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Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology > Chapter 1: Developmental Defects > Flashcards

Chapter 1: Developmental Defects Flashcards

1
Q

upper lip formation occurs at weeks ___

A

6-7

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2
Q

upper lip formation involves the merging of what processes?

A

medial nasal processes merge with each other as well as the maxillary processes of the first branchial arches

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3
Q

when does central face development begin?

A

at week 4

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4
Q

medial and lateral ___ develop from the proliferation of ___ on both sides of each nasal placode

A
  • nasal processes
  • ectomesenchyme
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5
Q

the primary palate consists of a merger of what?

A

medial nasal process

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6
Q

the secondary palate is formed from the ___ on the ___

A
  • maxillary processes
  • first branchial arches
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7
Q

the ___ palate makes up 90% of the hard and soft palates

A

secondary

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8
Q

a cleft lip is the defective fusion of the ___ process with the ___ process

A

medial nasal process with the maxillary process

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9
Q

most (80%) of cleft lip cases are bilateral or unilateral?

A

unilateral

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10
Q

when can you treat for cleft lip?

A
  • rule of 10 - 10 weeks, 10 lbs, 10 gm %hemoglobin
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11
Q

cleft palate is a result of the failure of what to fuse?

A

the palatal shelves

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12
Q

the minimal manifestation of cleft palate is ___

A

bifid uvula

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13
Q

about what patient age is treatment of celft palate usually performed?

A

1.5yrs

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14
Q

what are the relative prevalences of developmental cases that are CP only, CL only, or CL + CP?

A
  • CL + CP - 45% (most common developmental case)
  • 30% CP only
  • 25% CL only
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15
Q

what are the relative prevalences of syndromic clefting?

A
  • 30% of patients with CL + CP
  • 50% of patients with syndromic cleft palate only (CPO)
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16
Q

what is pierre robin sequence?

A
  • CP
  • mandibular micrognathia
  • glossoptosis (downward displacement)
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17
Q

what are environmental factors responsible for nonsyndromic clefting?

A
  • maternal alcohol or cigarette use
  • folic acid deficiency
  • corticosteroid use
  • anticonvulsant therapy
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18
Q

what is the likelihood that a person affected with nonsyndromic clefting will have offspring or siblings who are also affected?

A

5%

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19
Q

the lateral facial cleft results from the lack of fusion of the ___ and ___ processes. it accounts for ___% of all facial celfts

A
  • maxillary and mandibular processes
  • <0.5%
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20
Q

an oblique facial cleft results from the failure of fusion of the ___ with the ___; it extends from the ___ to the ___, and is almost always associated with ___

A
  • lateral nasal processes with the maxillary process
  • upper lip to the eye
  • CP
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21
Q

a median cleft of the upper lip results from the failure of fusion of the ___ processes; is it common or rare?

A
  • medial nasal processes
  • it is very rare
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22
Q

___ are one of the most common major congenital defects

A

orofacial celfts

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23
Q

what is the prevalence of orofacial clefts among asians, native americans, african americans, and caucasians?

A
  1. native americans
  2. asians
  3. caucasians
  4. african americans
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24
Q

is CL + CP more common in males or females?

A

males

the more severe the defect, the greater the male predilection

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25
Q

is CPO (cleft palate only) more common in males or females?

A

females

the more severe the defect, the greater the female predilection

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26
Q

what is a submucous palatal cleft?

A
  • appears as a bluish midline discoloration
  • surface is intact, but defect exists in the underlying musculature of the soft palate
  • a bone notch will be present on the posterior hard palate margin
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27
Q

___ are mucosal invaginations that occur at the corners of the mouth on the vermillion border

A

commissural lip pits

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28
Q

are commissural lip pits associated with facial or palatal clefts? what is the treatment?

A

neither, and no treatment is required

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29
Q

___ are congenital invaginations of the lower lip

A

paramedian lip pits

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30
Q

are paramedian lip pits usually unilaterally or bilaterally located? what is the treatment?

A
  • bilaterally located
  • no treatment except evaluate for syndrome (or for esthetics)
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31
Q

___ syndrome is the greatest significance of paramedian lip pits

A

van der Woude syndrome

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32
Q

describe van der Woude syndrome

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • CL + CP
  • paramedian lip pits
  • most common form of syndromic clefting (2% of all CL + CP)
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33
Q

what is a double lip?

A

redundant fold of tissue on mucosal side of lip

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34
Q

what does a double lip result from?

A

congenital or acquired (trauma or oral habits)

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35
Q

is a double lip more common on the upper or lower lip?

A

upper > lower

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36
Q

a double lip is only noticeable when the patient does what?

A

tenses lip (smile)

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37
Q

what is the treatment for a double lip?

A

no treatment except for esthetics

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38
Q

what is ascher syndrome?

A
  • double lip (usually acquired)
  • blepharochalasis (eyelid edema)
  • nontoxic thyroid enlargement
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39
Q

fordyce granules are ___ sebaceous glands

A

ectopic

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40
Q

fordyce granules are present in ___% of the population

A

80% (this is actually a variation of normal)

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41
Q

fordyce granules clinically appear as ___

A

yellow or yellow-white papular lesions

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42
Q

what are the most common locations of fordyce granules?

A

buccal mucosa and lateral portion of vermillion of uper lip

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43
Q

are fordyce granules more common in adults or children?

A

adults; puberty appears to stimulate development

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44
Q

what is the treatment for fordyce granules?

A

no treatment required

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45
Q

leukoedema affects up to ___% of african american adults and ___% of african american children

A

90% and 50%

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46
Q

why is leukoedema more prevalent in the african american population?

A

likely because background mucosal pigmentation in african americans makes the edematous changes more noticeable

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47
Q

is leukoedema a variation of normal?

A

yes

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48
Q

what does leukoedema look like clinically?

A
  • typically appears as diffuse, gray-white, milky, opalescent lesions found bilaterally on buccal mucosa
  • does not rub off
  • white appearance disappears when cheek is stretched = clinical diagnosis
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49
Q

what is the treatment for leukoedema?

A

no treatment

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50
Q

___ is the term for an abnormally small tongue

A

microglossia

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51
Q

is microglossia syndromic or nonsyndromic?

A

usually syndromic

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52
Q

syndromic microglossia usually has what associated limb features?

A
  • hypodactylia (absence of digits)
  • hypomelia (hypoplasia of part of all of a limb)
  • rarely, the entire tongue may be missing
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53
Q

what is the term for a missing tongue?

A

aglossia

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54
Q

aglossia is frequently associated with ___, and ___ may be missing

A
  • hypoplasia of the mandible (micrognathia)
  • lower incisors may be missing
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55
Q

what is the treatment of aglossia?

A

depends on nature and severity of condition

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56
Q

what is the term for an abnormally large tongue?

A

macroglossia

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57
Q

macroglossia is most frequently caused by what?

A
  • vascular malformations
  • muscular hypertrophy
  • other etiologies - lymphangioma, down syndrome, amyloidosis, angioedema, tumors
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58
Q

macroglossia is most common in what population?

A

children

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59
Q

what condition may be manifested by noisy breathing, drooling, and difficulty in eating or speaking?

A

macroglossia

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60
Q

severe cases of macroglossia can cause ___

A

airway obstruction

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61
Q

what is beckwith-wiedmann syndrome?

A
  • macroglossia is a characteristic of the syndrome
  • patients have increased risk for several childhood tumors
  • most cases are sporadic
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62
Q

what is the treatment for macroglossia?

A

depends on cause and severity of condition

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63
Q

what is described as a developmental tongue abnormality characterized by a short, thick lingual frenum resulting in limitation of tongue movement?

A

ankyloglossia (aka tongue-tied)

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64
Q

akyloglossia is seen in up to ___% of neonates

A

4%

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65
Q

what is the male:female ratio of the prevalence of ankyloglossia?

A

4:1

M:F

in other words, it is 4x more common in males than females

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66
Q

___ may cause problems with speech and breastfeeding

A

ankyloglossia

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67
Q

what is the treatment for ankyloglossia?

A
  • no treatment required if asymptomatic; condition could be self-correcting
  • frenectomy or frenuloplasty otherwise - wait until age 4-5
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68
Q

describe a lingual thyroid

A
  • thyroid gland begins as an epithelial proliferation in the floor of the pharyngeal gut during week 3-4 of embryogenesis
  • during week 7, the thyroid bud normally descends into the neck - located at the junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue in midline
  • if primitive gland doesn’t descend normally, ectopic thyroid can be found between the foramen cecum and the epiglottis - 90% of ectopic thyroids are found here
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69
Q

lingual thyroids are more common in males or females?

A

up to 7x more common in females

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70
Q

in ___% of cases, lingual thyroids are the patients only thyroid tissue

A

70%

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71
Q

what are the symptoms of lingual thyroid?

A
  • arise during puberty, adolescence, pregnancy, or menopause
  • dysphagia, dysphonia, dyspnea
  • presents as a nodule on posterior tongue at the midline
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72
Q

1/3 of patients with lingual thyroid have ___

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • lingual thyroid enlargement may be secondary to compensate for thyroid hypofunction
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73
Q

how is a lingual thyroid diagnosed?

A

thyroid scan (using iodine isotopes or technetium-99m), CT, and/or MRI

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74
Q

why is a biopsy not indicated to diagnose a lingual thyroid?

A

risk of hemorrhage and may be patients only functioning thyroid tissue

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75
Q

describe a fissured tongue

A
  • aka scrotal tongue
  • tongue exhibits multiple grooves/furrows on dorsal tongue
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76
Q

what is the prevalence of fissured tongue in children and adults?

A

up to 5% of children and 30% of adults

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77
Q

grooves in a fissured tongue can measure from ___-___ in depth

A

2-6mm

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78
Q

what is the cause of fissured tongue?

A

unknown cause

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79
Q

is fissured tongue usually symptomatic?

A

no, it is usually asymptomatic, but there can be possible mild burning

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80
Q

fissured tongue has a strong association with ___

A

geographic tongue

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81
Q

fissured tongue is a component of ___ syndrome

A

melkersson-rosenthal

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82
Q

what is the treatment for fissured tongue?

A

no treatment except to brush the tongue

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83
Q

benign migratory glossitis and erythema migrans are other terms for ___

A

geographic tongue

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84
Q

is geographic tongue developmental?

A

no

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85
Q

geographic tongue is a common ___ condition

A

inflammatory

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86
Q

what is the female:male ratio of the prevalence of geographic tongue?

A

2: 1
female: male

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87
Q

what is the common location of geographic tongue?

A

dorsal and/or lateral tongue

88
Q

is geographic tongue usually symptomatic?

A

no, it is usually asymptomatic, but may burn or hurt

89
Q

what is hairy tongue characterized by?

A

marked accumulation of keratin on the filiform papilla of the dorsal tongue

90
Q

what is the etiology of hairy tongue?

A
  • unknown etiology; many patients are heavy smokers
  • could also be due to poor oral hygiene, antibiotics, or radiation therapy
91
Q

hairy tongue is usually asymptomatic, but what are some possible symptoms?

A
  • gagging sensation
  • bad taste
  • halitosis
  • esthetics
92
Q

what is coated tongue?

A
  • some patients with hairy tongue have a white dorsal tongue without hairlike filiform projections
  • due to bacterial and desquamated epithelial cells
93
Q

hairy tongue may cause ___

A

halitosis

94
Q

what is the treatment for hairy tongue?

A

tongue brushing/scraping with OHI is adequate treatment

95
Q

what are varicosities?

A

superficial dilated veins

96
Q

varicosities are rare in ___ and more common in ___

A

children, adults

97
Q

varicosities are not associated with ___ or ___

A

hypertension or cardiopulmonary disease

98
Q

what is the most common type of oral varicosity?

A

sublingual varix

99
Q

varicosities affect how many patients over the age of 60?

A

2/3

100
Q

how do varicosities most commonly appear?

A

multiple, blue-purple, elevated or papular nodules on ventral and lateral tongue

101
Q

are varicosities usually symptomatic?

A

no

102
Q

varicosities commonly occur on the ventral and lateral tongue, but can occur on ___, and they may be ___

A
  • lips/buccal mucosa
  • thrombosed
  • *these will feel like a bb
103
Q

___ is a calcified varicosity

A

phlebolith

104
Q

what is the treatment for varicosities?

A

no treatment, except solitary varicosities on the lips or buccal mucosa because of thrombus formation or esthetics

105
Q

___ is a main arterial branch that extends up into the superficial submucosal tissues without a reduction in its diameter

A

caliber persistent artery

106
Q

caliber persistent arteries occur almost exclusively on ___

A

lip mucosa

107
Q

what is the unique feature of caliber persistent arteries?

A

pulsation

108
Q

what is the treatment for caliber persistent arteries?

A

no treatment

109
Q

___ results in limitation of mandibular movement

A

coronoid hyperplasia

110
Q

what is the M:F ratio of coronoid hyperplasia prevalence?

A

5:1

M:F

111
Q

is unilateral or bilateral coronoid hyperplasia more common?

A

bilateral

112
Q

in coronoid hyperplasia, the mandible will deviate towards or away from the affected side?

A

towards

113
Q

___ is self-limiting, excessive growth of one of the condyles

A

condylar hyperplasia

114
Q

in condylar hyperplasia, the mandible will deviate toward or away from the affected side?

A

away

for example, a patient with right condylar hyperplasia will have a mandible that deviates to the left

115
Q

___ are localized bony protruberances

A

exostoses

116
Q

exostoses arise from the ___

A

cortical plate

117
Q

what are the best known exostoses?

A
  • torus palatinus
  • torus mandibularis
118
Q

other than torus plalatinus and mandibularis, what are the 3 other types of exostoses?

A

buccal, palatal, and solitary exostoses

119
Q

what is the treatment for exostoses?

A

no treatment except removal if trauma is an issue

120
Q

___ is a bilateral row of bony hard nodules along the facial of the alveolar ridge

A

buccal exostoses

121
Q

are buccal exostoses more common in the maxilla or mandible?

A

maxilla

122
Q

buccal exostoses are found in up to ___% of adults

A

20%

123
Q

___ exostoses develop from the lingual side of the maxillary tuberosities

A

palatal

124
Q

are palatal exostoses usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

bilateral

125
Q

are palatal exostoses more common in males or females?

A

males

126
Q

up to ___% of the population has palatal exostoses

A

70%

127
Q

patients with palatal exostoses usually have accompanying ___

A

palatal or mandibular tori

128
Q

___ is a common exostosis (up to ___% of adults) that occurs in the midline of the hard palate

A
  • torus palatinus
  • 35%
129
Q

what is the F:M ratio of the prevalence of torus palatinus?

A

2:1

F:M

130
Q

what are the possible morphologic appearances of torus palatinus?

A
  • flat - broad base with smooth surface
  • spindle - midline ridge or median groove
  • nodular - multiple protuberances, each with an individual base
  • lobular - multiple protuberances, arise from a single base
  • sessile or pedunculated
131
Q

what is the treatment for torus palatinus?

A

no treatment unless there is trauma

132
Q

___ is a common (up to 20% of adults) exostosis that develops along the lingual aspect of the mandible

A

torus mandibularis

133
Q

bilateral torus mandibularis is found in ___% of the affected population

A

90%

134
Q

torus mandibularis is slightly more common in males or females?

A

males

135
Q

what is the treatment for torus mandibularis?

A

no treatment necessary unless trauma is an issue or prior to fabrication of denture

136
Q

___ is also known as a lingual mandibular salivary gland depression that presents as a focal concavity of the cortical bone in the lingual surface of the mandible

A

stafne defect

137
Q

with stafne defects, is salivary gland tissue histologically normal or abnormal?

A

normal

138
Q

how does a stafne defect classically present?

A

an asymptomatic, well-circumscribed radioluscency below the mandibular canal in the posterior mandible, between the molar teeth and the angle of the mandible

139
Q

are stafne defects usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

usually unilateral, but can be bilateral

140
Q

stafne defects are found in up to ___% of adults, 90% of which are male or female?

A
  • 0.5%
  • 90% in males
141
Q

what is the treatment for stafne defect?

A

no treatment

radiograph periodically

142
Q

what are two other terms for eagle’s syndrome?

A

stylohyoid syndrome and carotid artery syndrome

143
Q

what is eagle’s syndrome?

A

calcification of the stylohyoid ligament that attaches the stylohyoid process to the lesser cornu of the hyoid bone

144
Q

what are the symptoms of eagle’s syndrome?

A
  • vague facial pain while swallowing, turning the head, or opening the mouth
  • dysphagia, dysphonia, headache, dizziness
145
Q

what is the definition of a cyst?

A

pathologic cavity lined by epithelium

146
Q

cysts are typically ___-filled

A

fluid

147
Q

what is the pathogenesis of cysts?

A

uncertain

148
Q

once cysts develop in the oral and maxillofacial region, they slowly increase in size due to ___

A

elevated hydrostatic luminal pressure

149
Q

palatal cysts of the newborn are called ___

A

epstein’s pearls

150
Q

palatal cysts of the newborn (epstein’s pearls) occur along the ___

A

median palatal raphe

151
Q

palatal cysts of the newborn (epstien’s pearls) likely occur from ___

A

entrapped epithelium along fusion line

152
Q

___ are small, 1-3mm white or yellow papules that usually occur at the midline near the hard and soft palate junction

A

bohn’s nodules

153
Q

where are bohn’s nodules located?

A

scattered all over the hard palate, usually near the junction of the soft palate

154
Q

___ likely occur from epithelial remnants from the minor salivary glands

A

bohn’s nodules

155
Q

bohn’s nodules are present in up to ___% of infants

A

85%

156
Q

what is the treatment of bohn’s nodules?

A

none, is it self-healing

157
Q

___ appears as a swelling of the upper lip, lateral to the midline, resulting in elevation of the ala of the nose

A

nasolabial cyst

158
Q

what are the two theories of the pathogenesis of nasolabial cysts?

A
  1. cyst arises from epithelial remnants entrapped along the line of fusion of the maxillary, medial nasal, and lateral nasal processes
  2. cysts develops from misplaced epithelium of the nasolacrimal duct
159
Q

nasolabial cysts are most commonly found in what age patient?

A

30-50

160
Q

what is the F:M ratio of the prevalence of nasolabial cysts?

A

3:1

F:M

161
Q

are nasolabial cysts usually symptomatic?

A

no

162
Q

are nasolabial cysts usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

usually unilateral, but 10% are bilateral

163
Q

are nasolabial cysts common?

A

no, they are rare

164
Q

what is the treatment for nasolabial cysts?

A

requires surgical removal

165
Q

how many cases of globulomaxillary radioluscencies have been reported?

A

37

166
Q

what are the two most common histological diagnoses of globulomaxillary radioluscencies?

A

radicular cyst and periapical granuloma

167
Q

___ is the most common non-odontogenic cyst of the oral cavity

A

nasopalatine duct cyst (aka incisive canal cyst)

168
Q

___ is an embryologic structure connecting the oral and nasal cavities in the area of the incisive canal

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

169
Q

how does a nasopalatine duct cyst present on a radiograph?

A

well circumscribed radioluscency in/near the midline of anterior maxilla, between and apical to the central incisors; no root resorption

170
Q

what is the upper limit diameter of normal size for an incisive foramen, and how does this relate to a nasopalatine duct cyst?

A
  • 6mm diameter is the upper limit
    • anything larger is considered a nasopalatine duct cyst
    • anything smaller than this is normal unless there are clinical signs of pain, swelling, or drainage
171
Q

rarely, a ___ can develop in the soft tissues of the incisive papilla without bony involvement. what are these lesions called, and what is the clinical presentation?

A
  • nasopalatine duct cyst
  • these lesions are called cysts of the incisive papilla
  • they may have a bluish coloration as a result of the fluid contents in the cyst lumen
172
Q

how is a nasopalatine duct cyst diagnosed? what is the treatment?

A
  • biopsy is mandatory because the lesion cannot be diagnosed radiographically
  • treated by surgical enucleation
173
Q

___ often arise after localized inflammation of the hair follicle and occur in acne-prone areas of the back (adults), head (kids), and neck

A

epidermoid cysts

174
Q

___ are the most common type of follicular cysts of the skin

A

epidermoid cyst (80%)

175
Q

are epidermoid cysts more common in males or females?

A

males

176
Q

what is the clinical presentation of epidermoid cysts?

A
  • nodular, fluctuant, subcutaneous lesion
  • white or yellow unless inflamed
177
Q

about what percent of all follicular cysts of the skin are pilar cysts?

A

15%

178
Q

___ occur on the scalp and are derived from the hair follicle

A

pilar cysts

179
Q

are pilar cysts more common in males or females?

A

females

180
Q

what is the treatment for pilar cysts?

A

conservative surgical excision

181
Q

a ___ is a benign, cystic form of a teratoma

A

dermoid cyst

182
Q

are epidermoid cysts of the skin the same as epidermoid cysts of the oral cavity?

A

no

epidermoid cysts of the oral cavity are the simplest expression of a teratoma. they do not arise from the hair follicle and are different from the much more common epidermoid cyst of the skin

183
Q

a ___ is lined by epidermis-like epithelium and contains dermal adnexal structures in the cyst wall

A

dermoid cyst

184
Q

a dermoid cyst occurs at the midline as a ___

A

submucosal fluctuant swelling at the FOM

185
Q

what population are dermoid cysts most common in?

A

children and young adults

186
Q

what is the treatment for dermoid cysts?

A

surgical removal

187
Q

thyroglossal duct cysts develop from what?

A

epithelial remnants of the thyroglossal tract

188
Q

50% of thyroglossal duct cysts are diagnosed before what age?

A

20

189
Q

___ presents as a painless, fluctuant, muvable swelling at or near the midline, usually inferior to the hyoid bone

A

thyroglossal duct cyst

190
Q

___ develop in 1/3 of thyroglossal duct cyst cases

A

fistulous tracts to the skin

191
Q

what percentage of thyroglossal duct cysts are carcinoma?

A

1%

192
Q

what is the treatment for a thyroglossal duct cyst? what is the % chance for reccurance?

A

surgical removal

10% recurrence

193
Q

oral lymphoepithelial cysts develop within ___

A

oral lymphoid tissue

Waldeyer’s ring (palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils, pharyngeal adenoids)

194
Q

lymphoid aggregates/accessory oral tonsils are found in what 3 places?

A
  • floor of mouth (most common, 50%)
  • ventral tongue
  • soft palate
195
Q

how do oral lymphoepithelial cysts present?

A

white or yellow, asymptomatic, submucosal mass less than 1cm in diameter

196
Q

oral lymphoepithelial cysts are most common in what population?

A

young adults

197
Q

what is the treatment for oral lymphoepithelial cysts?

A

biopsy or clinical diagnosis

198
Q

a branchial cleft cyst is also called a ___

A

cervical lymphoepithelial cyst

199
Q

where do branchial cleft cysts typically occur?

A

upper lateral neck along the anterior border of the SCM as a soft, fluctuant mass in patients ages 20-40

2/3 occur on the left neck

200
Q

what is the treatment for a branchial cleft cyst?

A

surgical removal

201
Q

___ is a rare developmental anomaly characterized by an asymmetric overgrowth of one or more body parts (ex. unilateral macroglossia)

A

hemihyperplasia

202
Q

what are the 3 syndromes associated with hemihyperplasia?

A
  • beckwith-wieldemann syndrome
  • neurofibromatosis
  • proteus syndrome
203
Q

___ is a form of atrophy affecting one side of the face, some cases have a history of trauma, and many features are similar to localized form of scleroderma

A

progressive hemifacial atrophy

204
Q

recent reports consider infection of what bacterial species to be the cause of progressive hemifacial atrophy?

A

borelia spp

205
Q

___ is a painless, unilateral enlargement of the maxillary bone, along with overgrowth of overlying gingiva

A

segmental odontomaxillary dysphagia

206
Q

what is frequently missing in cases of segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia?

A

one or both of the developing maxillary premolars

207
Q

___ syndrome is characterized by craniosynostosis (premature closing of the cranial sutures)

A

crouzon syndrome; craniofacial dysostosis

208
Q

what are some facial/head shapes characteristic of crouzon syndrome/ craniofacial dysostosis?

A
  • brachycephaly (short head)
  • scaphocephaly (boat-shaped head)
  • trigonocephaly (triangle head)
209
Q

the most severe cases of crouzon syndrome/ craniofacial dysostosis demonstrate a ___ skull

A

“cloverleaf” skull (kleeblatt-schadel deformity)

210
Q

ocular proptosis and underdeveloped maxilla can occur in what syndrome?

A

crouzon syndrome/ craniofacial dysostosis

211
Q

a skull x-ray of a patient suffering from crouzon syndrome will exhiit a ___ pattern

A

“beaten-metal”

212
Q

___ is the result of a mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 2 on chromosome 10q26

A

crouzon syndrome; craniofacial dysostosis

213
Q

what are the characteristics of apert syndrome (acrocephalosyndactyly) that are not oral?

A
  • ocular proptosis
  • hypertelorism
  • downward slant of lateral palebral fissures
  • syndactyly of 2nd, 3rd, and 4th digits of hands and feet
  • mental retardation
214
Q

what are the oral characteristics of apert syndrome (acrocephalosyndactyly)?

A

trapezoid shape to lips (open mouth), 3/4 have cleft soft palate or bifid uvula

215
Q

___ results from defects of structures derived from 1st and 2nd branchial arches

A

mandibulofacial dysostosis; treacher-collins syndrome

216
Q

what are the characteristics of mandibulofacial dysostosis, treacher-collins syndrome?

A
  • hypoplastic zygoma
  • coloboma (notch on outer portion of lower eyelid)
  • underdeveloped mandible

Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology (45 decks)

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