Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology > Chapter 12: Soft Tissue Tumors > Flashcards

Chapter 12: Soft Tissue Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

what is the treatment of a palisaded encaspulated neuroma?

A

surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

are most melanotic neuroectodermal tumors of infancy benign or malignant?

A

benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia is a condition related to what 3 things?

A
  • ill-fitting denture
  • poor denture hygiene
  • wearing a denture 24 hours/day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the appearance of peripheral ossifying fibroma?

A

nodular mass, usually originating from the dental papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___% of peripheral ossifying fibromas recur. why?

A

15%, usually because the base of the lesion was not removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A

giant cell fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A

multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B

notice the multiple mucosal neromas on the tongue and the bilateral neuromas of the commissural mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
A

palisaded encapsulated neuroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

___ of neurofibromatosis type I is pathognomonic

A

plexiform variant

feels like a bag of worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
A

sturge-weber angiomatosis

ipsilateral hypervascular changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

are pyogenic granulomas more common in males or females?

A
  • females
  • frequently occurs in pregnant women, most commonly in the 1st trimester
  • some regress after pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

leptomeningeal angiomas are typically associated with a ___, and may result in mental retardation or ___

A
  • convulsive disorder
  • contralateral hemiplagia (one-sided paralysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

lipomas are the most common ___ neoplasm

A

mesenchymal

more common on the trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is the mechanism by which tumors can spread to the oral cavity well understood?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A

peripheral giant cell granuloma

notice the bluish color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the two types of rhabdomyomas?

A
  • adult
    • 70% in adult men
    • nodular mass most commonly occurring int he pharynx and floor of mouth
  • fetal
    • young male patients
    • predilection for the face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

endemic (african) kaposi’s sarcoma has 4 subtypes. what are they?

A
  • benign nodular (similar to classic)
  • aggressive
  • florid
  • lymphadenopathic (children)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type I and how many do you need for a positive diagnosis?

A

need 2 or more for a positive diagnosis

  • six or more cafe au lait macules
    • “coast of california”
  • two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma
  • freckling in the axillary region (crowe’s sign)
  • optic glioma
  • two or more iris hamartomas (lisch nodules)
  • osseous lesion such as sphenoid dysplasia
  • first degree relative with neurofibromatosis type I
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the treatment for fibromas?

A

conservative surgical exision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A

port wine stain aka nevus flammeus characteristic of sturge-weber angiomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe the classic type of kaposi’s sarcoma

A
  • 80% in older men
  • italian, jewish, or slavic descent
  • multiple, asymptomatic blue-purple macules on the lower extremities which grow into nodules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

___ is reactive hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue in response to local irritation or trauma

A

fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the treatment of peripheral ossifying fibroma?

A

excision down to periosteum and scale adjacent teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the clinical presentation of lymphangiomas?

A

frog eggs or tapioca pudding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A

granular cell tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pyogenic granulomas may exhibit ___ growth

A

rapid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

50-75% of lymphangiomas are in what location?

A

head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the treatment of lipomas?

A

surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

___ is a reactive tissue growth that develops under a denture

A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

patients with sturge-weber angiomatosis have what two characteristic features?

A
  • port wine stain (aka nevus flammeus)
  • leptomeningeal angiomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

congenital epulis’ are 3x more common in the maxillary or mandibular alveolar ridge? what specific location is most frequent?

A
  • maxillary
  • most frequently where the developing lateral incisor-canine area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A

neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the treatment for a granular cell tumor?

A

conservative excision is typically curative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

___ is a benign tumor of lymphatic vessels

A

lymphangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

primary malignancies from adjacent tissues may spread via ___

A

lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

leptomeningeal angiomas overly the ipsilateral or contralateral cerebral cortex?

A

ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe a possible explanation of head and neck metastases in the absence of lung metastases

A

batson’s plexus

  • this is a valveless vertebral venous plexus that might allow retrograde spread of tumor cells and bypass the lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the most common location of neurofibromas? what about intraoral sites?

A
  • skin is the most common overall
  • intraoral lesions are common on the tongue and buccal mucosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

most patients with inflammatory papillary hyperplasia also have ___

A

a candidal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

___ neuromas of the ___ mucosa are highly characteristic of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B

A

bilateral neuromas of the commissural mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
A

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how many recognized forms of neurofibromatosis are there, and what is the most common form?

A
  • 8 forms
  • neurofibromatosis type I
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

are schwannomas typically symptomatic or asymptomatic?

A

asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia typically occurs where?

A

on the hard palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the average age of someone with a palisaded encapsulated neuroma?

A

50yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
A

retrocuspid papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

___ is the most common type of peripheral nerve neoplasm

A

neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is the treatment for inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia?

A

surgical removal and remake the denture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

rhabdomyosarcomas make up ___% of soft tissue sarcomas of childhood, and ___% are found in the head and neck

A
  • 60%
  • 35%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the histologic features of a schwannoma?

A
  • antoni A - streaming fascicles of spindle-shaped schwann cells which form a palisaded arrangement around central acellular, eosinophilic areas known as verocay bodies
  • antoni B - basically everything that’s not antoni A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the treatment for rhabdomyomas?

A

excision is curative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

describe traumatic neuromas

A
  • not a true neoplasm; it is a proliferation of neural tissue after nerve injury
  • most common in mental foramen area
  • 1/3 are painful
  • surgical removal is typically curative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

intraoral involvement of sturge-weber angiomatosis is common and results in ___. this lesion may ___ when manipulated

A
  • hypervascular changes to the ipsilateral mucosa
  • hemmorhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

do all patients with a port wine stain have sturge-weber angiomatosis?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the presentation of pyogenic granulomas?

A
  • smooth or lobulated mass that is typically pedunculated
  • surface is characteristically ulcerated and lesion bleeds easily
  • young lesions appear red; older lesions are more collagenized and pink
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
A

peripheral ossifying fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

in histology photos, what would you see that would indicate a peripheral ossifying fibroma?

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

50% of lipomas are in what location?

A

buccal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

giant cell fibromas typically have a ___ surface

A

papillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is another name for a schwannoma?

A

neurilemoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is a retrocuspid papilla?

A
  • it is microscopically similar to a giant cell fibroma, located lingual to the mandibular cuspid
  • typically bilateral, present in up to 99% of children
  • normal anatomic variation that regresses with age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the prognosis of metastases to oral soft tissues?

A

poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
A

neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is typically the first sign of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B?

A

oral mucosal neuromas, present as soft, painless papules or nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what population are hemangiomas more common?

A
  • more common in females (3:1, 5:1)
  • more common in caucasians vs other racial groups
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are the 4 clinical presentations of kaposi’s sarcoma?

A
  • classic
  • endemic (african)
  • iatrogenic immunosuppression associated
  • AIDS related
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

inflammatory papillary hyperplasia may show improvement after ___ therapy

A

antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
A

giant cell fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

floats in formalin

A

lipoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

___ is a rare, nonhereditary developmental condition caused by the persistence of a vascular plexus around the cephalic portion of the neural tube

A

sturge-weber angiomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what age patient are lipomas most common?

A

>40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
A

rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

up to half of schwannoma cases occur in what location?

A

head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the syptoms of neurofibromatosis type II?

A

deafness, dizziness, tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the treatment of neurofibromatosis type I?

A

directed toward prevention or management of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

___ occurs almost exclusively on the alveolar ridges of newborns and appears as a mucosal-colored, smooth-surfaced, polypoid mass typically less than 2cm

A

congenital epulis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

neurofibromas can arise as ___ tumors or be a component of ___

A
  • solitary
  • neurofibromatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the prognosis of classic kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

90% survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

how do rhabdomyosarcomas present?

A

painless, infiltrative mass that grows rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

how should pyogenic granulomas that develop during pregnancy be treated?

A

treatment should be deferred unless functional or esthetic problems develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the treatment of neurofibromas?

A

surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what population with granular cell tumors might experience multiple tumors?

A

african americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
A

pyogenic granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

___ is a benign neural neoplasm of schwann cell origin; it is a slow-growing, encapsulated tumor which arises in associated with a nerve trunk

A

schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

palisaded encapsulated neuromas are benign neural tumors that are typically found in what location?

A

on the face (90%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what do lesions look like that have metastasized to the oral soft tissues?

A

nodular mass that resembles a hyperplastic growth, such as a pyogenic granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

sturge-weber angiomatosis has a _(unilateral/bilateral)_ distribution along one or more segments of the ___ nerve

A
  • unilateral
  • trigeminal nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

describe the iatrogenic type of kaposi’s sarcoma

A
  • most common in organ transplant recipients
  • 0.5% of renal transplant patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the most common location of fibromas?

A

buccal mucosa along the bite line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

granular cell tumors typically occur around what age? male to female ratio?

A
  • age 40; rare in kids
  • 2:1 F:M
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what are the common locations of pyogenic granulomas?

A

most common on gingiva (75%) > lips, tongue, buccal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the treatment of rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

surgery and chemotherapy with radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are two types of neuromas?

A

can be either traumatic neuroma or palisaded encapsulated neuroma

96
Q

___ may produce a “cupping” resorption of the undelrying alveolar bone

A

peripheral giant cell granuloma

97
Q

what is the treatment for pyogenic granulomas?

A

surgical excision

98
Q

___ is a malignancy of skeletal muscles

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

99
Q

are congenital epulis’ more common in males or females?

A

90% occur in females

100
Q

___ typically appears as an asymptomatic, sessile, smooth-surfaced nodule that is similar in color to the surrounding mucosa

A

fibroma

101
Q
A

lymphangioma

102
Q

what is another name for a palisaded encapsulated neuroma?

A

solitary circumscribed neuroma

103
Q

which type of lymphangioma is more commonly found in the mouth?

A

cavernous

104
Q

what are the 3 types of lympangioma?

A

capillary, cavernous, cystic

105
Q

what are the 3 oral manifestations of neurofibromatosis type I?

A
  • nelargement of the fungiform papilla in 50%
  • intraoral neurofibromas in 25%
  • enlargement of the mandibular foramen or canal
106
Q

what physical characteristics do patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B have?

A
  • marfanoid build with thin, elongated limbs
  • narrow face with characteristically thick and protuberant lips
107
Q

___ is a benign tumor of fat

A

lipoma

108
Q

50% of patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B develop ___, and 90% develop ___

A
  • pheochromocytoma
  • medullar carcinoma of the thyroid gland
109
Q
A

pyogenic granuloma

110
Q
A

lymphangioma

111
Q

75% of leiomyoma oral cases are a ___ variant

A

vascular

112
Q
A

fibroma

113
Q

which type of hemangioma typically blanches, and is darker red to purple?

A

cavernous

114
Q

___ is the most common “tumor” of the oral cavity

A

fibroma

115
Q

50% of peripheral ossifying fibromas occur in the ___ region

A

incisor-cuspid region

116
Q

what is the clinical color of melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy?

A

black and/or blue

117
Q

oral focal mucinosis is most common in what population?

A

young females

118
Q

what is the average age patient that peripheral ossifying fibromas are most common in? male or female predilection?

A
  • average age is 15yo (teenagers and young adults 10-19)
  • 2/3 occur in females
119
Q
A

hemangioma

120
Q

most cases of metastases to oral soft tissues represent ___ rather than ___

A

carcinomas rather than sarcomas

121
Q

what is the survival of someone with rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

ranges from 50-95% depending on histologic subtype

122
Q

up to 5% of patients with neurofibromatosis type I have ___ tumors with an associated 5-year survival of ___%

A
  • malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors (MPSNT)
  • 15%
123
Q
A

lipoma

124
Q

what is the treatment for more advanced inflammatory papillary hyperplasia lesions?

A

surgical removal

125
Q

what age patient are schwannomas common in?

A

young and middle-aged adults

126
Q

will a congenital epulis be S-100 positive or negative?

A

negative - no pseudopeitheliomatous hyperplasia (different from granular cell tumor)

127
Q
A

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

128
Q

___ is extremely important in the management of neurofibromatosis type I

A

genetic counseling

129
Q
A

inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia (epulis fissuratum)

130
Q

what is the most common location of a schwannoma?

A

tongue

131
Q

giant cell fibromas have a predilection for what location?

A

gingiva

132
Q

treatment of kaposi’s sarcoma depends on what? what are the treatment types?

A
  • type, stage, and location
  • radiation, surgery, and chemotherapy are used
133
Q

what does the tissue look like in inflammatory papillary hyperplasia?

A

asymptomatic, erythematous tissue with a pebbly or papillary surface

134
Q

what is the most common location in the oral cavity of fibrous histiocytomas?

A

buccal mucosa

135
Q

oral manifestations of neurofibromatosis type I occur in what percent of patients with NF1?

A

90%

136
Q

floats in formalin

A

lipoma

137
Q
A

fibrous histiocytoma

138
Q

___% of patients who continuously wear their denture have inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

A

20%

139
Q

peripheral ossifying fibromas occur exclusively on what location?

A

gingiva

140
Q
A

granular cell tumor

141
Q
A

oral focal mucinosis

142
Q

which type of hemangioma may not blanch clinically, and is usually red in color?

A

capillary

143
Q

what fraction of patients with neurofibromatosis type I have mild disease?

A

2/3

144
Q

do pyogenic granuloma lesions recur?

A

occasionally

145
Q

what is the treatment of a congenital epulis?

A

surgical excision is curative, even with incomplete removal

146
Q
A

congenital epulis

147
Q

neurofibromatosis is a ___ condition affecting 1 in ___ people

A
  • hereditary
  • 1/3000
148
Q

is a pyogenic granuloma a true granuloma?

A

no

149
Q

do giant cell fibromas occur at younger or older ages than other fibromas?

A

younger

150
Q

leiomyomas are most common in what 3 locations?

A

uterus, GI tract, skin (smooth muscle from vasculature)

151
Q
A

pyogenic granuloma

152
Q

___ is the most common site for metastases to the oral soft tissues. __ is the second most common site.

A
  • gingiva (50%)
  • tongue (25%)
153
Q

what are common locations of rhabdomyosarcomas? male or female predilection?

A

face and orbit

male predilection

154
Q

what is the treatment of giant cell fibromas?

A

conservative surgical excision

155
Q
A

neurofibromatosis type I

156
Q

patients with sturge-weber angiomatosis that have involvement along the distribution of the ___ are at risk for the full condition

A

ophthalmic branch

157
Q

___ is a reactive lesion caused by local irritation or trauma, that occurs exclusively on the gingiva or edentulous alveolar ridge

A

peripheral giant cell granuloma

158
Q

what is the most common location of hemangiomas?

A

head and neck, which accounts for 60% of all cases

159
Q

the histological diagnosis of tumor-like hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue on association with the flange of an ill-fitting denture is ___, while the clinical diagnosis is ___

A
  • inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
  • epulis fissuratum
160
Q

___ is a benign neoplasm of skeletal muscle

A

rhabdomyoma

161
Q

___ is the name for inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia in association with the flange of an ill-fitting denture

A

epulis fissuratum

162
Q

___ is a rare pigmented tumor that usually occurs during the first year of life

A

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy

163
Q

___ rhabdomyomas are very rare but have a predilection for the head and neck

A

extracardiac

in other words, cardiac rhabdomyomas are the most common

164
Q
A

schwannoma

165
Q

what is multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B characterized by?

A
  • parathyroid tumors
  • pituitary tumors
  • pancreatic tumors
  • adrenal gland tumors (pheochromocytoma)
  • thyroid tumors (medullary carcinoma)
  • mucosal neuromas with a predilenction for the oral cavity
166
Q

what location is oral focal mucinosis most common in? second most common?

A
  • gingiva - 2/3
  • hard palate - 1/3
167
Q
A

fibroma

168
Q

granular cell tumors exhibit significant ___; why is it significant?

A
  • pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
  • if you submit a small dorsal tongue lesion for microscopic review and get back a reply of “squamous cell carcinoma” ask for a second opinion
169
Q

soft tissue sarcomas account for ___% of cancers

A

<1%

170
Q

lipomas are more common in what type of patient?

A

obese patients, but the metabolism is independent of normal body fat

171
Q
A

peripheral ossifying fibroma

172
Q

how do leiomyomas typically present?

A

asymptomatic, slow-growing, firm, mucosal nodule

173
Q

neurofibromatosis type I is autosomal ___

A

dominant

174
Q

___ is a true neoplasm exhibiting fibroblastic and histiocytic differentiation

A

fibrous histiocytoma

175
Q

what are 2 other names for pyogenic granulomas?

A

pregnancy tumor or granuloma gravidarum

176
Q

fibrous histiocytomas occur most commonly on what location?

A

the skin (termed a dermatofibroma)

177
Q

neurofibromatosis type I is also termed ___

A

von recklinghausen’s disease of the skin

178
Q

___% of peripheral giant cell granuloma lesions recur

A

10%

179
Q

what is the treatment for leiomyomas?

A

excision is curative

180
Q

do melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy expand rapidly or slowly?

A

rapidly

181
Q

describe the presentation of granular cell tumors

A
  • asymptomatic, sessile nodule that is less than 2cm
  • may be yellow or mucosal colored
182
Q

should excised tissue from a fibroma be submitted for microscopic examination?

A

yes

183
Q

what is the average age patient that peripheral giant cell granulomas are seen in? male or female predilection?

A

35yo, 60% occur in females

184
Q

which type of lymphangioma is more common on the neck?

A

cystic lymphangioma (cystic hygroma)

185
Q
A

fibroma

186
Q
A

traumatic neuroma

187
Q

what is the presentation of a peripheral giant cell granuloma?

A

appears as an erythematous mass similar to pyogenic granuloma, although peripheral giant cell granulomas are more often blue or purple compared to the bright red presentation of pyogenic granulomas

188
Q

are soft tissue sarcomas common in the oral and maxillofacial region?

A

no

189
Q

what is the most common site of granular cell tumors?

A
  • tongue (up to 50%)
    • dorsal surface is the most common site
190
Q

oral lymphangiomas occur most frequently on the ___, where they often result in ___

A
  • anterior 2/3 of the tongue
  • macroglossia
191
Q
A

inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia (epulis fissuratum)

192
Q

what are the features of neurofibromatosis type II?

A

“acoustic neuromas” of vestibular nerve, meningiomas and ependymomas of the central nervous system

193
Q

___ is diagnosed between the ages of 18-25 and has a marked propensity for metastasis, with an average age of death of 21

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B

194
Q

___ are a characteristic feature of the neurofibromatosis type II

A

bilateral schwannomas of auditory-vestibular nerve

195
Q

what is the treatment of retrocuspid papillas?

A

it should be recognized clinically, and no biopsy or treatment is needed

196
Q

what is the most common tumor of infancy?

A

hemangioma

197
Q

what is the prognosis of endemic kaposi’s sarcoma (other than benign nodular)?

A

poor prognosis

198
Q
A

peripheral giant cell granuloma

notice the blueish color

199
Q

what are the two types of hemangiomas?

A

capillary and cavernous

200
Q

what is the treatment of oral focal mucinosis?

A

surgical excision

201
Q

what may heal very early inflammatory papillary hyperplasia lesions?

A

removal of the denture

202
Q

___ is a fibrous tumor with distinctive features and is not associated with chronic irritation

A

giant cell fibroma

203
Q
A

pyogenic granuloma

204
Q
A

fibroma

205
Q

what is the S-100 stain? for a granular cell tumor, will the test be positive or negative?

A

tests for neural tissue and will be positive if it is a granular cell tumor

206
Q

what is the prognosis of kaposi’s sarcoma in transplant patients?

A

survival somewhere between classic (90% survival) and endemic (poor prognosis)

207
Q

what is a trick used to help diagnose a lipoma?

A

it will float in formalin

208
Q
A

port wine stain aka nevus flammeus characteristic of sturge-weber angiomatosis

209
Q

what is the differential for a nodule on the gingiva (4 things)?

A
  • peripheral ossifying fibroma
  • peripheral giant cell granuloma
  • pyogenic granuloma
  • inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
210
Q

fibrous histiocytomas appear as a ___

A

painless nodular mass

211
Q

___ is a reactive lesion to local irritation or trauma (poor oral hygiene)

A

pyogenic granuloma

212
Q
A

giant cell fibroma

213
Q

oral focal mucinosis results from overproduction of ___

A

overproduction of hyaluronic acid by fibroblasts

214
Q

for gingival pyogenic granuloma lesions, where should the excision extend to?

A

periosteum and adjacent teeth should be scaled

215
Q

kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by what virus?

A

HHV-8

216
Q

granular cell tumors are a ___ soft tissue neoplasm that shows a predilection for the ___

A
  • benign
  • oral cavity
217
Q

inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia usually develops in what location?

A

facial aspect of the alveolar ridge

218
Q

what is the treatment of peripheral giant cell granuloma?

A

local surgical excision down to underlying bone, scaling of adjacent teeth

219
Q

what age patient are pyogenic granulomas most common?

A

children and young adults

220
Q

___ is a tumor-like hyperplasia of fibrous connective tissue

A

inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

221
Q

metastases to the oral soft tissues from lower parts of the body are likely ___ and therefore would be expected to be found in the ___

A
  • blood-borne
  • lungs
222
Q

what age patients do cutaneous fibrous histiocytomas commonly occur in? what about oral lesions?

A
  • cutaneous - young patients
  • oral lesions - older patients
223
Q

patients with sturge-weber angiomatosis are born with a dermal capillary vascular malformation known as ___ or ___

A

port wine stain or nevus flammeus

224
Q

what is the treatment for fibrous histiocytoma?

A

surgical excision

225
Q

any patient with a lesion diagnosed as a neurofibroma must be evaluated for ___

A

neurofibromatosis

226
Q

describe neurofibromatosis type II

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • mutation of a tumor suppressor gene on chromsome 22 (merlin)
227
Q

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy has a striking predilection for what location?

A

anterior maxilla (61%)

228
Q

half of all lymphangioma lesions are noted at what age?

A

at birth

90% develop by 2 years of age

229
Q
A

oral focal mucinosis

230
Q
A

congenital epulis

231
Q

___ represents the oral counterpart of cutaneous focal mucinosis

A

oral focal mucinosis

232
Q
A

inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia (epulis fissuratum)

233
Q

___ are benign tumors of smooth muscle

A

leiomyoma

234
Q

what is the presentation of lipomas?

A

appear as soft, smooth-surfaced nodular masses

lesion may be yellow or mucosal-colored

235
Q

what are 6 types of soft tissue sarcomas?

A
  • fibrosarcomas (head and neck)
  • malignant fibrous histiocytoma (now termed undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma)
  • liposarcoma (thigh, retroperitoneum)
  • leiomyosarcoma (uterus, GI)
  • angiosarcoma (scalp and forehead)
  • malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST)
236
Q

melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy has characteristically high urinary levels of ___

A

vanillymandelic acid (VMA)

237
Q

neurofibromas are most common in what what age patient? what is the presentation?

A
  • young adults
  • slow-growing, soft, painless lesions

Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology (45 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions