Chapter 1020 Final Flashcards
1
Q
Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed
A
strike-through
2
Q
When opening a wrapped item, such as a gown on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrapper are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper?
A
1 inch from the edge
3
Q
What is the term for the condition of a surgical technologists skin after performing a surgical scrub?
A
surgically clean
4
Q
Before opening any sterilely packaged item, what is MOST important to verify about the package?
A
integrity of package
5
Q
Which of the following is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist’s hands?
a. clasped together in front at waist level
b. grasping edge of draped back table with fingers coiled under table edge
c. hanging down at sides with hands below table level
d. tucked into axillary region
A
a. clasped together in front at waist level
6
Q
Sterilely attired surgical team members should pass one another in any of the following ways EXCEPT:
A
front to back
7
Q
A nonsterile person should approach a sterile area face forward while maintaining a distance of:
A
12 inches
8
Q
Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist’s role in preventing surgical site infections?
A
strict surgical conscience
9
Q
Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?
A
double gloving
10
Q
What is the term for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?
A
flora
11
Q
What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?
A
cavitation
12
Q
Which type of packaging system has filters and removable locking devices?
A
rigid containers
13
Q
Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the calendar day in 1 through 365/366?
A
Julian
14
Q
The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is:
A
sterilization
15
Q
Which of the following would be appropriate for use on animate surfaces?
a. antiseptic
b. decontaminant
c. disinfectant
d. sterilant
A
a. antiseptic
16
Q
Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?
a. colonoscopes
b. hypodermic needles
c. laryngoscopes
d. pulse oximeters
A
d. pulse oximeters
17
Q
Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?
A
enzymatic
18
Q
What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?
A
bleach
19
Q
What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol?
A
carbolic acid
20
Q
Which of the following would be appropriate for soaking instruments covered with bioburden during a surgical procedure?
A
sterile water
21
Q
What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution?
A
milking
22
Q
Which of the following should NEVER be processed by immediate-use (flash) sterilization methods?
a. ebonized laser instruments
b. implantable devices
c. stainless steel suction tips
d. titanium microinstrumentation
A
b. implantable devices
23
Q
Which kind of quality control device consists of a paper that has been impregnated with a dye that changes color in the presence of a specified temperature and sterilant?
A
chemical indicator
24
Q
The number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time
A
bioburden
25
absence of pathogenic microorganisms
asepsis
26
Which part of the instrument processing is performed intraoperatively
Wiping instruments (sterile water/basin)
27
The AAMI recommends that instrument cases should not weigh more than?
25 lbs
28
A chemical that is a high-level disinfectant at 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant for instruments emerged for 10 hours is
Glutaraldehyde
29
A biological indicator for steam sterilization/method for testing, contains the bacterial spore
Geobacillus stearothermophilus
30
What is the term used to describe that water/liquid can't go through it?
impervious
31
The type of sterilization method most commonly used is and least expensive
steam sterilization
32
Destruction of all living/microorganisms including spores, on inanimate surfaces
Sterilization
33
An inanimate object that harbors microorganisms and contributes to environmental contamination
fomite
34
The reason why large steam sterilizer's are loaded with space in between items?
So steam can circulate and penetrate all surfaces
35
The common name for a high-level disinfectant Sodium Hypochlorite
Household bleach
36
Decontamination between procedures, such as removing soiled linens and waste bags, wiping down the OR furniture and surgical lights, mopping the floor, and spot cleaning the walls
turn-over
37
Instruments that must be cleaned with a tube brush, pipe cleaner, bristle brush, or hand held pressure gun?
instruments with lumen
38
Manual cleaning of surgical instruments pre-soaking solution contains:
Sterile luke-warm water, neutral pH, enzymatic solution, and detergent solution
39
What is the risk of putting instruments with dis-similar metals, such as stainless steel with brass or copper in a washer-sterilizer cycle?
Electrolytic conduction reaction
40
What type of surgical instrument that you would never immerse in any type of chemical-decontamination equipment?
powered
41
What is the cleaning method for surgical instrumentation, the work off sound waves, of bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges particles in the crevasses of instruments (cavitation)
Ultrasonic Cleaner
42
The Bowie-Dick test is performed for what sterilization method?
Pre-vacuum air removal
43
The name of the outside area of an autoclave where the steam is created before it is injected into the interior compartment/chamber?
jacket
44
Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh bottom trays for sterilization ?
Penetration of sterilant
45
Where do you place the biological test pack or the first run of the day?
In the front of the sterilizer on bottom shelf over the drain.
46
Which type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with iodine or other antimicrobial agents
- gauze packing strips
- incise drapes
- occlusive contact dressing
- radiopaque surgical sponges
Radiopaque Surgical Sponges
47
What term describes an instrument; such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent or modified to accommodate for variances in anatomy ?
- alterable
- malleable
- changeable
Malleable
48
Which scalpel handle would accommodate a #20 disposable knife blade?
- #3
- #4
- #7
- #9
#4
49
Which type of syringe has no calibrations?
Ear Bulb Syringe
50
During laparoscopy procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult pt is kept at?
12-15mm Hg
51
A drain is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the pt's body
Y
52
Which suction tip is indicated for use in nasopharynx and often called a "tonsil" or "oral" suction
- Adson
- Frazier
- Yankauer
- Poole
Yankauer
53
Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for drain placement?
- #10
- #11
- #12
- #20
#11!!!!!
54
Weitlaner, O'Conner-O'Sullivan, & Balfour are examples of
Self-retaining retractors
55
Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a natural body orifice
Flexible Ureteroscope
56
What is the term for thread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to prevent a retained item?
Radiopaque
57
How are ray-tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open?
a) They cannot be used at all
b) They should be opened to full length
c) They should have rings attached to them
d) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge stick"
d) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as "sponge stick"
58
Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to prevent dislodgement
a) Coude
b) Foley
c) Red Robinson
d) Suprapubic
Suprapubic
59
What is the technical name for a clamp?
HEMOSTAT
60
Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, & plain 4x4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a three-layer dressing?
a) Absorbent Intermediate layer
b) Binding outer layer
c) Occlusive layer
d) permeable contact layer
a) absorbent intermediate layer
61
GI, chest, & airway are types of?
a) drains
b) tubes
c) catheters
d) instruments
b) tubes
62
Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a cystoscope
a) foley
b) pezzer
c) ureteral
d) malecot
c) ureteral
63
Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR table?
- balfour
- bookwalter
- greenburg
- thompson
Balfour
64
Why must chest tubes be attached to water-seal drainage system?
To keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration
65
All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments EXCEPT:
a) operating
b) oscillating
c) reciprocating
d) rotary
a) operating
66
A pt w/ major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation (stripping off outer layer) of skin by constant removal of adhesive tape?
Montgomery straps
67
What is the name of the paired parts if hemostat that span between the boxlock and finger rings?
a) jaws
b) rachets
c) shanks
d) tips
c) shanks
68
Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the eyes and ears?
a) aperture
b) incise
c) nonfenestrated
d) stockinette
a) aperture
69
Which of the following drains works by passive action ?
- hemovac
- penrose
- jackson-pratt
- stryker
Penrose
70
How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize pts for treatment?
a) 30 sec - 1 min
b) 1 - 2 min
c) 2 - 5 min
d) 5 - 10 min
a) 30 sec - 1 min
71
All of the following are chemical agents EXCEPT
nerve
mustard gas
phosgene
Tularemia
Tularemia
72
Which suture gauge would be most appropriate for ophthalmic surgery?
10-0
73
What type of synthetic suture is absorbable
polyglactin910 (vycril)
74
Continuous suturing technique that places sutures in the endothelial (subcuticular) layer in short lateral throws
running subcuticular
75
What wound classification would anterior posterior colporrhaphy
Class ||
76
monofilament, nonabsorbable and synthetic used frequently in cardiovascular for anastomosis
polypropylene (prolene)
77
Which suturing technique would be used on the appendix for appendectomy
Pur-string
78
Which internal device that fires circular stapes
EEA
79
Evisceration of abdominal wound is
protrusion of viscera through all tissue layers
80
Which type of suture needle is used on friable tissue such as the kidney or liver
Blunt
81
Which of the following is NOT a method of achieving hemostasis?
a. apportional
b. chemical
c. mechanical
d. thermal
a) apportional
82
All of the following are techniques for eliminating dead space in a wound EXCEPT:
a. careful approximation of tissues
b. electrical nerve elimination
c. placement of wound drain
d. pressure dressings
b. electrical nerve elimination
83
What is used to close the epidural layer when a subcuticular wound closure has been done for good cosmesis?
a. suture bridge
b. skin closure tapes
c. split lead shots
d. suture anchors
b) skin closure tapes
84
Primary union wound healing occurs:
side to side
85
What is the name of a raised, hypertrophic scar due to excessive collagen formation in some darker-skinned individuals?
a. cicatrix
b. granuloma
c. keloid
d. seroma
c. keloid
86
Tissue trauma is minimized by using which type of suture-needle combination?
a. threaded suture on a closed-eye taper needle
b. threaded suture on a closed-eye Keith needle
c. suture loaded on a French-eyed needle
d. suture permanently swaged on an eyeless needle
d. suture permanently swaged on an eyeless needle
87
What is the primary reason bolsters are used with retention sutures?
a. to facilitate easy post-op suture removal
b. to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin
c. to stabilize heavy dressings without use of tape
d. to prevent dressings from touching the suture line
b. to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin
88
Which type of healing occurs in an aseptic wound with good approximation and ideal surgical conditions?
a. first intention
b. second intention
c. third intention
d. fourth intention
a. first intention
89
What is the chemical name for Durabond or Indermil?
a. cryoprecipitate
b. cyanoacrylate
c. fibrin glue
d. polymethyl methacrylate
b. cyanoacrylate
90
How will the surgeon manipulate skin edges of a wound before the surgical technologist places an approximating skin staple?
a. evert the edges outward
b. invert the edges inward
c. overlap the edges slightly
d. rotate the edges slightly
a. evert the edges outward
91
A wound that is not sutured and gradually fills in by granulation heals by which intention?
a. first
b. second
c. placement of wound drain
d. fourth
b. second
92
What is the term for a type of suture that has the strand of suture material inserted into the hollowed-out needle end?
a. closed eye
b. crimped
c. French-eye
d. swaged
d. swaged
93
What kind of wound is a sacral decubitus ulcer?
a. chronic
b. clean
c. closed
d. contusion
a. chronic
94
what would be the type of suture temporarily used to hold tongue?
traction
95
Ethicon sutures may be available with a designation of "plus" for some sutures, which means they:
a. are longer strands than the original versions
b. have more than one needle in the package
c. have a heavier gauge needle for thicker tissues
d. are impregnated with an antibacterial coating
d. are impregnated with an antibacterial coating
96
Which type of suture is often used to create a vascular anastomosis?
a. synthetic, absorbable, multifilament on a 3/8 circle cutting needle
b. synthetic, non-absorbable, multifilament on a 1/2 circle taper needle
c. synthetic, absorbable, monofilament on a Keith straight needle
d. synthetic, non-absorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles
d. synthetic, non-absorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles
97
Which tissue layer of the abdominal wall provides the greatest strength and support of the wound?
a. skin
b. fascia
c. peritoneum
d. subcutaneous
b. fascia
98
Which layer of the abdominal wall must be approximated securely, even if the other layers are not?
a. skin
b. fascia
c. peritoneum
d. subcutaneous fat
b. fascia
99
What is the term for removal of foreign material or contaminated debris from a wound?
a. debridement
b. dehiscence
c. denuding
d. desiccation
a. debridement
100
A pt undergoing chemotherapy and radiation therapy for cancer might experience prolonged wound healing due to:
a. Class I, primary union wound
b. hyperactive immune response
c. immunosuppressed status
d. vascular proliferation
c. immunosuppressed status
101
Which postoperative wound complication would require immediate surgical treatment?
a. fistula
b. adhesions
c. infection
d. evisceration
d. evisceration
102
By which intention would a purulent wound treated by debridement and placement of medicated packing, then sutured after resolution of the infection heal?
a. first intention
b. second intention
c. third intention
d. primary union
c. third intention
103
Which statement is CORRECT regarding monofilament sutures?
a. they have high capillarity
b. they cause increased tissue drag
c. they are braided, twisted, and coated
d. they may be used in infected wounds
d. they may be used in infected wounds
104
ligatures are used to...
occlude the lumen of a blood vessel
105
Which of the following is an example of acceptable and safe intraoperative auto transfusion blood collection?
a. blood collected during a major abdominal trauma procedure with small bowel perforation
b. bloody ascites fluid drained from the peritoneal cavity during surgery for ovarian cancer
c. blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
d. bloody fluid suctioned during liver resection with use of reconstituted topical thrombin spray on oozing bleeders
c. blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
106
which suture is MOST inert in tissue
prolene
107
Another name for a suture ligature with a needle attached to it
stick-tie
108
What is the chemical name for vycril?
Polyglactin910
109
Which non-suture needle is used for insufflation of carbon dioxide into the abdomen for laparoscopy?
a. arterial
b. hypodermic
c. spinal
d. Veress
d. Veress
110
Which of the following wouds would be assigned to Class I?
a. compound femoral fracture
b. gunshot wound to the abdomen
c. appendectomy with no major intestinal spillage
d. inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique
d. inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique
111
Which type of suture ligature ties is attached to needle
stick-ties
112
Which needle has the cutting edge on the outside curvature of the needle body?
a. conventional
b. Keith straight
c. reverse
d. spatula
c. reverse
113
The suturing technique MOST appropriate for wounds likely to become infected or suffer potential stress is:
a. blanket
b. interrupted
c. purse-string
d. simple continuous
b. interrupted
114
Which type of needle is preferred for suturing of skin?
a. blunt
b. cutting
c. taper
d. spatula
b. cutting
115
What type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with iodine or other antimicrobial agent?
Radiopaque surgical sponges
116
The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neutral structures are called..
cottonoids
117
by what action does a cigarette drain remove fluid from a wound?
wicking
118
Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and steri strips are examples of which types of surgical dressing?
one layer
119
What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?
monitor central venous pressure changes
120
The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?
tonsillectomy
121
Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:
Dilators
122
Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent tissue damage (intestinal) in abdominal surgery laparotomy
Poole
123
What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?
Fenestration
124
Which classification of an instrument can be of a forcep or ringed and ratcheted configuration?
grasping and holding
125
Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterile by an anesthesia provider to determine the location or conduction of nerves?
Nerve Stimulator
126
Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and not magnetizing
titanium
127
What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?
2
128
Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepacked in unites of five?
Lap
129
Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and spica casts fall?
rigid
130
normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakins solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which type of dressing?
wet-to-dry
131
In medical terminology which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device
-tome
132
Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serration for stabilization?
needle holder
133
Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?
Solar
134
Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression?
pneumatic tourniquet
135
Which of the following is a mild form of shock, due to increase in blood flow to the skin, thus causing a reduction of blood flow to vital organs
Heat Exhaustion
136
Which of the following term describes life-threatening conditions if not immediately treated
Heat Stroke
137
Which of the following substance is LEAST likely to cause anaphylactic reaction
- certain antibiotics
- insulin
- benadryl
- contrast media
Benadryl
138
All of the following are emergency response agencies excpet
NMS
LEMA
ICS
CDC
CDC
139
During triage of a chemical & nuclear disaster, victims are separated in order to contain the contamination the warm zone
is 300 ft from the hot zone
140
DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and
platelets
141
What is an emergent pathological process that creates a systemic hypercoagulation followed by hypo coagulation & internal hemorrhaging
DIC
142
What is the BI for Sterrad
Bacillus atrophaeus
143
What is the type of packaging is used with hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (sterrad) for sterilization
Tyvek
144
What is the most common pathogen associated w HAI
staphylococcus aureus
145
Potentially fatal hypermetabolic state of
muscles due to defect in calcium
transportation w/in muscle fibers of skeletal
muscles.
MH malignant hyperthermia
