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Surg tech 👩‍⚕️ > Chapter 1020 Final > Flashcards

Chapter 1020 Final Flashcards

1
Q

Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed

A

strike-through

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2
Q

When opening a wrapped item, such as a gown on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrapper are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper?

A

1 inch from the edge

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3
Q

What is the term for the condition of a surgical technologists skin after performing a surgical scrub?

A

surgically clean

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4
Q

Before opening any sterilely packaged item, what is MOST important to verify about the package?

A

integrity of package

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5
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist’s hands?
a. clasped together in front at waist level
b. grasping edge of draped back table with fingers coiled under table edge
c. hanging down at sides with hands below table level
d. tucked into axillary region

A

a. clasped together in front at waist level

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6
Q

Sterilely attired surgical team members should pass one another in any of the following ways EXCEPT:

A

front to back

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7
Q

A nonsterile person should approach a sterile area face forward while maintaining a distance of:

A

12 inches

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8
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist’s role in preventing surgical site infections?

A

strict surgical conscience

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9
Q

Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?

A

double gloving

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10
Q

What is the term for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?

A

flora

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11
Q

What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?

A

cavitation

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12
Q

Which type of packaging system has filters and removable locking devices?

A

rigid containers

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13
Q

Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the calendar day in 1 through 365/366?

A

Julian

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14
Q

The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is:

A

sterilization

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15
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate for use on animate surfaces?
a. antiseptic
b. decontaminant
c. disinfectant
d. sterilant

A

a. antiseptic

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16
Q

Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?
a. colonoscopes
b. hypodermic needles
c. laryngoscopes
d. pulse oximeters

A

d. pulse oximeters

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17
Q

Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?

A

enzymatic

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18
Q

What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?

A

bleach

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19
Q

What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol?

A

carbolic acid

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20
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate for soaking instruments covered with bioburden during a surgical procedure?

A

sterile water

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21
Q

What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution?

A

milking

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22
Q

Which of the following should NEVER be processed by immediate-use (flash) sterilization methods?
a. ebonized laser instruments
b. implantable devices
c. stainless steel suction tips
d. titanium microinstrumentation

A

b. implantable devices

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23
Q

Which kind of quality control device consists of a paper that has been impregnated with a dye that changes color in the presence of a specified temperature and sterilant?

A

chemical indicator

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24
Q

The number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time

A

bioburden

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25
Q

absence of pathogenic microorganisms

A

asepsis

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26
Q

Which part of the instrument processing is performed intraoperatively

A

Wiping instruments (sterile water/basin)

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27
Q

The AAMI recommends that instrument cases should not weigh more than?

A

25 lbs

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28
Q

A chemical that is a high-level disinfectant at 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant for instruments emerged for 10 hours is

A

Glutaraldehyde

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29
Q

A biological indicator for steam sterilization/method for testing, contains the bacterial spore

A

Geobacillus stearothermophilus

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30
Q

What is the term used to describe that water/liquid can’t go through it?

A

impervious

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31
Q

The type of sterilization method most commonly used is and least expensive

A

steam sterilization

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32
Q

Destruction of all living/microorganisms including spores, on inanimate surfaces

A

Sterilization

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33
Q

An inanimate object that harbors microorganisms and contributes to environmental contamination

A

fomite

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34
Q

The reason why large steam sterilizer’s are loaded with space in between items?

A

So steam can circulate and penetrate all surfaces

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35
Q

The common name for a high-level disinfectant Sodium Hypochlorite

A

Household bleach

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36
Q

Decontamination between procedures, such as removing soiled linens and waste bags, wiping down the OR furniture and surgical lights, mopping the floor, and spot cleaning the walls

A

turn-over

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37
Q

Instruments that must be cleaned with a tube brush, pipe cleaner, bristle brush, or hand held pressure gun?

A

instruments with lumen

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38
Q

Manual cleaning of surgical instruments pre-soaking solution contains:

A

Sterile luke-warm water, neutral pH, enzymatic solution, and detergent solution

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39
Q

What is the risk of putting instruments with dis-similar metals, such as stainless steel with brass or copper in a washer-sterilizer cycle?

A

Electrolytic conduction reaction

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40
Q

What type of surgical instrument that you would never immerse in any type of chemical-decontamination equipment?

A

powered

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41
Q

What is the cleaning method for surgical instrumentation, the work off sound waves, of bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges particles in the crevasses of instruments (cavitation)

A

Ultrasonic Cleaner

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42
Q

The Bowie-Dick test is performed for what sterilization method?

A

Pre-vacuum air removal

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43
Q

The name of the outside area of an autoclave where the steam is created before it is injected into the interior compartment/chamber?

A

jacket

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44
Q

Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh bottom trays for sterilization ?

A

Penetration of sterilant

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45
Q

Where do you place the biological test pack or the first run of the day?

A

In the front of the sterilizer on bottom shelf over the drain.

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46
Q

Which type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with iodine or other antimicrobial agents
- gauze packing strips
- incise drapes
- occlusive contact dressing
- radiopaque surgical sponges

A

Radiopaque Surgical Sponges

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47
Q

What term describes an instrument; such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent or modified to accommodate for variances in anatomy ?
- alterable
- malleable
- changeable

A

Malleable

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48
Q

Which scalpel handle would accommodate a #20 disposable knife blade?
- #3
- #4
- #7
- #9

A

4

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49
Q

Which type of syringe has no calibrations?

A

Ear Bulb Syringe

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50
Q

During laparoscopy procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal pressure in the average healthy adult pt is kept at?

A

12-15mm Hg

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51
Q

A drain is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the pt’s body

A

Y

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52
Q

Which suction tip is indicated for use in nasopharynx and often called a “tonsil” or “oral” suction
- Adson
- Frazier
- Yankauer
- Poole

A

Yankauer

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53
Q

Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for drain placement?
- #10
- #11
- #12
- #20

A

11!!!!!

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54
Q

Weitlaner, O’Conner-O’Sullivan, & Balfour are examples of

A

Self-retaining retractors

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55
Q

Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a natural body orifice

A

Flexible Ureteroscope

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56
Q

What is the term for thread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to prevent a retained item?

A

Radiopaque

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57
Q

How are ray-tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open?
a) They cannot be used at all
b) They should be opened to full length
c) They should have rings attached to them
d) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as “sponge stick”

A

d) They should be mounted on a ring forceps as “sponge stick”

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58
Q

Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to prevent dislodgement
a) Coude
b) Foley
c) Red Robinson
d) Suprapubic

A

Suprapubic

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59
Q

What is the technical name for a clamp?

A

HEMOSTAT

60
Q

Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, & plain 4x4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a three-layer dressing?
a) Absorbent Intermediate layer
b) Binding outer layer
c) Occlusive layer
d) permeable contact layer

A

a) absorbent intermediate layer

61
Q

GI, chest, & airway are types of?
a) drains
b) tubes
c) catheters
d) instruments

A

b) tubes

62
Q

Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a cystoscope
a) foley
b) pezzer
c) ureteral
d) malecot

A

c) ureteral

63
Q

Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR table?
- balfour
- bookwalter
- greenburg
- thompson

A

Balfour

64
Q

Why must chest tubes be attached to water-seal drainage system?

A

To keep air from reentering thoracic space to reestablish negative pressure for respiration

65
Q

All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments EXCEPT:
a) operating
b) oscillating
c) reciprocating
d) rotary

A

a) operating

66
Q

A pt w/ major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have which type of binding layer to prevent excoriation (stripping off outer layer) of skin by constant removal of adhesive tape?

A

Montgomery straps

67
Q

What is the name of the paired parts if hemostat that span between the boxlock and finger rings?
a) jaws
b) rachets
c) shanks
d) tips

A

c) shanks

68
Q

Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the eyes and ears?
a) aperture
b) incise
c) nonfenestrated
d) stockinette

A

a) aperture

69
Q

Which of the following drains works by passive action ?
- hemovac
- penrose
- jackson-pratt
- stryker

A

Penrose

70
Q

How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize pts for treatment?
a) 30 sec - 1 min
b) 1 - 2 min
c) 2 - 5 min
d) 5 - 10 min

A

a) 30 sec - 1 min

71
Q

All of the following are chemical agents EXCEPT
nerve
mustard gas
phosgene
Tularemia

A

Tularemia

72
Q

Which suture gauge would be most appropriate for ophthalmic surgery?

A

10-0

73
Q

What type of synthetic suture is absorbable

A

polyglactin910 (vycril)

74
Q

Continuous suturing technique that places sutures in the endothelial (subcuticular) layer in short lateral throws

A

running subcuticular

75
Q

What wound classification would anterior posterior colporrhaphy

A

Class ||

76
Q

monofilament, nonabsorbable and synthetic used frequently in cardiovascular for anastomosis

A

polypropylene (prolene)

77
Q

Which suturing technique would be used on the appendix for appendectomy

A

Pur-string

78
Q

Which internal device that fires circular stapes

A

EEA

79
Q

Evisceration of abdominal wound is

A

protrusion of viscera through all tissue layers

80
Q

Which type of suture needle is used on friable tissue such as the kidney or liver

A

Blunt

81
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of achieving hemostasis?
a. apportional
b. chemical
c. mechanical
d. thermal

A

a) apportional

82
Q

All of the following are techniques for eliminating dead space in a wound EXCEPT:
a. careful approximation of tissues
b. electrical nerve elimination
c. placement of wound drain
d. pressure dressings

A

b. electrical nerve elimination

83
Q

What is used to close the epidural layer when a subcuticular wound closure has been done for good cosmesis?
a. suture bridge
b. skin closure tapes
c. split lead shots
d. suture anchors

A

b) skin closure tapes

84
Q

Primary union wound healing occurs:

A

side to side

85
Q

What is the name of a raised, hypertrophic scar due to excessive collagen formation in some darker-skinned individuals?
a. cicatrix
b. granuloma
c. keloid
d. seroma

A

c. keloid

86
Q

Tissue trauma is minimized by using which type of suture-needle combination?

a. threaded suture on a closed-eye taper needle
b. threaded suture on a closed-eye Keith needle
c. suture loaded on a French-eyed needle
d. suture permanently swaged on an eyeless needle

A

d. suture permanently swaged on an eyeless needle

87
Q

What is the primary reason bolsters are used with retention sutures?

a. to facilitate easy post-op suture removal
b. to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin
c. to stabilize heavy dressings without use of tape
d. to prevent dressings from touching the suture line

A

b. to prevent sutures from cutting into the skin

88
Q

Which type of healing occurs in an aseptic wound with good approximation and ideal surgical conditions?

a. first intention
b. second intention
c. third intention
d. fourth intention

A

a. first intention

89
Q

What is the chemical name for Durabond or Indermil?

a. cryoprecipitate
b. cyanoacrylate
c. fibrin glue
d. polymethyl methacrylate

A

b. cyanoacrylate

90
Q

How will the surgeon manipulate skin edges of a wound before the surgical technologist places an approximating skin staple?

a. evert the edges outward
b. invert the edges inward
c. overlap the edges slightly
d. rotate the edges slightly

A

a. evert the edges outward

91
Q

A wound that is not sutured and gradually fills in by granulation heals by which intention?

a. first
b. second
c. placement of wound drain
d. fourth

A

b. second

92
Q

What is the term for a type of suture that has the strand of suture material inserted into the hollowed-out needle end?

a. closed eye
b. crimped
c. French-eye
d. swaged

A

d. swaged

93
Q

What kind of wound is a sacral decubitus ulcer?

a. chronic
b. clean
c. closed
d. contusion

A

a. chronic

94
Q

what would be the type of suture temporarily used to hold tongue?

A

traction

95
Q

Ethicon sutures may be available with a designation of “plus” for some sutures, which means they:

a. are longer strands than the original versions
b. have more than one needle in the package
c. have a heavier gauge needle for thicker tissues
d. are impregnated with an antibacterial coating

A

d. are impregnated with an antibacterial coating

96
Q

Which type of suture is often used to create a vascular anastomosis?

a. synthetic, absorbable, multifilament on a 3/8 circle cutting needle
b. synthetic, non-absorbable, multifilament on a 1/2 circle taper needle
c. synthetic, absorbable, monofilament on a Keith straight needle
d. synthetic, non-absorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles

A

d. synthetic, non-absorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles

97
Q

Which tissue layer of the abdominal wall provides the greatest strength and support of the wound?

a. skin
b. fascia
c. peritoneum
d. subcutaneous

A

b. fascia

98
Q

Which layer of the abdominal wall must be approximated securely, even if the other layers are not?

a. skin
b. fascia
c. peritoneum
d. subcutaneous fat

A

b. fascia

99
Q

What is the term for removal of foreign material or contaminated debris from a wound?

a. debridement
b. dehiscence
c. denuding
d. desiccation

A

a. debridement

100
Q

A pt undergoing chemotherapy and radiation therapy for cancer might experience prolonged wound healing due to:

a. Class I, primary union wound
b. hyperactive immune response
c. immunosuppressed status
d. vascular proliferation

A

c. immunosuppressed status

101
Q

Which postoperative wound complication would require immediate surgical treatment?

a. fistula
b. adhesions
c. infection
d. evisceration

A

d. evisceration

102
Q

By which intention would a purulent wound treated by debridement and placement of medicated packing, then sutured after resolution of the infection heal?

a. first intention
b. second intention
c. third intention
d. primary union

A

c. third intention

103
Q

Which statement is CORRECT regarding monofilament sutures?

a. they have high capillarity
b. they cause increased tissue drag
c. they are braided, twisted, and coated
d. they may be used in infected wounds

A

d. they may be used in infected wounds

104
Q

ligatures are used to…

A

occlude the lumen of a blood vessel

105
Q

Which of the following is an example of acceptable and safe intraoperative auto transfusion blood collection?

a. blood collected during a major abdominal trauma procedure with small bowel perforation
b. bloody ascites fluid drained from the peritoneal cavity during surgery for ovarian cancer
c. blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm
d. bloody fluid suctioned during liver resection with use of reconstituted topical thrombin spray on oozing bleeders

A

c. blood collected from sponges into a basin of sterile saline during repair of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm

106
Q

which suture is MOST inert in tissue

A

prolene

107
Q

Another name for a suture ligature with a needle attached to it

A

stick-tie

108
Q

What is the chemical name for vycril?

A

Polyglactin910

109
Q

Which non-suture needle is used for insufflation of carbon dioxide into the abdomen for laparoscopy?

a. arterial
b. hypodermic
c. spinal
d. Veress

A

d. Veress

110
Q

Which of the following wouds would be assigned to Class I?

a. compound femoral fracture
b. gunshot wound to the abdomen
c. appendectomy with no major intestinal spillage
d. inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique

A

d. inguinal hernia repair with no breaks in technique

111
Q

Which type of suture ligature ties is attached to needle

A

stick-ties

112
Q

Which needle has the cutting edge on the outside curvature of the needle body?

a. conventional
b. Keith straight
c. reverse
d. spatula

A

c. reverse

113
Q

The suturing technique MOST appropriate for wounds likely to become infected or suffer potential stress is:

a. blanket
b. interrupted
c. purse-string
d. simple continuous

A

b. interrupted

114
Q

Which type of needle is preferred for suturing of skin?

a. blunt
b. cutting
c. taper
d. spatula

A

b. cutting

115
Q

What type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with iodine or other antimicrobial agent?

A

Radiopaque surgical sponges

116
Q

The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neutral structures are called..

A

cottonoids

117
Q

by what action does a cigarette drain remove fluid from a wound?

A

wicking

118
Q

Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and steri strips are examples of which types of surgical dressing?

A

one layer

119
Q

What do Broviac and Hickman catheters do?

A

monitor central venous pressure changes

120
Q

The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?

A

tonsillectomy

121
Q

Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:

A

Dilators

122
Q

Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent tissue damage (intestinal) in abdominal surgery laparotomy

A

Poole

123
Q

What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?

A

Fenestration

124
Q

Which classification of an instrument can be of a forcep or ringed and ratcheted configuration?

A

grasping and holding

125
Q

Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterile by an anesthesia provider to determine the location or conduction of nerves?

A

Nerve Stimulator

126
Q

Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and not magnetizing

A

titanium

127
Q

What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?

A

2

128
Q

Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepacked in unites of five?

A

Lap

129
Q

Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and spica casts fall?

A

rigid

130
Q

normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakins solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which type of dressing?

A

wet-to-dry

131
Q

In medical terminology which suffix indicates an instrument as a cutting device

A

-tome

132
Q

Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serration for stabilization?

A

needle holder

133
Q

Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?

A

Solar

134
Q

Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression?

A

pneumatic tourniquet

135
Q

Which of the following is a mild form of shock, due to increase in blood flow to the skin, thus causing a reduction of blood flow to vital organs

A

Heat Exhaustion

136
Q

Which of the following term describes life-threatening conditions if not immediately treated

A

Heat Stroke

137
Q

Which of the following substance is LEAST likely to cause anaphylactic reaction
- certain antibiotics
- insulin
- benadryl
- contrast media

A

Benadryl

138
Q

All of the following are emergency response agencies excpet
NMS
LEMA
ICS
CDC

A

CDC

139
Q

During triage of a chemical & nuclear disaster, victims are separated in order to contain the contamination the warm zone

A

is 300 ft from the hot zone

140
Q

DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and

A

platelets

141
Q

What is an emergent pathological process that creates a systemic hypercoagulation followed by hypo coagulation & internal hemorrhaging

A

DIC

142
Q

What is the BI for Sterrad

A

Bacillus atrophaeus

143
Q

What is the type of packaging is used with hydrogen peroxide gas plasma (sterrad) for sterilization

A

Tyvek

144
Q

What is the most common pathogen associated w HAI

A

staphylococcus aureus

145
Q

Potentially fatal hypermetabolic state of
muscles due to defect in calcium
transportation w/in muscle fibers of skeletal
muscles.

A

MH malignant hyperthermia

Surg tech 👩‍⚕️ (32 decks)

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