CHAPTER 4: Prenatal Development and Birth Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Cindy is doing a presentation on prenatal development and wants to include the three main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. In which order should Cindy list the periods?

A) embryonic, germinal, and fetal
B) fetal, embryonic, and germinal
C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal
D) germinal, fetal, and embryonic

A

C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

During the germinal period of prenatal development, cells take on distinct characteristics and gravitate toward particular locations. The term for this process is _____.

A) duplication
B) division
C) differentiation
D) specialization

A

C) differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote’s outer cells is _____.

A) differentiation
B) duplication
C) germination
D) implantation

A

D) implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

About _____ percent of natural conceptions never implant.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75

A

C) 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a shell that will become the _____.

A) placenta
B) umbilical cord
C) embryo
D) infant

A

A) placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception.

A) 2 days
B) 3 months
C) 2 weeks
D) 12 weeks

A

C) 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Jenny just learned that she is six weeks pregnant. She is in the _____ period of prenatal development.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) second

A

B) embryonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

At the onset of the embryonic period, the _____ appears. It will eventually become the neural tube.

A) stem cell
B) spinal cord
C) primitive streak
D) placenta

A

C) primitive streak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

As part of embryonic development, the neural tube will become the _____.

A) reproductive organs
B) intestinal tract
C) backbone, legs, and arms
D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

A

D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The head begins to take shape in the _____ week after conception.

A) fourth
B) fifth
C) sixth
D) seventh

A

A) fourth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A pregnant woman is having an ultrasound done eight weeks into prenatal development. She is surprised by the size of the embryo’s head when she sees the image on the screen. The doctor reassures her that this is typical and that it is due to the _____ pattern of development.

A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis

A

B) cephalocaudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Johnny’s mom is four months pregnant. Johnny is eager for the arrival of the new baby and asks, “How many more months until I’m a big brother?” His mother says that he has to wait about _____ more months.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

A

D) 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to the central nervous system during the fetal period of development?

A) it goes through a process of regeneration
B) synapses decrease in number
C) it becomes active, regulation heart rate and breathing
D) the number of neurons decreases

A

C) it becomes active, regulation heart rate and breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The age of viability is the time when the preterm newborn _____.

A) might survive outside the uterus
B) begins to move
C) will be born without defects
D) has developed all of its major organs

A

A) might survive outside the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development. He is now a health, happy 2-year-old. Harry’s ability to survive after being born so early was due in part to his reaching the _____.

A) term of postnatal development
B) germinal period
C) neurogenesis point
D) age of viability

A

D) age of viability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The critical factor In attaining the age of viability is ____.

A) weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kilograms)

B) having adequate brain development

C) having functioning digestive and respiratory systems

D) surviving at least 28 weeks past conception

A

B) having adequate brain development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a first birth, the average length of active labor is ____

A) several days
B) about 14 hours
C) about 8 hours
D) about 12 hours

A

D) about 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In the first stage of labor, the ___

A) cervix dilates to allow passage of the baby’s head
B) baby’s head moves into the birth canal
C) mother experiences intense contraction
D) placenta is delivered

A

C) mother experiences intense contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the transition stage of labor, the ____

A) cervix begins to dilate
B) baby’s head moves into the birth canal
C) baby’s head moves through the birth Canal
D) placenta is delivered

A

A) cervix begins to dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the second stage of labor, the _____

A) cervix begins to dilate
B) baby’s head moves into the birth canal
C) baby’s head moves through the birth canal
D) placenta is delivered

A

B) baby’s head moves into the birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most births in the United States take place in ____

A) birthing centers
B) hospital labor rooms
C) homes
D) pools of water

A

B) hospital labor rooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An alternative to giving birth in a hospital is to arrange to give birth at home. In the United States, less than _____ of births occur at home.

A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%

A

A) 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When healthy babies are born, they usually ____

A) do not breathe on their own until the umbilical cord is cut

B) do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut

C) breathe and cry on their own immediately

D) breathe on their own, and cry when the umbilical cord I cut

A

C) breathe and cry on their own immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which step is usually done immediately after birth?

A) mucus in the baby’s throat is removed
B) the baby is placed in a incubator
C) umbilical cord blood is drawn
D) the baby is assessed for eye color

A

A) mucus in the baby’s throat is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Henry was just given the five-minute Apgar and his score was 4. This means Henry is ___

A) experiencing good health
B) a slow-to-warm-up infant
C) in need of emergency medical attention
D) in average health

A

C) in need of emergency medical attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Research indicates that ____ can benefit from doula-assisted birth

A) low-income women
B) married women
C) mothers of multiples
D) all women

A

D) all women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Children born by cesarean section _____.

A) spend more time being held by their mothers in the hours following delivery
B) are more likely to breast-feed from the beginning
C) have double the rate of childhood obesity
D) score lower on the Apgar test

A

C) have double the rate of childhood obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test do?

A) diagnoses HIV infection
B) suggests the presence of Down syndrome
C) measures the mother’s genetic weaknesses
D) provides an estimate of the fetus’s gestational age

A

B) suggests the presence of Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Early prenatal care can help decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities, but it cannot provide pregnant women with specific information about _____.

A) substances to avoid
B) proper nutrition
C) exact thresholds for teratogens
D) treatments for preexisting conditions

A

C) exact thresholds for teratogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gabby received good quality prenatal care from the care team at her local hospital. She was informed about what to eat and what to do. They also coached her on what to _____, such as cigarette smoking and very high stress.

A) avoid
B) seek out
C) experience
D) continue

A

A) avoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

With respect to test results, a false positive is the result of a laboratory test that reports something as _____.

A) a problem when there really is nothing wrong
B) nothing wrong when there really is a problem
C) a problem when there really is a problem
D) nothing wrong when there really is nothing wrong

A

A) a problem when there really is nothing wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A baby born two or more weeks early is called _____.

A) premature
B) preterm
C) low birthweight
D) small for gestational age

A

B) preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bruno and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just had their first baby. Bruno and Juliana’s SES is lower than their peers who are of Mexican ancestry but who were born in the United States. Bruno and Juliana’s baby was born at a healthy weight, due in part to the support of their social network. This phenomenon is called the _____.

A) immigrant paradox
B) Hispanic paradox
C) native-born paradox
D) SES paradox

A

A) immigrant paradox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adults who were low-birthweight babies have higher rates of _____.

A) diabetes
B) malnutrition
C) normal-range weight
D) obesity

A

A) diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Possible consequences of low birthweight include infant death, hearing impairment, and _____.

A) death in adolescence
B) delayed walking
C) teen pregnancy
D) spatial skills

A

B) delayed walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The frequency of low birthweight in the United States decreased throughout most of the twentieth century, and then it _____ in the 1990s and early 2000s.

A) increased
B) further decreased
C) remained stable
D) was nearly eradicated

A

A) increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Statistically, which woman has characteristics that make her likely to have a baby with low birthweight?

A) Ashley, who is 27 years old and has a middle-class SES
B) Jody, who has been diagnosed with diabetes
C) Kate, who regularly misses meals
D) Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant

A

C) Kate, who regularly misses meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In the United States, which is a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of low-birthweight babies?

A) plentiful food
B) drug use
C) exercise regimens
D) genetic factors

A

B) drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Birth complications are more likely when _____.

A) a baby is full term
B) a mother is over age 40
C) a baby is female
D) a mother is unmarried

A

B) a mother is over age 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sammy is 5 years old and spends his day in a wheelchair, because he can’t control any of his muscles due to brain damage. Sammy’s condition has been evident since birth, during which he was deprived of oxygen. Sammy has _____.

A) anoxia
B) cerebral palsy
C) Huntington’s disease
D) Parkinson’s disease

A

B) cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cerebral palsy was once thought to be the result of something that happened during the birth procedure, but we now know that it can result from many factors, including _____.

A) a specific gene for cerebral palsy
B) maternal nutritional deficits
C) maternal infection
D) Huntington’s disease

A

C) maternal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anoxia refers to _____.

A) cerebral hemorrhaging 
B) signs of cerebral palsy 
C) a lack of oxygen
D) toxic substances in the bloodstream
arrow
A

C) a lack of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When Alexia was born, she had a lack of oxygen for a small amount of time. Alexia experienced _____.

A) cerebral hemorrhaging
B) cerebral palsy
C) couvade
D) anoxia

A

D) anoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following characteristics of newborns’ appearance affect adults’ brain activity and heart rate?

A) big abdomen
B) big hairless head and tiny feet
C) pale skin and dark hair
D) hairy arms and legs

A

B) big hairless head and tiny feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The parents of newborn Renata are amazed at their daughter’s responsiveness and reflexes when a professional administers the _____.

A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
B) Apgar scale
C) Child Behavioral Checklist
D) Strange Situation

A

A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are demonstrating the _____.

A) Moro reflex
B) rooting reflex
C) sucking reflex
D) thrashing reflex

A

B) rooting reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Newborn babies have _____ designed to maintain oxygen supply, maintain a constant body temperature, and manage feeding.

A) genes
B) habits
C) reflexes
D) strategies

A

C) reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Julia had a baby three weeks ago. She has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mother, which has made caring for her newborn difficult. Julia may be experiencing _____.

A) post-traumatic stress disorder
B) postpartum depression
C) generalized anxiety disorder
D) separation anxiety

A

B) postpartum depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Kelley just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. She may have _____.

A) couvade
B) behavioral teratogens
C) kangaroo care
D) postpartum depression

A

D) postpartum depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression.

A) breast-feeding
B) having a home birth
C) couvade
D) epidurals

A

A) breast-feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A father’s presence at a child’s birth _____.

A) has no impact on birth complications
B) only has an impact on birth complications if the mother and father are married
C) reduces the likelihood of birth complications
D) increases the likelihood of birth complications

A

C) reduces the likelihood of birth complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The phenomenon in which fathers experience symptoms of pregnancy and birth is known as _____.

A) postpartum depression
B) couvade
C) false labor
D) the Moro reflex

A

B) couvade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

While Bill’s wife was pregnant, he experienced weight gain and indigestion. When she gave birth, he felt sharp physical pain as well. Bill was experiencing _____.

A) postpartum depression
B) couvade
C) false labor
D) the Moro reflex

A

B) couvade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When Ernie’s wife was pregnant, he felt stressed. According to research, how did Ernie believe he should be feeling?

A) strong and supportive
B) stressed
C) happy
D) excited

A

A) strong and supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rebecca and Bob just had a baby. They agreed that they would each be responsible for the baby every other evening to give the other parent a break from child care. They have also discussed how to share responsibility for day-care drop off and pick up once they are both back at work. Rebecca and Bob are demonstrating the cooperation that is evidence of _____.

A) parental alliance
B) bonding
C) postpartum depression
D) couvade

A

A) parental alliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The strong, loving connection that forms as parents hold, examine, and feed their newborn is called _____.

A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) the parent-infant bond

A

D) the parent-infant bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Phil is holding his newborn child for the first time and is overwhelmed by the love he feels for his child. What Phil is experiencing is called _____.

A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) the parent-infant bond

A

D) the parent-infant bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rumasia places her baby on her chest so that they are skin to skin. This is called _____.

A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) parent-infant bond

A

C) kangaroo care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Kangaroo care has been associated with a newborn _____.

A) sleeping more shallowly
B) gaining weight more quickly
C) spending more time asleep
D) smiling at a younger age

A

B) gaining weight more quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The first two weeks of development after conception are called the _____.

A) fetal period
B) germinal period
C) embryonic period
D) implantation period

A

B) germinal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The stage of prenatal development that lasts from the ninth week after conception until birth is the _____ period.

A) fetal
B) blastocyst
C) embryonic
D) germinal

A

A) fetal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The Apgar scale measures the _____.

A) adequacy of prenatal growth
B) duration of labor
C) newborn’s health following birth
D) intensity of pain during labor

A

C) newborn’s health following birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In what percentage of births in the United States are cesarean sections performed?

A) 11 percent
B) 21 percent
C) 34 percent
D) 41 percent

A

C) 34 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A doula is a woman who _____.

A) is pregnant for the first time
B) helps with the birth process
C) helps couples with infertility problems
D) counsels women who have postpartum depression

A

B) helps with the birth process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Agents and conditions that harm the prenatal brain and impair learning and behavior are called _____.

A) behavioral risks
B) critical risks
C) primitive streaks
D) behavioral teratogens

A

D) behavioral teratogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The likelihood of many developmental complications can be greatly reduced through _____.

A) extreme exercise
B) the science of risk analysis
C) exposure to teratogens
D) There is no way to reduce such complications.

A

B) the science of risk analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Moderate use of which of these substances has been associated with fetal abnormalities?

A) chocolate
B) tobacco
C) caffeine
D) trans fat

A

B) tobacco

68
Q

Low birthweight (LBW) is defined as a body weight less than _____ at birth.

A) 3 pounds
B) 5 1/2 pounds
C) 7 pounds
D) 10 pounds

A

B) 5 1/2 pounds

69
Q

Which term refers to an involuntary response to a particular stimulus?

A) motor skill
B) habit
C) reflex
D) symbolic representation

A

C) reflex

70
Q

The term couvade refers to _____.

A) a male doula
B) the father’s experience of pregnancy
C) the father’s impact on a child’s development
D) a male birthing physician

A

B) the father’s experience of pregnancy

71
Q

When parents cooperate to raise their child, they have _____.

A) lower cortisol rates
B) an increase in birth hormones
C) a decrease in brain activity
D) formed a parental alliance

A

D) formed a parental alliance

72
Q

The strong loving connection between a parent and newborn is called the _____.

A) Oedipus complex
B) parent-infant bond
C) love connection
D) prenatal bond

A

B) parent-infant bond

73
Q

During the _____ period of prenatal development, the placenta must achieve implantation.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) conception

A

A) germinal

74
Q

The ____ period lasts from the third week through the eighth week of pregnancy.

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) viability

A

B) embryonic

75
Q

Which of the following structures develops first during the period of the embryo?

A) the neural tube
B) the primitive streak
C) the upper arms
D) the placenta

A

B) the primitive streak

76
Q

The head appears in the _____ week after conception.

A) fourth
B) fifth
C) sixth
D) seventh

A

A) fourth

77
Q

Growth occurs in a _____ pattern, which means “head-to-tail.”

A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis

A

B) cephalocaudal

78
Q

Jose and Keta recently learned that they were pregnant. The couple is very excited about the pregnancy and are eager to know the sex of the fetus. The doctor explains that she will be able to determine the sex by the end of the third month using _____.

A) an X-ray
B) amniocentesis
C) ultrasound
D) the Apgar scale

A

C) ultrasound

79
Q

The ______ is the age at which a fetus might survive outside the mother’s uterus if specialized medical care is available.

A) germinal period
B) embryonic period
C) fetal age indicator
D) age of viability

A

D) age of viability

80
Q

Nicolette, pregnant for the first time, wonders how long it will take to deliver her son. You can tell Nicolette that for first births, the average baby is born after ____ hours of active labor.

A) 7
B) 11
C) 14
D) 20

A

C) 14

81
Q

At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor.

A) fetal brain
B) maternal brain
C) placenta
D) amniotic sac

A

A) fetal brain

82
Q

Today, ______ are likely to arrive at a pregnant woman’s home during early labor and later work alongside hospital staff.

A) doulas
B) birthing coaches
C) physicians’ assistants
D) neonatal support teams

A

A) doulas

83
Q

Newborn Kendrell received an Apgar score of 4. This score indicates that Kendrell is ______.

A) healthy and responsive
B) in need of emergency care
C) slightly lethargic but in good condition
D) hungry, cold, and irritable

A

B) in need of emergency care

84
Q

By age 3, children born by cesarean section are twice as likely to _____.

A) exhibit behavioral problems, such as hyperactivity
B) have learning and motor difficulties
C) be diagnosed with autism
D) be obese

A

D) be obese

85
Q

Lin, in labor with her first child, is in a great deal of pain and has been experiencing strong contractions for nearly 12 hours with little progress toward birth. Although Lin was hoping for a natural birth, her doctor has urged her to use an epidural. Which of the following problems occurs most often following an epidural?

A) Newborns are at high risk for birth complications like cerebral palsy.
B) An epidural slows down the labor process.
C) An epidural speeds up the labor process.
D) The mother loses consciousness prior to delivery.

A

B) An epidural slows down the labor process.

86
Q

Holly was two weeks over her due date. The doctor decided it was best for Holly to _____ labor due to the increasing size of the fetus.

A) postpone
B) induce
C) forego
D) decrease

A

B) induce

87
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding rates for cesarean sections and epidurals? _____

A) They have been relatively steady over the past three decades.
B) They are the same in the United States as in most other developed nations.
C) They vary by doctor and by hospital.
D) They are higher for births attended by midwives

A

C) They vary by doctor and by hospital.

88
Q

In which of the following countries are home births most common? _____

A) The United States
B) Canada
C) England
D) The Netherlands

A

D) The Netherlands

89
Q

Dr. Lopez is a researcher who focuses on teratology. Teratology is the science of ______.

A) risk analysis
B) pediatric neurology
C) prenatal health
D) obstetrics

A

A) risk analysis

90
Q

Chantal and her husband are considering having a baby. Chantal’s obstetrician recommends that she stop using alcohol and update her immunizations _____.

A) before she gets pregnant
B) as soon as she knows she is pregnant
C) anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy
D) as soon as the baby is born

A

A) before she gets pregnant

91
Q

A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins’ blood alcohol levels are equal, yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles for the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence the effects of teratogens.

A) age of the embryo/fetus
B) genes of the parent
C) genes of the embryo/fetus
D) doses of teratogen

A

C) genes of the embryo/fetus

92
Q

Which of the following is a protective factor in pregnancy?

A) Being older than age 35
B) Moderate alcohol consumption
C) Optimal weight gain
D) Minimal exercise

A

C) Optimal weight gain

93
Q

According to research on alcohol consumption, which of the following women is most likely to drink while pregnant?

A) Amber, a 16-year-old high school dropout
B) Latrice, a 20-year-old junior college student
C) Deja, a 25-year-old single mother of two
D) Charlotte, a 35-year-old accountant with a master’s degree

A

D) Charlotte, a 35-year-old accountant with a master’s degree

94
Q

Analysis of umbilical cord blood confirms that fetuses exposed to ______ have lower intelligence test scores and more behavior problems than other children.

A) folic acid
B) chlorpyrifos
C) vitamin D
D) gluten

A

B) chlorpyrifos

95
Q

Genetic counseling may be most useful to parents at which of the following stages?

A) before becoming pregnant
B) during the last month of pregnancy
C) during delivery
D) after the birth of a special needs child

A

A) before becoming pregnant

96
Q

Babies born slightly under 1,500 grams (3 pounds 5 ounces) are considered “_____ -birthweight.”

A) low
B) very low
C) extremely low
D) average

A

B) very low

97
Q

Baby Olivia weighed 2 pounds, 8 ounces at birth. Olivia would be classified as “____ -birthweight.”

A) low
B) very low
C) extremely low
D) average

A

B) very low

98
Q

Newborns born to immigrants are generally healthier in every way, including birthweight, than newborns of U.S.-born women. This phenomenon is called the “______.”

A) sociocultural paradox
B) immigrant paradox
C) ethnic anomaly
D) cultural enigma

A

B) immigrant paradox

99
Q

A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since conception is referred to as “_____.”

A) preterm
B) premature
C) low-birthweight
D) small for gestational age

A

D) small for gestational age

100
Q

Bruno and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just had their first baby. Although Bruno and Juliana’s SES is lower than that of their native-born peers, their baby was born at a healthy weight. This phenomenon is called the “_____ paradox.”

A) immigrant
B) refugee
C) native-born
D) SES

A

A) immigrant

101
Q

Adults who were low-birthweight babies have higher rates of _____.

A) diabetes
B) malnutrition
C) normal-range weight
D) obesity

A

A) diabetes

102
Q

Statistically, which woman is at greatest risk for having a low-birthweight baby?

A) Ashley, who is 27 years old and middle-class
B) Jody, who has been diagnosed with diabetes
C) Kate, who regularly misses meals
D) Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant

A

C) Kate, who regularly misses meals

103
Q

In the United States, which is NOT a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of low-birthweight babies?

A) food insecurity
B) drug use
C) cigarette use
D) genetic factors

A

D) genetic factors

104
Q

Carly just gave birth to her first child two weeks ago. Jeff, Carly’s husband, has noticed that Carly is unable to sleep, talks excessively, and seems extremely concerned that something is wrong with the baby, despite being reassured by the doctor. Carly’s behavior may indicate that she is experiencing ______.

A) postpartum depression
B) bipolar depression
C) schizophrenia
D) a dissociative episode

A

A) postpartum depression

105
Q

Newborn babies do NOT have reflexes designed to _____.

A) maintain oxygen supply
B) maintain a constant body temperature
C) adjust to the difference between day and night
D) manage feeding

A

C) adjust to the difference between day and night

106
Q

Paternal experiences of pregnancy and birth are called ______, expected in some cultures, a normal variation in many, and considered pathological in others.

A) shenkui
B) Saora disorder
C) biological paradox
D) couvade

A

D) couvade

107
Q

Gwen is the mother of newborn Taylor. For the majority of the day, Gwen holds Taylor between her breasts, skin-to-skin. This allows Taylor to listen to Gwen’s heartbeat, as well as feel her mother’s body heat. Gwen is utilizing ____.

A) swaddling
B) neonatal care
C) contact comfort
D) kangaroo care

A

D) kangaroo care

108
Q
The stage of prenatal development that lasts from week 3 through week 8 is the \_\_\_\_\_ period.
A) blastocyst
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) germinal
A

B) embryonic

109
Q

In the fourth week after conception, a minuscule blood vessel that will become the _____ begins to pulsate.

A) lungs
B) stomach
C) kidneys
D) heart

A

D) heart

110
Q

Prenatally, development happens in a “near-to-far / center-out” pattern known as _____.

A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis

A

A) proximodistal

111
Q

The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period.

A) embryonic
B) fetal
C) proximodistal
D) germinal

A

B) fetal

112
Q

The third period of gestation is the _____ period.

A) zygotic
B) emrbyonic
C) germinal
D) fetal

A

D) fetal

113
Q

By the end of the ____ prenatal month, sex organs develop and are soon visible via ultrasound

A) second
B) third
C) fourth
D) fifth

A

B) third

114
Q

Tina went into labor at her home. Joan arrived soon after and began to time Tina’s contractions and give gentle massages. Joan assisted Tina and her partner when it was time to leave for the hospital and accompanied them through the birth process. Joan was Tina’s _____.

A) postpartum nurse
B) doctor
C) couvade
D) doula

A

D) doula

115
Q

A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother’s abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, is also referred to as

A) epidural
B) cesarean section
C) induced labor
D) doula

A

B) cesarean section

116
Q

In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via c-section.

A) 1/3
B) 1/2
C) 2/3
D) 3/4

A

A) 1/3

117
Q

Currently in the United States, newborn mortality is about _____.

A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 150
C) 1 in 200
D) 1 in 250

A

D) 1 in 250

118
Q

Rita is one month pregnant and consults with her doctor about teratogens. The doctor tells her that one category of teratogens is _____.

A) drugs
B) food
C) the media
D) nutrients

A

A) drugs

119
Q

Jill is 5 years old. She has been diagnosed with ADHD and shows signs of learning disabilities. Her doctor suggests that Jill’s problems could be the result of prenatal exposure to _____, though he stresses that the link is not straightforward at this time.

A) chromosomal abnormalities
B) genetic abnormalities
C) cell differentiation
D) behavioral teratogens

A

D) behavioral teratogens

120
Q

Some teratogens have a threshold effect, which means that they are _____.

A) harmful no matter what the level of exposure
B) rarely harmful
C) harmless until exposure reaches a certain level
D) always harmless

A

D) always harmless

121
Q

Low folic acid levels during pregnancy can result in _____.

A) heart defects
B) lung defects
C) limb deformities
D) neural-tube defects

A

D) neural-tube defects

122
Q

Postpartum depression _____.

A) is a normal development and no cause for concern
B) has no treatment
C) does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn
D) can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding

A

D) can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding

123
Q

During the embryonic period, the neural tube will become the _____.

A) reproductive organs
B) intestinal tract
C) backbone, legs, and arms
D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

A

D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

124
Q
The age of viability occurs at about \_\_\_\_ weeks after conception. 
A) 16 
B) 18 
C) 22 
D) 26
A

C) 22

125
Q

In most cases, newborns _____.

A) are unable to breathe on their own.
B) do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut
C) breathe and cry on their own immediately
D) breathe on their own, and cry when the umbilical cord is cut

A

C) breathe and cry on their own immediately

126
Q

Labor that is started, speeded, or strengthened with a drug is referred to as “_____.”

A) a home birth
B) induced labor
C) a cesarean section
D) an epidural

A

B) induced labor

127
Q

Regarding exposure to teratogens, which of the following affect when a threshold is crossed?

A) Age, weight, and health of the mother
B) Dose, timing, frequency, and other teratogens
C) Prenatal care, fetal age, gestational age, and maternal health
D) Paternal age, maternal age, and neurological development in the fetus

A

B) Dose, timing, frequency, and other teratogens

128
Q

Babies born under 1,000 grams (2 pounds 3 ounces) are considered “_____.”

A) low-birthweight
B) very low-birthweight
C) extremely low-birthweight
D) small for gestational age

A

C) extremely low-birthweight

129
Q

_____ is/are implicated in 25 percent of all low-birthweight births worldwide.

A) Pesticides
B) Alcohol
C) Antidepressants
D) Tobacco

A

D) Tobacco

130
Q

A baby born three or more weeks early is called “_____.”

A) premature
B) preterm
C) low-birthweight
D) small for gestational age

A

B) preterm

131
Q

The frequency of low birthweight in the United States is _____.

A) increasing
B) stabilizing
C) among the highest in the world
D) decreasing

A

A) increasing

132
Q

Newborn Sophie experienced a lack of oxygen during childbirth. This is called “_____.”

A) suffocation
B) preeclampsia
C) anoxia
D) incomplete breech

A

C) anoxia

133
Q

Cooperation between a mother and a father based on their mutual commitment to their children is called _____.

A) co-parenting
B) bonding
C) parental alliance
D) parental synchrony

A

C) parental alliance

134
Q

Which of the following statements about parent-infant bonding is true? _____

A) Early skin-to-skin contact is essential for human nurturance.
B) Fathers report that bonding usually occurs in the second half of the first year.
C) Mothers have a more difficult time bonding with their babies than fathers.
D) Early skin-to-skin contact is not essential for human nurturance.

A

D) Early skin-to-skin contact is not essential for human nurturance.

135
Q

The following are categories of teratogens EXCEPT _____

A) drugs
B) pollutants
C) immunisations
D) viruses

A

C) immunisations

136
Q

On average, fetuses gain about ___ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy, which brings the average birthright to about 7.5 pounds.

A) 1.5
B) 2.5
C) 4.5
D) 6.5

A

C) 4.5

137
Q

In the third stage of labor, ____

A) cervix begins to dilate
B) baby’s he’d moves into the birth canal
C) mother experiences intense contractions
D) placenta is delivered

A

D) placenta is delivered

138
Q

The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to ____.

A) evaluate the newborn’s sensory abilities
B) evaluate the health of the new mother
C) help the north recover from childbirth
D) evaluate the health of the newborn

A

D) evaluate the health of the newborn

139
Q

A baby is assessed at one minute after birth according to the Apgar scale. Three of the five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and grimaces. The two vital signs that the medical team is concerned about are _____.

A) muscle tone and heartbeat
B) respiratory effect and color
C) muscle tone and reflex irritability
D) reflex irritability and respiratory effect

A

C) muscle tone and reflex irritability

140
Q

A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for _____.

A) prenatal abnormalities
B) damage to the placenta
C) extra chromosomes
D) male infertility

A

A) prenatal abnormalities

141
Q

The first days and weeks after conception (the germinal and embryonic periods) are _____ for body formation.

A) sensitive
B) critical
C) crucial
D) imperative

A

B) critical

142
Q

Mandy is pregnant, yet she still has four alcoholic drinks each day. Her baby may be at increased risk for the development of _____.

A) fetal alcohol syndrome
B) fetal anoxia syndrome
C) fetal alcohol situation
D) functional alcohol syndrome

A

A) fetal alcohol syndrome

143
Q

Alice is pregnant and wants to ensure that she does everything she can to prevent the occurrence of a neural-tube defect in her child. She makes sure that she has the proper amount of _____ in her diet.

A) vitamin D
B) zinc
C) folic acid
D) vitamin K

A

C) folic acid

144
Q

At around 38 weeks after conception, the ___ starts the the sequences of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor.

A) fetal brain
B) maternal brain
C) placenta
D) germinal period

A

A) fetal brain

145
Q

Compared to vaginal births, c-section births _____.

A) are less expensive
B) increase the risk of complications after birth
C) usually take longer
D) are less safe for the baby

A

B) increase the risk of complications after birth

146
Q

Agents and condition that can harm the prenatal brain, imparting the future child’s intellectual and emotional functioning, care called ____

A) chromosomal abnormalities
B) genetic mutations
C) cell differentiation
D) behavioural teratogens

A

D) behavioural teratogens

147
Q

With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____

A) increase the risk of prenatal abnormalities
B) decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities
C) always cause prenatal abnormalities
D) never cause prenatal abnormalities

A

A) increase the risk of prenatal abnormalities

148
Q

Chantal and Larry are considering having a baby. Chantal’s doctor recommends that they stop using recreational drugs and update their immunizations _____.

A) before Chantal gets pregnant
B) as soon as Chantal knows she is pregnant
C) anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy
D) as soon as the baby is born

A

A) before Chantal gets pregnant

149
Q

Who is most likely to drink alcohol during her pregnancy? A mother who _____.

A) is under age 25
B) never attended college
C) is over age 35
D) belongs to a minority ethnic group

A

C) is over age 35

150
Q

When it comes to the research on prenatal development and teratogens, scientists _____.

A) always agree on the interpretation of research
B) can disagree on the interpretation of research
C) have not yet started to analyze the data
D) tend to disagree with doctors

A

B) can disagree on the interpretation of research

151
Q

Thresholds, as they relate to harm from any teratogen, are difficult to set because one teratogen may _____ the threshold of another teratogen.

A) reduce
B) increase
C) cancel
D) improve

A

A) reduce

152
Q

A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins’ blood alcohol levels are equal, yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles for the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence the effects of teratogens.

A) kinds of substance
B) genes of the parent
C) genes of each twin
D) doses of teratogen

A

C) genes of each twin

153
Q

Which factor influences the effects of teratogens?

A) timing of the teratogen
B) awareness of the parent
C) genes of the mother
D) season of the year

A

A) timing of the teratogen

154
Q

Babies born weighing less than 1,000 grams (2 pounds, 3 ounces) are considered _____.

A) low birthweight
B) very low birthweight
C) extremely low birthweight
D) ultra low birthweight

A

C) extremely low birthweight

155
Q

Babies born weighing slightly less than 1,500 grams (3 pounds, 5 ounces) are considered _____.

A) low birthweight
B) very low birthweight
C) extremely low birthweight
D) ultra low birthweight

A

B) very low birthweight

156
Q

Babies born weighing slightly less than 2,500 grams are considered _____.

A) low birthweight
B) very low birthweight
C) extremely low birthweight
D) ultra low birthweight

A

A) low birthweight

157
Q

A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since conception is referred to as _____.

A) preterm
B) premature
C) low birthweight
D) small for gestational age

A

D) small for gestational age

158
Q

A commitment by both parents to cooperate in raising the child is referred to as parental _____.

A) alliance
B) cooperation
C) commitment
D) support

A

A) alliance

159
Q

A form of newborn care in which mothers (and sometimes fathers) rest their babies on their naked chests is called _____.

A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) parent-infant bond

A

C) kangaroo care

160
Q

Epidurals, often used in hospital births to manage pain during childbirth, have been shown to _____.

A) help prevent unnecessary c-sections
B) encourage breast-feeding from the beginning
C) decrease the newborn’s readiness to suck
D) induce labor

A

C) decrease the newborn’s readiness to suck

161
Q

Drugs, viruses, pollutants, malnutrition, and stress during pregnancy are referred to as “______.”

A) threshold effects
B) risk factors
C) teratogens
D) vulnerability factors

A

C) teratogens

162
Q

Studies show that the timing of pregnancy may increase the risk of negative developmental outcomes. In one study, researchers found that second-born children are twice as likely to have _____ if they are born within a year of the first-born child.

A) autism spectrum disorder
B) ADHD
C) a learning disability
D) cerebral palsy

A

A) autism spectrum disorder

163
Q

A common reason that couples do not seek genetic counseling is that _____.

A) they have never been exposed to teratogens
B) they already eat a well-balanced diet
C) their pregnancy is unplanned
D) they are well over the age of 35

A

C) their pregnancy is unplanned

164
Q

Which of the following statements about international rates of low birthweight is true?

A) The U.S. rate is higher than that of virtually every other developed nation.

B) Japan has the lowest rate of low-birthweight babies in the world.

C) Germany, Denmark, and Australia have higher rates of low birthweight than the U.S.

D) Canada, Sweden, and the U.S. have the lowest rate of low birthweight babies in the world.

A

A) The U.S. rate is higher than that of virtually every other developed nation.

165
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a newborn reflex?

A) sneezing
B) sleeping
C) sucking
D) stepping

A

B) sleeping

166
Q

A person who supports a mother through the birth process from early labor at home through delivery at home or in a hospital is called a _____

A) humanitarian
B) doctor
C) postpartum nurse
D) doula

A

D) doula