.

84
Q

How widespread is the CRISPR system in nature?

A

CRISPR is found in 90% of Archaea and 70% of Bacteria.

85
Q

What are some ways viruses have evolved to avoid CRISPR defense?

A

Mutating PAM regions

Producing Cas protein inhibitors

Phage-encoded CRISPR (found in some bacteriophages)

86
Q

How do mutations in the PAM region help viruses avoid CRISPR?

A

Mutating the PAM region prevents Cas proteins from recognizing and cleaving the viral DNA.

87
Q

What is the role of Cas protein inhibitors in viral defense against CRISPR?

A

Viruses may produce inhibitors that block the action of Cas proteins, preventing DNA cleavage.

88
Q

Where is phage-encoded CRISPR found, and what does it do?

A

In the Vibrio cholerae bacteriophage, phage-encoded CRISPR targets and interferes with the host Vibrio defense system.