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Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology > Chapter 2: Abnormalities of Teeth > Flashcards

Chapter 2: Abnormalities of Teeth Flashcards

1
Q

___ in the developing tooth germ are extremely sensitive to external stimuli

A

ameloblasts

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2
Q

what are some examples of environmental factors that can result in tooth abnormalities?

A
  • birth-related trauma
  • chemicals (tetracycline and fluoride)
  • radiation therapy
  • infections (chicken pox, syphilis)
  • malnutrition (vitamin deficiency)
  • metabolic disorders
  • neurologic disorders
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3
Q

when do crowns of deciduous teeth develop?

A

14 weeks gestation through 12 months of age

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4
Q

when do crowns of permanent teeth develop?

A

from 6 months of age to 15 years

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5
Q

___ is characterized as enamel defects seen in permanent teeth casued by periapical inflammatory disease of the overlying deciduous tooth

A

turner’s hypoplasia

aka turner’s tooth

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6
Q

where is turner’s hypoplasia most commonly seen?

A

in the permanent bicuspids because of their relationship to the overlying deciduous molars

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7
Q

___ is excess amounts of fluoride that can result in significant enamel defects

A

dental fluorosis

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8
Q

what is the major concern of dental fluorosis?

A

aesthetics (anterior teeth)

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9
Q

the critical period for clinically significant dental fluorosis is during ___, when anterior teeth are developing

A

the second and third years of life

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10
Q

optimum fluoridation of drinking water is around ___ppm

A

0.7ppm

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11
Q

to avoid dental fluorosis, ___ should be avoided in children less than 2 years

A

fluoridated toothpaste

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12
Q

what are the tooth abnormalities caused by congenital syphilis?

A
  • rare
  • anterior teeth are termed “hutchinson’s incisors”
  • look like a flathead screwdriver
  • altered posterior teeth called “mulberry molars”
  • hutchison’s triad
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13
Q

___ is the loss of tooth structure caused by tooth-tooth contact

A

attrition

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14
Q

___ is the pathologic wearing away of tooth structure

A

abrasion

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15
Q

what is hutchison’s triad?

A
  • hutchison’s teeth
  • interstitial keratitis (corneal scarring)
  • 8th nerve deafness
  • *other manifestation is a saddle nose (not part of the triad)
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16
Q

what is demastication?

A

exhibits features of both attrition and abrasion (ex. chewing tobacco between opposing teeth)

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17
Q

___ is the loss of tooth structure caused by a nonbacterial chemical process

A

erosion

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18
Q

erosion from dental exposure to gastric secretions is termed ___

A

perimolysis

(can be from GERD or bulemia)

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19
Q

___ is the loss of tooth structure from occlusal stresses that create repeated tooth flexure

A

abfraction

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20
Q

what are 5 general things that can be caused by developmental disturbances of teeth?

A
  • size (macrodontia, microdontia)
  • eruption (impaction, ankylosis)
  • shape (gemination, fusion, concrescence, dilaceration)
  • structure (accessory cusps, dens evaginatus, dens invaginatus, taurodontism)
  • number (anodontia, hypo-, hyper-)
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21
Q

___ is lack of tooth development

A

anodontia

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22
Q

anodontia is rare, and most cases occur in the presence of ___

A

hereditary hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia

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23
Q

___ is the lack of one or more teeth

A

hypodontia

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24
Q

___ is the lack of 6 or more teeth

A

oligodontia

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25
Q

the absence of a deciduous tooth is likely to also miss the ___

A

associated permanent tooth

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26
Q

which teeth are most commonly affected by hypodontia?

A

3rd molars first, thend 2nd premolars and lateral incisors

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27
Q

___ is a term for a supernumerary tooth/teeth

A

hyperdontia

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28
Q

the most common site of hyperdontia is ___

A

the maxillary incisor region (mesiodens)

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29
Q

___ is abnormal eruption where the tooth erupts in an abnormal location

A

transposition

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30
Q

___ is the failure of a tooth to fully erupt

A

ankylosis

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31
Q

___ is a single englarged tooth or joined tooth in which the tooth count is normal when the anomalous tooth is counted as one

A

gemination

32
Q

___ is characterized by many supernumerary teeth and the failure of clavicles to form, so the shoulders will be in a forward and medial position

A

cleidocranial dysplasia

33
Q

___ is described as a single enlarged tooth or joined tooth in which the tooth count reveals a missing tooth when the anomalous tooth is counted as one

A

fusion

34
Q

___ is characterized by a traumatic ulcer of the soft tissues due to natal teeth

A

riga-fede disease

35
Q

___ is a bend in the tooth root

A

dilaceration

36
Q

___ is usually seen in association with shovel-shaped incisors

A

dens invaginatus

37
Q

what are the most commonly impacted teeth?

A

mandibular 3rd molars > maxillary 3rd molars > maxillary canines

38
Q

what is the common clinical presentation dens evaginatus?

A
  • typically occurs on premolar teeth
  • usually bilateral and more common in the mandibular arch
39
Q

dens evaginatus has what prevalence in native americans and the inuit populations? (also common in asians)

A

100%

40
Q

densi-in-dente is also known as ___

A

dens invaginatus

41
Q

what is dens-in-dente

A
  • tooth within a tooth
  • deep surface invagination of the crown or root that is lined by enamel
42
Q

what is the frequency of dens-in-dente?

A

permanent lateral incisors > central incisors > premolars > canines > molars

43
Q

___ is an enlargement of the body and pulp chamber of a multi-rooted tooth, with apical displacement of the pulpal floor

A

taurodontism

44
Q

taurodontism can be isolated or syndromic. what are 3 examples?

A
  • kleinfelters syndrome (XXY)
  • amelogenesis imperfecta
  • tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
45
Q

what is tricho-dento-osseous syndrome?

A

in addition to the dental fillings, the predominant systemic changes are present variably and include kinky hair, osteosclerosis (base of skull and mastoid process), and brittle nails

46
Q

___ is non neoplastic deposition of excessive cementum that is continuous with the normal radicular cementum

A

hypercementosis

47
Q

what are the local factors of hypercementosis?

A
  • occlusal trauma
  • adjacent inflammation (pulpal, periapical, periodontal)
48
Q

what are the systemic factors of hypercementosis?

A

Paget’s disease of bone is strongly associated with generalized hypercementosis

49
Q

what is the frequency of dilaceration?

A

mandibular 3rd molars > maxillary 2nd molars > mandibular 2nd molars

50
Q

___ is described as developmental alterations in the structure of enamel in the absence of a systemic disorder

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

51
Q

amelogenesis imperfecta is divided into what 3 defects?

A
  • elaboration (aka deposition) of the enamel matrix (hypoplastic)
  • mineralization of the matrix (hypocalcified)
  • maturation of the enamel (hypomaturation)
52
Q

does amelogenesis imperfecta involve both the deciduous and permanent dentition?

A

yes

53
Q

enamel pearls are the most common form of ___ and are found most frequently on the roots of maxillary molars

A

ectopic enamel

54
Q

hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta involves inadequate deposition of ___

A

enamel matrix

55
Q

what type of amelogenesis imperfecta involves any matrix present that is mineralized appropriately and radiographically contrasts well with underlying dentin?

A

hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta

56
Q

describe the different subtypes of hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta and their clinical manifestations

A
  • pinpoint pits scattered across tooth surface
  • thin, hard, smooth, glossy enamel; teeth shaped like crown preps; color is opaque white to transclucent brown
  • thin, hard, rough enamel; yellow teeth
  • total lack of enamel formation; yellow-brown dentin
57
Q

hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta invovles a defect in the ___

A

maturation of the enamel’s crystal structure

58
Q

what type of amelogenesis imperfecta involves enamel matrix that is laid down appropriately and begins to mineralize?

A

hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta

59
Q

describe the clinical presentation of hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta

A
  • teeth are normal in shape
  • mottled, opaque white-brown-yellow discoloration
  • enamel is soft and chips away from dentin
60
Q

what are the 3 different patterns of hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • pigmented: surface enamel is agar-brown
  • x-linked: varies
  • snow-capped: white opaque enamel on the incisal/occlusal 1/3
61
Q

what type of amelogenesis imperfecta involves matrix that is laid down appropriately and does NOT mineralize?

A

hypocalcified

62
Q

describe the clinical presentation of hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta

A
  • teeth are appropriately shaped
  • enamel is soft and easily lost
  • enamel starts as yellow-brown or orange and becomes brown to black with rapid calculus apposition
63
Q

what are the main problems with amelogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • esthetics, dental sensitivity, loss of vertical dimension
  • increased prevalence of caries, anterior open bite, delayed eruption, tooth impaction, gingival inflammation
64
Q

___ is a hereditary developmental disturbance of dentin in the absence of any systemic disorder

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

65
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta involves a mutation of the ___ gene

A

dentin sialophosphoprotein (DSPP)

66
Q

if dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs with osteogenesis imperfecta, it is termed ___

A
  • osteogenesis imperfecta with opalescent teeth
    • blue sclera
    • mutation of the COL1A1 or COL1A2
67
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta occurs most commonly in what population?

A

caucasians

68
Q

are both dentitions affected by dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

yes, and deciduous teeth are affected most severely

69
Q

with dentinogenesis imperfecta, are full dentures commonly needed?

A

yes, usually by age 30

70
Q

how does dentinogenesis imperfecta present clinically?

A
  • blue-to-brown discoloration with distinctive translucence
  • shell teeth = normal thickness enamel with extremely thin dentin and dramatically enlarged pulps
71
Q

how does dentinogenesis imperfecta present radiographically?

A
  • bulbous crowns
  • cervical constriction
  • thin roots
  • early obliteration of root canals and pulp chambers
72
Q

describe type I dentin dysplasia

A
  • “rootless teeth”
  • autosomal dominant
  • enamel and coronal dentin are normal
  • radicular dentin loses organization and is shortened dramatically
  • “stream flowing around boulders”
73
Q

describe type II dentin dysplasia

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • root length is normal
  • blue-to-amber-to-brown translucence
  • radiographically - bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, thin roots, early obliteration of the pulp
  • altered pulpal anatomy - thistle tube-shaped, pulp stones
74
Q

dentin dysplasia does not have a correlation with ___ or ___

A

systemic disease or dentinogenesis imperfecta

75
Q

which type of dentin dysplasia is closely related to dentinogenesis imperfecta?

A

type II

76
Q

___ is a localized, non-hereditary developmental abnormality of teeth with extensive adverse effects on the formation of enamel, dentin, and pulp

A

regional odontodysplasia

they look like “ghost teeth”

Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology (45 decks)

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