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Pharmacology 2 > Chapter 3 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is defined as a low molecular weight substance produced by a microorganism that at low concentrations inhibits or kills other microorganisms

A

antibiotic

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2
Q

what includes any substance of natural, semisynthetic, or synthetic origin that kills or inhibits the growth of a microorganism but causes little or no damage to the host

A

antimicrobial

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3
Q

true or false:
there are no specific guidelines for dose adjustments on antibiotics

A

true

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4
Q

what are the practical uses of antibiotics

A

-right antibiotic
-right patient
-right dose
-right duration of action
-right route of administration
-monitor the patient throughly

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5
Q

what should be one of the most important considerations when you are choosing an antibiotic

A

if its effective against the bacteria

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6
Q

what type of antibacterial agent only inhibits gram + or gram -

A

narrow-spectrum

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7
Q

what type of antibacterial agent inhibits both gram + and gram -

A

broad-spectrum

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8
Q

true or false:
a pathogen’s susceptibility should be a main point when deciding on the selection of an antibiotic

A

true

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9
Q

what are some differences to consider when setting MIC measurements for drugs

A
  1. concentrations are fixed over time in incubation
  2. growth medium may differ physiologically
  3. testing doesn’t include host factors
  4. growth inhibition is the end point
  5. no info on persistent effects
  6. virulence factors
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10
Q

when designing treatments, what is considered the most important factors governing the selection for clinical veterinary use

A

Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing (AST)

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11
Q

what may AST results not always provide

A

accurate prediction of clinical outcome

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12
Q

when is there the most concern for AST

A

no animal species and infection-specific veterinary clinical breakpoints are available

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13
Q

what are the 3 parameters to assess a clinical breakpoint

A
  1. epidemiological cut-off value (ECOFF)
  2. MIC to define a PK/PD cut off
  3. clinical cut-off value
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14
Q

what does the epidemiological cut-off value mean

A

highest MIC for bacteria free of detectable aquired resistance mechanisms

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15
Q

what data is combined to result in clinical breakpoints

A

MIC values
PK/PD indices
clinical outcome results

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16
Q

what type of antibiotic kills bacteria

A

bactericidal

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17
Q

what type of antibiotic inhibits bacterial growth without killing them

A

bacteriostatic

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18
Q

what is the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent required to prevent the growth of the pathogen

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

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19
Q

what is the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent required to kill the pathogen

A

minimum bactericidal concentration

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20
Q

what are the most important drivers of drug efficacy

A

optimal dosing
pharmacokinetics
tissue penetration

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21
Q

at concentrations equal to the MIC of a pathogen, which drug acts bacteriostatic rather than as bactericidal

A

fluoroquinolones

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22
Q

which drug, normally bacteriostatic against most gram-negative bacteria, is bactericidal against Haemophilus influenzae and strep.

A

chlorampheniol

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23
Q

what can vary a drug’s bactericidal activites

A

intracellular pH
oxygen content
intracellular enzymatic activity

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24
Q

which chemical groups of antibiotics are concentration dependent

A

fluoroquinolones
aminoglycosides
nitroimidazoles
polymixins

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25
Q

which chemical groups of antibiotics are time-dependent

A

penicillins
cephalosporines
macrolides & triamilides
lincosamides
phenicols
sulfonamides
diaminopyrimidines

26
Q

which chemical groups of antibiotics are co-dependent for killing needing duration of exposure and maintained drug concentration

A

tetracyclines
ketolides
glycopeptides

27
Q

what are the 2 ways antimicrobial agents are often classified

A

time-dependent
concentration-dependent

28
Q

what can the combination of AUC and MIC values be used to predict

A

probability of bacterial eradication
clinical success

29
Q

what does T/MIC mean

A

increasing the concentration over the MIC curve will not increase the efficacy of a drug. This drug needs to have a longer time limit at a constant concentration

30
Q

what does AUC/MIC or Cmax/MIC mean

A

these drugs will need increased drug concentrations above the MIC

31
Q

what can control the achieved concentration

A

systemic availability

32
Q

what is systemic availability variable by

A

dosage form
route of administration
ability of drug to gain access
volume distribution

33
Q

true or false:
parenteral therapy should never be used in the treatment of severe infections

A

false
it should always be used

34
Q

when would it be most appropriate to use an oral therapy in dogs and cats

A

mild to moderate infections

35
Q

what will enhance passage of a drug across barriers

A

inflammation

36
Q

define a synergistic antibacterial combination

A

combined effects are significantly greater than the independent effects

37
Q

define an antagonistic antibacterial combination

A

combined effects are significantly less than their independent effects

38
Q

which type of antibiotic interferes with the final stage of peptidoglycan synthesis

A

beta-lactams

39
Q

what do beta-lactams prevent

A

formation of bacterial cell wall (inhibit activity of PBPs)

40
Q

what type of action do beta-lactam drugs have on bacteria

A

bactericidal

41
Q

what causes a difference in susceptibility between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

A

differences in receptors sites (PBPs)
relative amount of peptidoglycan present
ability of drug to penetrate the outer cell membrane
resistance to beta-lactamase enzymes

42
Q

which group of penicillin has procaine as a derivative

A

benzyl penicillin

43
Q

which group of penicillin has a derivative of cloxacillin, dicloxacillin & oxacillin

A

anti-staphylococcal isoxazolyl penicillins

44
Q

which group of penicillins has a derivative of ampicillin & amoxicillin

A

extended - broad spectrum penicillins

45
Q

which group of penicillins has a derivative of ticarcillin

A

antipseudomonal penicillins

46
Q

which penicillin is the only one whose oral bioavailability is great enough to warrant oral administration

A

amoxicillin

47
Q

where are penicillins predominantly ionised

A

plasma

48
Q

how are penicillins eliminated from the body

A

almost entirely from the kidneys

49
Q

true or false:
since penicillin is eliminated through the renal system, glomerular filtration and tubular secretion need to be intact to maintain safe concentrations within the body

A

true

50
Q

what can be used to increase penicillin resident time in the body

A

probenecid - inhibits tubular secretion

51
Q

what are penicillins normally synergistic with

A

aminoglycosides - enhance the penetration of the aminoglycoside of the bacteria

52
Q

what are the possible adverse effects of penicillins

A

acute anaphylaxis
collapse
mild hypersensitivity reactions

53
Q

true or false:
penicillins are not cross-sensitising or cross-reactive

A

false

54
Q

what is a possible consequence when taking broad-spectrum penicillins

A

disturbance of the normal intestinal flora

55
Q

what animals should not be given ampicillin due to their intestinal normal flora containing clostridial colitis

A

small rodents - rabbits, hamsters, gerbils ect.

56
Q

which antibiotic is inherently more resistant to beta-lactamases than penicillin

A

cephalosporins

57
Q

which groups of cephalosporin primarily only have gram-positive activity

A

group 1
group 2

58
Q

which group of cephalosporins have gram-positive and gram-negative activity

A

group 3

59
Q

which group of cephalosporin has decreased gram-positive but increase gram-negative activity

A

group 4
group 5
group 6

60
Q

which group of cephalosporin has increased gram-positive and gram-negative activity

A

group 7

61
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms of resistance to cephalosporins can create

A

PBP modification
reduced permeability
increased efflux
enzymatic degradation by beta-lactamases

62
Q

what antibiotic are cephalosporins synergistic with

A

aminoglycosides

Pharmacology 2 (11 decks)

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