Chapter 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

ankyl/o

A

crooked, bent, stiff

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2
Q

arthr/o

A

joint

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3
Q

burs/o

A

bursa

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4
Q

chondr/i, chondr/o

A

cartilage

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5
Q

cost/o

A

rib

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6
Q

crani/o

A

skull

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6
Q

-desis

A

to bind, tie together

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7
Q

kyph/o

A

bent, hump

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8
Q

lord/o

A

curve, swayback, bent

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9
Q

Lumb/o

A

lumbar, lower back

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10
Q

myel/o

A

spinal cord, bone marrow

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11
Q

scoli/o

A

curved, bent

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11
Q

oss/e, oss/i, ost/o, oste/o

A

bone

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12
Q

synovi/o, synov/o

A

synovial membrane, synovial fluid

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13
Q

spondyl/o

A

vertebrae, vertebral column, backbone

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14
Q

a newborn’s skeleton begins as fragile membranes and cartilage, but after three months it starts turning to bone

A

ossification

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15
Q

the tough, fibrous tissue that forms the outermost covering of bone

A

Periosteum

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16
Q

the dense, hard, and very strong bone that forms the protective outer layer of bones.

A

compact bone

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17
Q

porous, lighter and weaker than compact bone. Red bone marrow located within, major bones of the arms and legs and short bones (wrist and ankle)

A

Spongy bone

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18
Q

the central cavity located in the shaft of long bones, where it is surrounded by compact bone

A

medullary cavity

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19
Q

the tissue that lines the medullary cavity

A

endosteum

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20
Q

pertaining to the formation of blood cells

A

hematopoietic

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21
Q

the smooth, rubbery, blue-white connective tissue that acts as a shock absorber between bones

A

cartilage

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21
Q

covers the surfaces of bones where they articulate, or come together, to form joints

A

articular cartilage

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22
Q

the curved, fibrous cartilage found in some joints, such as the knee and the temporomandibular joint of the jaw

A

meniscus

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23
Q

the shaft of a long bone

A

diaphysis

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24
Q

the wider ends of long bones such as the femurs of the legs

A

epiphyses

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25
Q

an opening in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves, and ligaments pass

A

foramen

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26
Q

a normal projection on the surface of a bone that most commonly serves as an attachment for a muscle or tendon

A

process

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27
Q

the place of union between two or more bones

A

joints

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28
Q

consisting of inflexible layers of dense connective tissue, hold the bones tightly together

A

fibrous joints

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29
Q

normally present on the skull of a newborn

A

fontanelles

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30
Q

allow only slight movement and consist of bones connected entirely by cartilage

A

cartilaginous joints

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31
Q

allows some movement to facilitate childbirth

A

pubic symphysis

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32
Q

created where two bones articulate to permit a variety of motions (i.e. ball-and-socket joints, hinge joints)

A

synovial joint

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33
Q

the outermost layer of strong fibrous tissue that resembles a sleeve as it surrounds the joint

A

synovial capsule

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34
Q

lines the capsule and secretes synovial fluid

A

synovial membrane

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35
Q

flows within the synovial cavity, acts as a lubricant to make the smooth movement of the joint possible

A

synovial fluid

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36
Q

bands of fibrous tissue that form joints by connecting one bone to another bone or by joining a bone to cartilage

A

ligaments

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37
Q

a fibrous sac that acts as a cushion to ease movement in areas that are subject to friction, such as in the shoulder, elbow, and knee joints where a tendon passes over a bone

A

bursa

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38
Q

protects the major organs of the nervous, respiratory, and circulatory systems

A

axial skeleton

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39
Q

makes body movement possible and also protects the organs of digestion, excretion, and reproduction

A

appendicular skeleton

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40
Q

consists of the 8 bones that form the cranium, 14 bones that form the face, and 6 bones in the middle ear

A

skull

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41
Q

which is made up of the following eight bones, is the portion of the skull that encloses and protects the brain

A

cranium

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42
Q

the anterior portion of the cranium that forms the forehead

A

frontal bone

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43
Q

two of the largest bones of the skull

A

parietal bones

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44
Q

forms the back part of the skull and the base of the cranium

A

occipital bone

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45
Q

form the sides and base of the cranium

A

temporal bones

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46
Q

the opening of the external auditory canal of the outer ear. this canal is located within the temporal bone on each side of the skull

A

external auditory meatus

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47
Q

an irregular, wedge-shaped bone at the base of the skull

A

sphenoid base

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48
Q

light, spongy bone located at the roof and sides of the nose

A

ethmoid bone

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49
Q

the three tiny bones located in each middle ear

A

auditory ossicles

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50
Q

form the upper part of the bridge of the nose

A

nasal bones

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51
Q

articulate with the frontal bone that makes up the forehead

A

zygomatic bones

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52
Q

form most of the upper jaw

A

maxillary bones

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53
Q

form the anterior part of the hard palate of the mouth and the floor of the nose

A

palatine bones

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54
Q

make up part of the orbit at the inner angle

A

lacrimal bones

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55
Q

the thin, scroll-like bones that form part of the interior of the nose

A

inferior conchae

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56
Q

forms the base for the nasal septum

A

vomer bone

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57
Q

the only moveable bone of the skull

A

mandible

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58
Q

the bony structure that protects the heart and lungs

A

thoracic cavity

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59
Q

attach posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae, 12 pairs

A

ribs

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60
Q

a flat, dagger-shaped bone located in the middle of the chest

A

sternum

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61
Q

the bony structure that forms the upper portion of the sternum

A

manubrium

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62
Q

the bony structure that forms the middle portion of the sternum

A

body of the sternum

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63
Q

the structure made of cartilage that forms the lower portion of the sternum

A

xiphoid process

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64
Q

the shoulders form this which supports the arms and hands

A

pectoral girdle

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65
Q

a slender bone that connects the manubrium of the sternum to the scapula

A

clavicle

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66
Q

also known as the shoulder blade

A

scapula

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67
Q

an extension of the scapula that forms the high point of the shoulder

A

acromion

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68
Q

the bone of the upper arm

A

humerus

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69
Q

the smaller and shorter bone in the forearm; runs up the thumb side of the forearm

A

radius

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70
Q

the larger and longer bone of the forearm

A

ulna

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71
Q

the large, proximal tip of the ulna

A

olecranon

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72
Q

the bones that form the wrist

A

carpals

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73
Q

the five bones that form the palms of the hand

A

metacarpals

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74
Q

the 14 bones of the fingers (and bones of the toes)

A

phalanges

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75
Q

protects the spinal cord and supports the head and body (consists of twenty-six vertebrae

A

spinal column

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76
Q

the posterior portion of a vertebra. The transverse and spinous processes extend from this area and serve as attachments for muscles and tendons

A

lamina

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77
Q

made of cartilage and pads of tissue, separate and cushion the vertebrae from each other and allow for movement of the spinal column

A

intervertebral disks

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78
Q

the first set of seven vertebrae, and they form the neck

A

cervical vertebrae

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79
Q

known as T1 through T12, are the second set of 12 vertebrae. Each of these vertebrae has a pair of ribs attached to it, and together they form the outward curve of the spine.

A

thoracic vertebrae

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80
Q

known as L1 through L5, make up the third set of five vertebrae, and together they form the inward curve of the power spine

A

lumbar vertebrae

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81
Q

the slightly curved, triangular-shaped bone near the base of the spine that forms the lower portion of the back

A

sacrum

82
Q

forms the end of the spine and is actually made up of four small vertebrae that are entirely or partially fused together

A

coccyx

83
Q

protects internal organs and supports the lower extremities

A

pelvis

84
Q

the broad, blade-shaped bone that forms the back and sides of the pubic bone

A

ilium

85
Q

the slightly movable articulation between the sacrum and posterior portion of the ilium

A

sacroiliac

86
Q

forms the lower posterior portion of the pubic bone, bears the weight of the body when sitting

A

ischium

87
Q

forms the anterior portion of the pubic bone, is located just below the urinary bladder

A

pubis

88
Q

the ilium, ischium, and pubis bones separate at birth fuse as the child matures to form the left and right ______

A

pubic bones

89
Q

the cartilaginous joint that unites the left and right pubic bones

A

pubic symphysis

90
Q

the large circular cavity in each side of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint

A

acetabulum

91
Q

the largest bones in the body

A

femurs

92
Q

the bony anterior portion of the knee

A

patella

93
Q

describes the posterior space behind the knee where the ligaments, vessels, and muscles related to this joint are located

A

popliteal

94
Q

make possible the movements of the knee

A

cruciate ligaments

95
Q

the larger anterior weight-bearing bone of the lower leg

A

tibia

96
Q

the smaller of the two bones of the lower leg

A

fibula

97
Q

seven bones that make up the ankle

A

tarsal

98
Q

rounded bony projection on the tibia and fibula on the sides of each ankle joint

A

malleolus

99
Q

the ankle bone that articulates with the tibia and fibula

A

talus

100
Q

the largest of the tarsal bones

A

calcaneus

101
Q

the five form that part of the foot to which the toes are unattached

A

metatarsals

102
Q

the bones of the toes; the great toe has 2, each of the other toes has three

A

phalanges

103
Q

holds a doctor of chiropractic degree and specializes in the manipulative treatment of disorders originating from misalignment of the spine

A

chiropractor

104
Q

a physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating diseases and disorders involving the bones, joints, and muscles.

A

orthopedic surgeon

105
Q

holds a doctor of osteopathy degree and uses traditional forms of medical treatment in addition to specializing in treating health problems by spinal manipulation

A

osteopath

106
Q

holds a doctor of podiatry or doctor of podiatric medicine degree and specializes in diagnosing and treating disorders of the foot

A

podiatrist

107
Q

a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of arthritis and disorders such as osteoporosis, fibromyalgia, and tendinitis that are characterized by inflammation in the joints and connective tissues

A

rheumatologist

108
Q

the loss or absence of mobility in a joint due to disease, injury, or a surgical procedure

A

ankylosis

109
Q

painful ankylosis of the shoulder

A

adhesive capsulitis

110
Q

stiffness of the joints, especially in the elderly

A

arthrosclerosis

111
Q

a fluid-filled sac behind the knee

A

Baker’s cyst

112
Q

an inflammation of a bursa

A

bursitis

113
Q

the abnormal softening of cartilage

A

chondromalacia

114
Q

an inflammation of the cartilage that connects a rib to the sternum

A

costochondritis

115
Q

an abnormal enlargement of the joint at the base of the great toe

A

hallux valgus

116
Q

blood within a joint

A

hemarthrosis

117
Q

an inflammatory disorder of the muscles and joints characterized by pain and stiffness in the neck, shoulders, upper arms, and hips and thighs

A

polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)

118
Q

inflammation of the synovial membrane that results in swelling and pain of the affected joint

A

synovitis

119
Q

the total displacement of a bone from its joint

A

dislocation

120
Q

the partial displacement of a bone from its joint

A

subluxation

121
Q

an inflammatory condition of one or more joints

A

arthritis

122
Q

most commonly associated with aging, known as wear-and-tear arthritis

A

osteoarthritis

123
Q

bone spurs, these bony projections can cause pain or restrict movement in a joint

A

osteophytes

124
Q

this degenerative disorder can cause the loss of normal spinal structure and function

A

spondylosis

125
Q

a type of inflammatory arthritis characterized by deposits of urate crystals in the joints, often the big toe

A

Gout

125
Q

a chronic autoimmune disorder in which the joints and some organs of other body systems are attacked

A

rheumatoid arthritis

126
Q

a type of arthritis that primarily causes inflammation of the joints between the vertebrae

A

ankylosing spondylitis

127
Q

an autoimmune disorder that affects children ages 16 years or younger, with symptoms that include stiffness, pain, joint swelling, skin rash, fever, slowed growth, and fatigue.

A

juvenile idiopathic arthritis

128
Q

an inflammatory form of arthritis developed by about 20% of all people with the autoimmune skin disease psoriasis

A

psoriatic arthritis

129
Q

the breaking apart of an intervertebral disk resulting in a bulge that can put pressure on spinal nerve roots

A

herniated disk

130
Q

the general term for pain in the lumbar region of the spine

A

lumbago

131
Q

the forward slipping movement of the body of one of the lower lumbar vertebrae on the vertebra or sacrum below it

A

spondylolisthesis

132
Q

a congenital defect that occurs during early pregnancy when the spinal canal falls to close completely around the spinal cord to protect it

A

spina bifida

133
Q

an abnormal increase in the outward curvature of the thoracic spine as viewed from the side

A

kyphosis

134
Q

an abnormal increase in the forward curvature of the lumbar spine

A

lordosis

135
Q

an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

scoliosis

136
Q

an area of bone tissue death caused by insufficient blood flow, often to the hip

A

avascular necrosis

137
Q

an inflammation of a bone

A

osteitis

138
Q

abnormal softening of bones in adults. often caused by vitamin d deficiency

A

osteomalacia

139
Q

inflammation of the bone marrow and adjacent bone

A

osteomyelitis

140
Q

a chronic bone disease of unknown cause; the condition is characterized by the abnormal breakdown of bone, usually in the pelvis, skull, spine, and legs, followed by abnormal bone formation

A

Paget’s disease

141
Q

an inflammation of the periosteum

A

periostitis

142
Q

a condition caused by the compression of a nerve in the spine

A

radiculopathy

143
Q

a deficiency disease occurring in children. this condition is characterized by defective bone growth resulting from a lack of vitamin d necessary for the body to maintain calcium and phosphorus levels in the bones

A

rickets

144
Q

a narrowing of the spaces within the spine, potentially putting pressure on the nerves and spinal cord that may cause pain

A

spinal stenosis

144
Q

describes any congenital deformity of the foot involving the talus

A

clubfoot

145
Q

dwarfism; a person whose height is much lower than average

A

short stature

146
Q

a relatively rare malignant tumor that originates in a bone

A

primary bone cancer

147
Q

occurs when cancer cells metastasize to the bones from other organs such as the breasts, prostate, or lungs

A

secondary bone cancer

148
Q

a type of cancer that occurs in blood-making plasma cells found in the red bone marrow

A

multiple myeloma

149
Q

a benign bony projection covered with cartilage

A

osteochondroma

150
Q

a marked loss of bone density and an increase in bone porosity frequently associated with aging

A

osteoporosis

151
Q

thinner-than-average bone density

A

osteopenia

152
Q

occurs when the bone is pressed together on itself

A

compression fracture

153
Q

This fracture occurs at the lower end of the radius, often when a person tries to stop a fall by landing on his of her hands. the impact of the fall causes the bone weakened by osteoporosis to break

A

colles fracture

154
Q

usually caused by weakening of the bones due to osteoporosis and can occur either spontaneously or as the result of a fall. complications from these fractures can result in the loss of function, mobility, and independence, or death.

A

osteoporotic hip fracture

155
Q

described in terms of its complexity, a “broken bone”

A

fracture

156
Q

one in which the bone is broken, but there is no open wound in the skin

A

closed fracture

157
Q

one in which the bone is broken and there is an open wound in the skin

A

open fracture

158
Q

the bone is splintered or crushed (in small pieces)

A

comminuted fracture

159
Q

the bone does not break into two separate pieces, occurs primarily in children

A

incomplete fracture

160
Q

one side of the bone is broken and the other side is only bent

A

greenstick fracture

161
Q

the affected side of the bone is compressed and buckles but does not break

A

buckle fracture

162
Q

occurs at an angle across the bone

A

oblique fracture

163
Q

occurs when a bone breaks under normal stain. this is due to bones being weakened by osteoporosis or a disease process such as cancer

A

pathologic fracture

164
Q

an overuse injury, is a small crack in the bone that often develops from chronic excessive impact

A

stress fracture

165
Q

occurs straight across, perpendicular to the shaft of the bone

A

transverse fracture

166
Q

can form when a long bone is fractured due to an accident of surgery, and fat cells from yellow bone marrow are released into the blood

A

fat embolus

167
Q

the grating sound heard when the ends of a broken bone move together

A

crepitation

168
Q

as the bone heals, forms as a bulging deposit around the area of the break. this tissue eventually becomes bone

A

callus

169
Q

uses a form of electromagnetic radiation, these images help visualize bone fractures and other abnormalities of hard-tissue internal structures

A

x-ray imaging

170
Q

the visual examination of the internal structure of a joint

A

arthroscopy

171
Q

a diagnostic test that may be necessary after abnormal types or numbers of red or white blood cells are found in a complete blood count test

A

bone marrow biopsy

172
Q

used to image soft tissue structures such as the interior of complex joints

A

magnetic resonance imaging

173
Q

used to determine losses or changes in bone density. these tests are used to diagnose conditions such as osteoporosis, osteomalacia, osteopenia, and paget’s disease

A

bone density testing (BDT)

174
Q

a screening test of osteoporosis or other conditions that cause a loss of bone mass

A

ultrasonic bone density testing

175
Q

a low-exposure radiographic measurement of the spine and hips to measure bone density

A

dual x-ray absorptiometry

176
Q

a class of drugs used to slow the loss of bone density due to osteoporosis, reducing the risk of broken bones

A

bisphosphonates

177
Q

a stem cell transplant used to treat certain types of cancers, such as leukemia and lymphomas

A

bone marrow transplant

178
Q

uses healthy bone marrow cells from a compatible donor, often a sibling. unless this is a perfect match, there is the danger that the recipient’s body will reject the transplant

A

allogenic bone marrow transplant

179
Q

the patient receives his or her own bone marrow cells, which have been harvested, cleansed, treated, and stored before the remaining bone marrow in the patient’s body undergoes treatment

A

autologous bone marrow transplant

180
Q

means originating within an individual

A

autologous

181
Q

a mechanical appliance, such as a show insert leg brace, or a splint, which is specially designed to support, control, correct, or compensate for impaired limb function.

A

orthotic

182
Q

a substitute for a diseased or missing body part, such as the leg that has been amputated

A

prosthesis

183
Q

the surgical fusion of two bones to stiffen a joint, such as an ankle, elbow, or shoulder

A

arthrodesis

184
Q

a minimally invasive procedure for the treatment of the interior of a joint

A

arthroscopic surgery

185
Q

a surgical procedure using transplanted bone, often from a hip, leg, or rib, to repair and rebuild bones damaged by injury or disease

A

bone grafting

186
Q

the surgical removal of a synovial membrane from a joint, usually the knee

A

synovectomy

187
Q

the surgical repair of a damaged joint

A

arthroplasty

188
Q

a procedure in which only part of the knee is replaced. This can be the medial or lateral part of the joint, or the front patella.

A

partial knee replacement

188
Q

all of the parts of the knee are replaced

A

total knee replacement

189
Q

performed to restore a damaged hip to full function. During the surgery, a plastic liner with a metal shell is fitted into the acetabulum to restore a smooth surface

A

total hip replacement

190
Q

the replacement of a worn or failed implant

A

revision surgery

191
Q

the surgical or accidental removal of a limb

A

amputation

192
Q

performed to treat a herniated intervertebral disk that does not respond to physical therapy or other treatments

A

percutaneous diskectomy

193
Q

performed to treat osteoporosis-related compression fractures. In this minimally invasive procedure, bone cement is injected to stabilize compression fractures within the spinal column

A

percutaneous vertebroplasty

194
Q

the surgical removal of the lamina, or posterior portion, of a vertebra

A

laminectomy

194
Q

a technique to immobilize part of the spine by joining together two or more vertebrae

A

spinal fusion

195
Q

the surgical removal of a portion of the skull

A

decompressive craniectomy

196
Q

a surgical incision or opening into the skull

A

craniotomy

197
Q

surgical cutting and reshaping of a bone

A

osteotomy

198
Q

the attempted non surgical realignment of the bone involved in a fracture or joint dislocation

A

closed reduction

199
Q

the act of holding, suturing, or fastening the bone in a fixed position with strapping or a cast

A

immobilization

200
Q

a pulling force exerted on a limb in a distal direction in an effort to return the bone or joint to normal alignment

A

traction

201
Q

a fracture treatment procedure in which pins are placed through the soft tissues and bone so that an external appliance can be used to hold the pieces of bone firmly in place during healing

A

external fixation

202
Q

a fracture treatment in which a plate or pins are placed directly into the bone to hold the borken pieces in place

A

internal fixation