Chapter 9- Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What is relative polycythemia?

A

Hemoconception due to dehydration.

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1
Q

What is polycythemia ruba vera?

A

Rare bone marrow disorder; idiopathic.

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2
Q

What is compensatory polycythemia?

A

Increased erythropoiesis due to hypoxia.

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3
Q

What are the causes of anemia?

A
  1. Blood loss
  2. Decreased erythropoiesis
  3. Decreased hemoglobin production
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4
Q

What does O2 loading in the lungs produce?

A

Oxyhemoglobin( ruby red)

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5
Q

What does O2 unloading in tissues produce?

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

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6
Q

What is oxyhemoglobin?

A

O2 loading in lungs

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7
Q

What is deoxyhemoglobin?

A

O2 loading in tissues

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8
Q

What are the types of hemoglobin?

A

Embryonic
Fetal
Adult

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9
Q

What purpose does the biconcave shape of red blood cell serve?

A
  1. Higher surface area to transport gases across membrane
  2. Flexible; can squeeze through small capillaries.
  3. Can take in water and swell without rupturing the membrane
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10
Q

What are the main organs that hemotopoiesis are found in?

A

Liver and spleen

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11
Q

What are platelets?

A

Fragments of larger cell

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12
Q

What are the functions of platelets?

A
  1. Nurture endothelial cells; reduce petechial hemorrhaging
  2. Form temporary platelet plug that helps seal breaks in blood vessels
  3. Contain some clotting factors required for coagulation
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13
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells

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14
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

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15
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Increases white blood cells

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16
Q

What is leukocytopenia?

A

Decreased white blood cells

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17
Q

What are granulocytes?

A

Have a visible cytoplasmic granules

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18
Q

What are agranulocytes?

A

Do not have visible cytoplasmic granules

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19
Q

What are the types of granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

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20
Q

What are the types of agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

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21
Q

What is the decreasing order of leukocytes in abundance in blood?

A

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

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22
Q

What colour do neutrophil granules stain?

A

Lavender

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23
Q

What colour do eosinophil granules stain?

A

Red

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24
Q

What colour do basophils stain?

A

Blue

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25
Q

What is the most abundant lukocyte?

A

Neutrophils

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26
Q

What is the least abundant lukocyte?

A

Basophils

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27
Q

What do neutrophils contain?

A

Enzymes and antimicrobial proteins that kill pathogens

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28
Q

What type of nucleus does a neutrophil have?

A

Multilobed

2-6lobes in the nucleus

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29
Q

What type of nucleus do eosinophils have?

A

Bilobed nucleus

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30
Q

What do the granules of eosinophils do?

A

Release enzymes to digest parasitic worms.

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31
Q

What are basophils functionally similar to?

A

Mast cells

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32
Q

What do the granules of basophils contain?

A

Histamine

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33
Q

How does histamine work in basophils?

A

Inflammatory chemical that acts as a vasodilator to allow WBCs to reach site of infection

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34
Q

What type of nuclei do granulocytes have?

A

Lobed

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35
Q

What type of nuclei do agranulocytes have?

A

Spherical or kidney shaped

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36
Q

Where are lymphocytes mostly found?

A

In lymphoid tissue

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37
Q

What are the types of lymphocytes?

A

T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
Natural killer cells

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38
Q

What is the function of T cells?

A

Act against virus-infected cells and tumor cells

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39
Q

What is the function of B cells?

A

Give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies

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40
Q

What is the largest leukocyte?

A

Monocytes

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41
Q

Do granulocytes return once they leave capillaries?

A

No

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42
Q

Are eosinophils protective against bacteria?

A

Not really

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43
Q

What does hemostasis require?

A

Clotting factors and substances released by platelets and injured tissues

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44
Q

What is the function of hemostasis?

A

Rapid series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding.

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45
Q

What are the steps of hemostasis?

A
  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Platelet plug formation
  3. Coagulation
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46
Q

What type of blood vessel is vasoconstriction most effective in?

A

Smaller blood vessels

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47
Q

What does vasoconstriction do?

A

Narrows damages blood vessels

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48
Q

What is vasoconstriction triggered by?

A
  • direct injury to vascular smooth muscle
  • chemicals releases by endothelial cells and platelets
  • pain reflexes
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49
Q

How does platelet plug formation work?

A
  • platelets stick to collagen fibres

- platelets swell, become spiked and sticky and release chemical to cause more platelets to aggregate

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50
Q

What happens to blood during coagulation?

A

Blood is transformed from liquid to gel

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51
Q

How is platelet plug reinforced?

A

With fibrin threads

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52
Q

What vitamin is needed to synthesize 4 clotting factors in coagulation?

A

Vitamin K

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53
Q

What are the phases of coagulation?

A
  1. Prothrombin activator formed in both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
  2. Prothrombin converted to enzyme thrombin
  3. Thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen into fibrin. Forms a fibrin mesh stabilizing initial platelet clot
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54
Q

What happens in the first phase of coagulation?

A

Prothrombin activator formed in both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways

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55
Q

What happens in the second phase of coagulation?

A

Prothrombin is converted into the enzyme thrombin

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56
Q

What happens in the final phase of coagulation?

A

Thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen into fibrin; forms a fibrin protein mesh stabilizing the initial platelet clot

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57
Q

What are factors that decrease clotting time? (5)

A
  • lack of vitamin K
  • liver disorders
  • hemophilia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • lack of blood calcium
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58
Q

What is immunity?

A

Resistance to disease

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59
Q

What does immunity provide/do?

A

Keeps pathogens out; destroys them if they get in

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60
Q

What are the type of immunity defenders?

A
  1. Innate

2. Acquired (adaptive)

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61
Q

What type of defense is the first line of defense?

A

Innate

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62
Q

What type of defense is the second line of defense?

A

Innate

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63
Q

What type of defense is the third line of defense?

A

Acquired (adaptive)

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64
Q

What at autoimmune disorders?

A

Disorders that do not recognize “self”

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65
Q

Are innate defended specific or non specific?

A

Non specific

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66
Q

Is the first line of defense specific or not specific?

A

Non specific

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67
Q

Is the second line of defense specific or non specific?

A

Non specific

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68
Q

Is acquired defense specific or non specific?

A

Specific

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69
Q

Is the third line of defense specific or non specific?

A

Specific

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70
Q

What are the types of acquired defense?

A

Hummoral immunity

Cellular immunity

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71
Q

What does the first line of defense protect? (Area)

A

Surface barriers

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72
Q

What are the surface barriers?

A

Skin

Mucous membranes

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73
Q

What type of defense is the second line? (Area)

A

Internal defense

74
Q

What are the internal defenders?

A
  • phagocytes
  • natural killer cells
  • inflammation
  • anti microbial proteins
  • fever
75
Q

What type of cells take part in humoral immunity?

A

B cells

76
Q

What type of cells take part in cellular immunity?

A

T cells

77
Q

What type of defense becomes stronger with age?

A

Third line

78
Q

What kind of protection does the first line provide?

A

Chemical and physical

79
Q

What kind of protection does the second line provide?

A

Cellular and chemical

80
Q

What is the make up of skin?

A

Stratifies, keratinized and relatively dry

81
Q

What type of junctions does skin have and what does it do?

A

Tight junctions seal epithelial cells together

82
Q

What does the mucosa do?

A

Mucus traps dust and pathogens

83
Q

What is the purpose of cilia with respect to mucus?

A

Cilia of upper respiratory tract moves mucus toward mouth to be coughed or swallowed.

84
Q

Where is the acidic located in the surface barriers?

A

Skin
Stomach
Vagina
Ultimatum tract

85
Q

How does acidity work in the surface barriers?

A

It inhibits the growth of many microbes

86
Q

What is the purpose of sebum oil?

A

Some lipids released by the sebaceous glands have anti microbial properties

87
Q

What are the enzymes in the first line of defense and where are they?

A
  • lysozymes in tears, saliva

- pepsin, protease a in GI tract

88
Q

What are the antimocrobial proteins secreted by?

A

Skin

Mucus membranes

89
Q

What are the phagocytes in the second line of defense?

A
  • Neutrophils

- macrophages

90
Q

What is the most effective phagocyte in the 2nd line of defense?

A

Macrophages

91
Q

What are macrophage developed from?

A

Monocytes

92
Q

What do free macrophages do?

A

Wander through tissue spaces

93
Q

What are fixed macrophages?

A

Permanent residents of many organs

94
Q

What are some organs where macrophages can be found?

A
  • lungs
  • liver
  • nerves
  • lymph nodes
95
Q

What is opsonization?

A

Marks pathogens by coating them with complement proteins or antibodies

96
Q

How do phagocytes work in the second line of defense?

A

Engulf pathogens, toxins

97
Q

What do phagocytes adhere to?

A

Cell/substance

98
Q

How do some bacteria evade adherence by phagocytes?

A

By having a capsule which makes then more virulent

99
Q

What do NK cells secrete?

A

Chemicals that enhance inflammatory response

100
Q

What do NK cells attack?

A

Cells that lack “self” cell-surface receptors

101
Q

What do the proteins that NK cells release do?

A

Form pores in target cells

102
Q

What do NK cells do when they release chemicals?

A

The chemicals released into cells induce apoptosis in cancer cells and virus-infected cells.

103
Q

When in the inflammatory response triggered?

A

When the tissue is damaged

104
Q

What are the benefits of the inflammatory response?

A

It prevents the spread of pathogen/toxin and it alerts the 3rd line of defense

105
Q

What are the signs of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Redness
  2. Heat
  3. Swelling
  4. Pain
  5. Impairment of function (sometimes)
106
Q

What causes the release of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory response?

A
  • injured mast cells release histamines

- macrphages, NK cells, tissue cells release other chemicals

107
Q

What is the response to chemicals released during inflammatory response?

A
  • dilate local arterioles
  • cause redness and heat of inflamed region
  • make capillaries “leaky” ( fluid entree tissues causes swelling)
  • attract leukocytes to area
108
Q

What are antimocrobial proteins?

A
  • Proteins releases by virus infected cells which prevent healthy cells from being infected by virus
109
Q

What are interferons?

A

Antimocrobial proteins

110
Q

How are antimocrobial proteins used medically?

A

As antivirals in cancer and viral disorders

111
Q

What are the mechanism for destroying foreign substances in complement proteins?

A
  1. Stimulate inflammatory response and chemotaxis
  2. Enhance phagocytosis
  3. Kills bacteria and other foreign cells directly
112
Q

What is a normal body temperature?

A

101-102.5 F

38.3-39.2 C

113
Q

What temperature would mean a fever?

A

> 103 F

39.4 C

114
Q

What temperature is considered not to be good?

A

> 104F

40C

115
Q

What is a fever?

A

Abnormally high body temperature

116
Q

What is a fever caused by?

A

Systemic response to invading microorganisms

117
Q

What do leukocytes and macrophages secrete when exposed to foreign substances?

A

Pyrogens

118
Q

How do pyrogens work?

A

Act on body’s thermostat in hypothalamus, raising set point for body’s temperature

119
Q

What are the benefits of a moderate fever?

A
  • causes the liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc

- increases metabolic rate -> faster repair

120
Q

What are the characteristics of acquired immunity?

A
  1. Specific
  2. Memory
  3. Self-tolerant
121
Q

What does the specific characteristic do in the 3rd line of defense?

A

It recognizes and target specific pathogens or foreign molecules

122
Q

What does memory do in the 3rd line of defense?

A

It remembers past pathogens so response will be faster next time

123
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

In bone marrow

124
Q

What does the self-tolerant characteristic do in the 3rd line of defense?

A

It can distinguish “self” from “nonslef”; it will not attack it’s own cells/tissues

125
Q

Where do T cells matture?

A

In the thymus gland

126
Q

What are antigens?

A

Substances that can stimulate B & T cells and provoke an immune response

127
Q

What are antigenic determinants?

A

Part of an antigen that causes an immune response

128
Q

What binds to antigenic determinants?

A

Antibodies and lymphocyte receptors

129
Q

How is the body self tolerant and able to recognize its own cells?

A

All nucleated cells have a molecular tag that identifies them as “self”
( foreign cells have different tags)

130
Q

What are MHC used by and why?

A

Used by infected cells or macrophages to present antigens to immune system cells

131
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Make antibodies against specific pathogens/toxins

132
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Kill specific cells directly or indirectly

133
Q

What do plasma B cell lymphocytes produce?

A

Antibodies

134
Q

How do T cell lymphocytes react directly?

A

By killing infected or cancerous cells

* killer T cells

135
Q

How do T cells react indirectly?

A

By releasing chemicals that enhance inflammatory response or by activating other lymphocytes or macrophages to kill affected cell
* helper T cell

136
Q

What do suppressor T cells do?

A

Kept immune system in check through negative feedback

137
Q

What happens during the secondary immune response?

A

Re-exposure to same antigen gives aster, more prolonged, more effective response

138
Q

What happens during the primary immune response?

A
  • colonal selection upon first antigen exposure
  • lag period: 3-6 days
  • peak antibody level at 10 days, then they decline
139
Q

When do antibody level peak during the secondary immune response?

A

Peak in 2-3 days at much higher level and remain high for weeks

140
Q

When does active humoral immunity occur?

A

When B cells encounter antigens an produce specific antibodies against them

141
Q

What are the types of immunity?

A
  1. Naturally acquired

2. Artificially acquired

142
Q

What is naturally acquired immunity in active immunity?

A

A response to bacterial or viral infection (I.e., you get sick)

143
Q

What is artificially acquired immunity in activity immunity?

A

A response to vaccine of dead or attenuated( inactivated) pagtogens

144
Q

What does passive immunity occur?

A

Occurs when antibodies are introduced into the body

145
Q

What happens during passive humoral immunity?

A

Immediate protection but it ends when antibodies are naturally degraded into the body; no immunological memory

146
Q

What happens in naturally acquired passive humoral immunity?

A

Antibodies are delivered to the fetus via placenta or to infant through milk

147
Q

What happens during artificially acquired passive humoral immunity?

A

Injection of antibodies

148
Q

What type of immune response do B lymphocytes provide?

A

Humoral

149
Q

What type of immune response do T lymphocytes provide?

A

Cellular

150
Q

Do B lymphocytes have antibody secretions?

A

Yes

151
Q

Do T lymphocytes have antibody secretions?

A

No

152
Q

What are the primary targets of B lymphocytes?

A

Extra cellular pathogens

bacteria, fungi, parasites

153
Q

What are the primary targets of T lymphocytes?

A

Intracellular pathogens

( virus-infected cells) and cancer cells

154
Q

What is the site of origin of B lymphocytes?

A

Red bone marrow

155
Q

What is the site of origin of T lymphocytes?

A

Red bone marrow

156
Q

What are the effector cells of B lymphocytes?

A

Plasma cells

157
Q

What are the effector cells of B lymphocytes?

A

Cytotoxic (killer) T cells, helper T cells, regulatory (suppressor) T cells

158
Q

Do B lymphocytes have memory cell formation?

A

Yes

159
Q

Do T lymphocytes have memory cell formation?

A

Yes

160
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A
  1. Transport
  2. Regulation
  3. Defense
161
Q

What are the regulatory functions of blood?

A
  • body temperature
  • water balance in cells
  • pH balance
162
Q

What are the defense components in the functions of blood?

A
  • against pathogens

- blood clotting

163
Q

Why may plasma appear cloudy?

A

Because of postprandial lipemia

164
Q

Why is plasma yellow in color?

A

Due to bilirubin

165
Q

What are the components of serum?

A

Plasma- clotting factors

166
Q

What are anticoagulants used for?

A

Used to prevent clotting in vitro or in vivo

167
Q

What are substances that block clotting factors?

A
  • EDTA
  • Heparin
  • Warfarin
168
Q

How/where does EDTA work?

A

Binds Ca++; used in lab; lavender too

169
Q

How is heparin produced?

A

Naturally occurring ( made by mast cells)

170
Q

What is heparin used for?

A

Used to prevent thrombosis, embolism

171
Q

What was warfarin used for in the 1940s?

A

Used as rat poison

172
Q

What was Warfarin used for in the 1950s + ?

A

Used medicinally- oral anticoagulant

173
Q

What are the formed elements?

A
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Thrombocytes
174
Q

What is blood composed of?

A
  1. Plasma

2. Formed elements

175
Q

Which blood cells are complete?

A

White

176
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

The formation of blood cells; continual process; stem cells -> formed element cells

177
Q

What is erythropoietin?

A

A hormone

178
Q

What does erythropoietin do?

A

Stimulates erythropoiesis

179
Q

What releases erythropoietin?

A

The kidneys in response to hypoxia

180
Q

What are the causes of hypoxia?

A
  • decreased RBC numbers due to hemorrhage or increased destruction
  • insufficient hemoglobin per RBC
  • reduced availability of O2
181
Q

What are MHC used by and why?

A

Used by infected cells or macrophages to present antigens to immnue system cells

182
Q

What do B cells do?

A

Make antibodies against specific pathogens/toxins

183
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Kill specific cells directly or indirectly