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Surg tech 👩‍⚕️ > Chapter 19 > Flashcards

Chapter 19 Flashcards

1
Q

Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet?
A. basale
B. corneum
C. granulosum
D. lucidum

A

D. lucidum

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2
Q

Which epidermal stratum is the outermost layer?
A. basale
B. corneum
C. granulosum
D. lucidum

A

B. corneum

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3
Q

What is the name of the oil that is secreted from glands in the skin?
A. sebum
B. septum
C. sputum
D. stratum

A

A. sebum

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4
Q

Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?
A. apocrine
B. ceruminous
C. merocrine
D. sebaceous

A

B. ceruminous

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5
Q

Which of the following are oil-producing glands?
A. apocrine
B. ceruminous
C. merocrine
D. sebaceous

A

D. sebaceous

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6
Q

How many degree classifications of skin burns are there?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five

A

C. four

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7
Q

In which degree of skin burn does the tissue appear as pearly white or charred and will likely require debridement of eschar?
A. first
B. second
C. third
D. fourth

A

C. third

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8
Q

Split-thickness skin grafts are used to cover which type of burned tissue?
A. erythematous first-degree burns
B. denuded areas of third-degree burns
C. blistered superficial second-degree burns
D. charred necrotic tissue in fourth-degree burns

A

denuded areas of third-degree burns

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9
Q

The rule of nines is used in burn patients to estimate:
A. body surface area burned
B. depth of tissue destruction
C. length of estimated healing time
D. protocols for burn dressing changes

A

A. body surface area burned

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10
Q

What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?
A. debridement
B. defacement
C. degradation
D. dessication

A

A. debridement

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11
Q

Which glands are found only in the external genitalia and axillae?
A. apocrine
B. ceruminous
C. merocrine
D. sebaceous

A

A. apocrine

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12
Q

What does a mesh graft device do?
A. It attaches a skin graft to the donor site
B. It expands the size of the skin graft
C. It slices a split thickness of donor skin
D. It smooths the skin graft to prevent bunching up

A

B. It expands the size of the skin graft

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13
Q

Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?
A. Donor site is prepped first and considered clean
B. Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated
C. Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated
D. Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean

A

Donor site is prepped first and considered clean

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14
Q

Any of the following may be used topically for hemostasis of the STSG donor site EXCEPT:
A. epinephrine
B. mineral oil
C. phenylephrine
D. thrombin

A

B. mineral oil

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15
Q

Relaxation and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as:
A. arthrodesis
B. cheileschisis
C. dermachalasis
D. micrognathia

A

C. dermachalasis

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16
Q

Cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following?
A. breast prolapse
B. cleft lip and palate
C. conjoined fingers
D. dropping and baggy eyelids

A

B. cleft lip and palate

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17
Q

Which term describes the palmar surface of the hand?
A. dorsal
B. radial
C. volar
D. ulnar

A

C. volar

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18
Q

Which term describes the thumb side of the hand?
A. dorsal
B. radial
C. volar
D. ulnar

A

B. radial

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19
Q

Which anatomical area is a TRAM flap used to reconstruct?
A. breast
B. hand
C. lip
D. palate

A

A. breast

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20
Q

For which procedure would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution?
A. abdominoplasty
B. liposuction
C. mastopexy
D. syndactyly release

A

B. liposuction

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21
Q

What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot?
A. contracture
B. dermachalasis
C. polydactyly
D. syndactyly

A

D. syndactyly

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22
Q

Submalar augmentation is performed to address structural deficiency in the:
A. breasts
B. cheeks
C. eyes
D. nares

A

B. cheeks

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23
Q

Which procedure is performed for dermachalasis?
A. abdominoplasty
B. blepharoplasty
C. mentoplasty
D. otoplasty

A

B. blepharoplasty

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24
Q

Which cosmetic procedure is performed for micrognathia?
A. abdominoplasty
B. blepharoplasty
C. mentoplasty
D. otoplasty

A

C. mentoplasty

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25
Q

The mandibular symphysis is better known as the:
A. chin
B. lower lip
C. upper lip
D. nasal septum

A

A. chin

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26
Q

The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the:
A. ear
B. eye
C. hand
D. nose

A

A. ear

27
Q

For which procedure would the surgical technologist possibly need a second setup for obtaining a costal cartilage graft?
A. cleft lip repair
B. otoplasty for microtia
C. TRAM flap reconstruction
D. fasciectomy

A

B. otoplasty for microtia

28
Q

Which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft (FTSG) to size?
A. bandage
B. Jorgenson
C. reverse Potts
D. tenotomy

A

D. tenotomy

29
Q

Which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration MOST commonly used for scar revision procedures?
A. C
B. H
C. U
D. Z

A

D. Z

30
Q

Which type of incision is MOST frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure?
A. elliptical
B. oblique
C. paramedian
D. Z-shaped

A

A. elliptical

31
Q

Breast ptosis is surgically corrected by:
A. malar implants
B. mastopexy
C. mentoplasty
D. marsupialization

A

B. mastopexy

32
Q

In which procedure would the procerus and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated?
A. augmentation mammoplasty
B. tumescent liposuction
C. endoscopic brow lift
D. mentoplasty

A

C. endoscopic brow lift

33
Q

Which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift?
A. blepharoplasty
B. cheiloplasty
C. mentoplasty
D. rhytidectomy

A

D. rhytidectomy

34
Q

Which method of anesthesia is preferred for rhytidectomy procedures?
A. Bier block
B. epidural
C. monitored (MAC)
D. topical

A

C. monitored (MAC)

35
Q

“Cupid’s bow” Is reconstructed in which of the following procedures?
A. cleft lip repair
B. malar implants
C. nipple recreation
D. syndactyly release

A

A. cleft lip repair

36
Q

For which procedure would the surgeon require a sterile tattoo machine and inks?
A. cleft lip repair
B. endoscopic brow lift
C. nipple reconstruction
D. reduction mammoplasty

A

C. nipple reconstruction

37
Q

A full-thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re-create which anatomic area?
A. areola
B. Cupid’s bow
C. mammary crease
D. umbilicus

A

A. areola

38
Q

Crescent, Benelli, and Benelli-lollipop lifts are techniques used during:
A. mastopexy
B. rhinoplasty
C. rhytidectomy
D. blepharoplasty

A

A. mastopexy

39
Q

Anchor-shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure?
A. centralization of radial dysplasia
B. cheiloplasty
C. mastopexy
D. rhinoplasty

A

C. mastopexy

40
Q

Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren’s contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?
A. Derma-carrier
B. K-wires
C. lead hand
D. Senn retractors

A

C. lead hand

41
Q

Which cranial nerve must NOT be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy?
A. fifth (V)
B. sixth (Vl)
C. seventh (Vll)
D. eighth (Vlll)

A

C. seventh (Vll)

42
Q

Which position should facial procedure patients maintain postoperatively to minimize edema?
A. prone
B. lateral
C. strict supine
D. head elevated

A

D. head elevated

43
Q

When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?
A. at conception
B. first trimester
C. second trimester
D. third trimester

A

B. first trimester

44
Q

Which type of suture would MOST likely be used during a cleft lip repair?
A. fine absorbable
B. heavy absorbable
C. fine nonabsorbable
D. heavy nonabsorbable

A

A. fine absorbable

45
Q

Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?
A. carpals
B. metacarpals
C. phalanges
D. radii

A

B. metacarpals

46
Q

Approximately how many muscles and their tendons control movement of the wrist, hand, and fingers?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

A

C. 40

47
Q

Which nerve passes through the carpal tunnel?
A. median
B. peroneal
C. radial
D. ulnar

A

A. median

48
Q

Which of the following order of steps for replantation of a digit is CORRECT?
A. tendons, vessels, nerves, then bones
B. nerves vessels, bones, then tendons
C. vessels, tendons, bones, then nerves
D. bones, tendons, vessels, then nerves

A

D. bones, tendons, vessels, then nerves

49
Q

Vessel loops are available in all of the following colors EXCEPT:
A. green
B. red
C. white
D. blue

A

A. green

50
Q

What suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe-to-thumb transfer procedure?
A. horizontal mattress
B. figure of eight
C. purse-string
D. vertical mattress

A

B. figure of eight

51
Q

Which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in intentional bone fusion?
A. anastomosis
B. ankylosis
C. arthrodesis
D. arthroplasty

A

C. arthrodesis

52
Q

What is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called “club hand”?
A. carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Dupuytren’s contracture
C. polydactyly
D. radial dysplasia

A

D. radial dysplasia

53
Q

A patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age?
A. neonate
B. 12 months old
C. 10 years old
D. 21 years or older

A

B. 12 months old

54
Q

Which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is NOT correct?
A. The condition mainly involves the carpal and metacarpal bones
B. The digits of the hands or feet may be involved
C. The fifth finger duplications are the most common
D. The duplication can be a partial digit or a complete additional digit

A

B. The digits of the hands or feet may be involved

55
Q

Before closure of augmentation mammoplasty, what is done to verify correct size?
A. Permanent implants are placed, and the nipple-to-nipple distance is measured for symmetry
B. Permanent implants are placed and filled with measured amount of saline to determine volume
C. Temporary sizers are placed and filled with measured amounts of saline to determine volume
D. Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance

A

Temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline, and the table is raised to sitting position to evaluate appearance

56
Q

All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:
A. periareolar
B. subclavicular
C. axillary crease
D. inframammary crease

A

B. subclavicular

57
Q

How would a transverse rectus adbominis musculocutaneous flap be classified?
A. free-flap graft
B. pedicle-flap graft
C. full-thickness skin graft
D. split-thickness skin graft

A

B. pedicle-flap graft

58
Q

Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?
A. to prevent confusion because multiple surgeons will work simultaneously
B. to prevent potential for retained foreign objects in the wounds
C. to prevent overcrowding of the back table with multiple trays
D. to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both

A

D. to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both

59
Q

Which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the graft remains intact?
A. Doppler probe
B. manometer
C. pulse oximeter
D. stethoscope

A

A. Doppler probe

60
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of liposuction?
A. electrosurgery
B. laser
C. tumescent
D. ultrasonic

A

A. electrosurgery

61
Q

Which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure?
A. transverse abdominis
B. rectus abdominis
C. latissimus dorsi
D. pectoralis major

A

B. rectus abdominis

62
Q

Under which muscle is the pocket for breast implants often created for greatest support?
A. internal oblique
B. latissimus dorsi
C. pectoralis major
D. serratus anterior

A

C. pectoralis major

63
Q

Which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures?
A. Bookwalter
B. fiber-optic
C. Greenberg
D. weitlaner

A

B. fiber-optic

64
Q

Which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved?
A. free flap
B. full thickness
C. pedicle flap
D. split thickness

A

C. pedicle flap

Surg tech 👩‍⚕️ (32 decks)

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