#3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?

A

They should be counted while all still on back table

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2
Q

Where is a Swan-Ganz catheter placed?

A

pulmonary artery

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3
Q

Split-thickness skin grafts are used to cover which type of burned tissue?

A

denuded areas of 4rd degree burns

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4
Q

Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are:

A

benign neoplasms

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5
Q

What type of life-support treatment would be considered ultimately futile and its benefits far outweighed by the financial and emotional burden suffered by the family and health care system?

A

extraordinary

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6
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding anatomical changes following pelvic exenteration?

A

colostomy will exit on the left and ileostomy on the right side of the abdomen

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7
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the anatomy of the vulva?

A

cervix

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8
Q

The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is:

A

sterilization

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9
Q

The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine?

A

transverse

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10
Q

What is another name for the innominate artery?

A

brachiocephalic

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11
Q

What is the name of the structure that is a small depression containing only cones and has the highest visual acuity?

A

central fovea

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12
Q

Coral would be classified as what type of graft material?

A

xenograft

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13
Q

The part of the complete ESU circuit that delivers alternating current back from exposed tissue to the ESU generator is the:

A

patient return electrode (grounding pad)

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14
Q

Which towel is placed first when squaring off the operative site?

A

same side as person applying towels

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15
Q

In which of the following procedures would sutures most likely NOT be necessary?

A

extra capsular cataract extraction

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16
Q

Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves?

A

septal

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17
Q

What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?

A

debridement

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18
Q

What are the serrations of DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments considered to be?

A

atraumatic

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19
Q

The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is:

A

empyema

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20
Q

Which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?

A

recession/resection

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21
Q

During which crisis should a patients groin and armpits have ice applied?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

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22
Q

Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and venous cannulae?

A

purse-string

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23
Q

Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection?

A

CT scan

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24
Q

Cough syrups containing codeine would be placed in which classification of controlled substances?

A

Class V

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25
Q

The term C-arm refers to a(n):

A

fluoroscopic machine

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26
Q

What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?

A

The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.

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27
Q

Weitlaner, O’Connor-O’Sullivan, and Balfour are examples of:

A

self-retaining retractors

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28
Q

Which of the following names represents an eye speculum that resembles an uncoiled metal paper clip?

A

Barraquer

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29
Q

Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?

A

Leyla-Yasargil

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30
Q

Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

pulmonary thromboendarterectomy

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31
Q

Cryptorchidism is more commonly known as:

A

undescended testicles q

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32
Q

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?

A

bone cement

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33
Q

Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair?

A

aortogram

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34
Q

Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?

A

saturated steam

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35
Q

Which gynecologic procedure is performed for treatment of urinary incontinence or cystocele?

A

anterior colporrhaphy

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36
Q

In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?

A

anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

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37
Q

Which department would provide services for repair of broken equipment or to do routine preventive checks?

A

maintenance and biomed

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38
Q

Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops?

A

resectoscope

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39
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?

A

socket

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40
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A

catecholamines

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41
Q

Bifurcated drains and fluffy pressure dressings are used following mastectomy primarily to:

A

prevent formation of hematoma and seroma

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42
Q

Which muscle is incised in transverse abdominal approaches for gynecologic procedures?

A

anterior rectus

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43
Q

which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures

A

blunt probe

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44
Q

Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:

A

Great toe

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45
Q

In which procedure would the procerus and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated?

A

endoscopic brow lift

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46
Q

What is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the perioperative setting and must be accessible to health care workers?

A

MSDS

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47
Q

What is a commonly used rib self-retaining retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes?

A

Finochietto

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48
Q

Which of the following legislative rulings requires medical facilities to inform patients of their rights to choose the types and extent of medical care available and their legal right to advance directives?

A

Patient Self-Determination Act

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49
Q

Which instrument is a rib shear?

A

Bethune

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50
Q

Which term describes a physician-group-owned hospital?

A

proprietary

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51
Q

Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde dried prior to submersion?

A

moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels

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52
Q

Which of the following is a weighted vaginal speculum?

A

Auvard

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53
Q

Which handheld retractor is specifically designed for use in open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver?

A

Harrington

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54
Q

In normal blood gas ranges, arterial oxygen saturation should be at or near what percentage range of capacity?

A

96% to 100%

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55
Q

Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?

A

to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both

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56
Q

Which type of laser has a wavelength that creates a bright blue-green visible light within a plasma tube?

A

argon

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57
Q

Which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps for operating a fire extinguisher?

A

PASS

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58
Q

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?

A

bunionectomy

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59
Q

The term adnexa refers to which gynecologic anatomical structures?

A

fallopian tubes, ovaries, and infundibulum

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60
Q

What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?

A

Cloward

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61
Q

What is the procedure name for the removal of fibroid tumors of the uterus with the preservation of fertility?

A

myomectomy

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62
Q

Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?

A

arterial bifurcation

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63
Q

What color is the abnormal tissue after staining with acetic acid in a cervical biopsy?

A

white

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64
Q

Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope?

A

retrograde urogram

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65
Q

When turning the sterile gown, what is handed to the circulator that completes the gowning process?

A

gown tab or card

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66
Q

In general, after what length of continuous pneumatic tourniquet use should the extremity be allowed to reperfuse before reinflating the tourniquet?

A

one hour

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67
Q

For which special patient population group would the help of a counselor or social worker who could communicate the current state of mind or mood of the patient to the OR staff be of benefit to all parties involved?

A

substance abuse

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68
Q

Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake?

A

water

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69
Q

Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?

A

sphenoid sinus

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70
Q

Which of the following pertains to a patient’s wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate?

A

advanced directive

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71
Q

Which type of drug is used to treat possible postoperative nausea and vomiting?

A

antimetic

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72
Q

Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?

A

u-drape

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73
Q

Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis?

A

mastoiditis

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74
Q

Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act?

A

FDA

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75
Q

In which of the following abdominal incisions would the linea alba be opened down to the peritoneum?

A

median vertical

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76
Q

What does a mesh graft device do?

A

It expands the size of the skin graft.

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77
Q

Which patient condition might be characterized by physical appearance of flat nasal bridge and short neck with some impairment of cognitive ability and growth, slower speech, and an affectionate to clingy persona?

A

Down syndrome

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78
Q

Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?

A

heat stoke

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79
Q

Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:

A

operative approaches

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80
Q

Which of the following diagnoses is currently used in most jurisdictions of the world to define a state of irreversible death?

A

whole brain death

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81
Q

Which teeth are located in the center front of the mouth?

A

incisors

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82
Q

Which anatomical structure is the largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body?

A

spleen

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83
Q

The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the:

A

ear

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84
Q

Which organization would employees of the central sterile processing department likely join as members?

A

IAHCSMM

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85
Q

How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize patients for treatment?

A

1 minute or less

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86
Q

What is the name for the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present?

A

pantaloon

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87
Q

A patient undergoing chemotherapy and radiation therapy for cancer might experience prolonged wound healing due to:

A

immunosuppressed status

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88
Q

Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as β€œprofessional misconduct that results in harm to another”?

A

malpractice

89
Q

What is another term for spinal anesthesia?

A

intrathecal

90
Q

What is the anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system?

A

subarachnoid space

91
Q

Fiducials placed on bony landmarks are used in which type of neurosurgical procedure?

A

stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy

92
Q

For which procedure would the gynecologist likely wear surgical loupes?

A

tubal reanastomosis

93
Q

Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted?

A

right lower quadrant

94
Q

Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders?

A

cardiac catheterization

95
Q

What kind of wound is a sacral decubitus ulcer?

A

chronic

96
Q

Which of the following is NOT a region of the pancreas?

A

capsule

97
Q

A surgical technologist working in a Veteran’s Administration (VA) facility might frequently encounter patients with which of the following conditions?

A

PTSD

98
Q

An assistant may be needed to properly perform which type of surgical skin prep?

A

circumferential extremity

99
Q

When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?

A

when both kidney s are functioning at or below 10% of normal

100
Q

An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n):

A

prostate biopsy

101
Q

During triage of a chemical and nuclear disaster, victims are separated in order to contain the contamination. The warm zone

A

is 300 ft from hot zoon

102
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?

A

dorsal, superior, and inferior

103
Q

What chronically occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears?

A

otitis media

104
Q

Which member of the U.S. government makes a federal disaster declaration and mobilizes FEMA?

A

president

105
Q

Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?

A

greenstick

106
Q

Extreme caution should be exercised when using which of the following for localized anesthesia of fingers, toes, or the penis, or in neonates?

A

epi

107
Q

Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus?

A

posterolateral

108
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe surgical intervention that does not have to be performed immediately or within a short period of time, for example, a torn meniscus repair?

A

elective

109
Q

What is a vascular imaging technique that removes the background structures from view is refereed to as?

A

digital subtraction

110
Q

Which type of study would be used to diagnose sleep apnea?

A

polysomnography

111
Q

Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?

A

achilles

112
Q

What is the name of the gelatin-like fluid that fills the posterior cavity of the eye?

A

vitreous humor

113
Q

Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?

A

UPPP

114
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the β€œFive Stages of Grief”?

A

represssion

115
Q

What is a common surgical approach for Colles’ fracture?

A

External fixation

116
Q

Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?

A

short

117
Q

What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?

A

2

118
Q

Which of the following is a pharmacologic agent that constricts the pupil of the eye?

A

acetylcholine

119
Q

Which method of tubal ligation (sterilization) is most frequently used?

A

Pomeroy

120
Q

What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning?

A

nuclear medicine

121
Q

In or by which of the four components of communication would β€œdecoding” take place?

A

receiver

122
Q

What is the appropriate method for delivering a sterile item to
the back table from a peel package?

A

Open package laterally and completely; gently toss item without touching glued edge or going over back table.

123
Q

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?

A

flat and irregular

124
Q

Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren’s contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?

A

lead hand

125
Q

What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?

A

glucometer

126
Q

What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?

A

1 cm

127
Q

What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?

A

hydrocele

128
Q

How much memory does a computer with a gigabyte (GB) capacity hold?

A

1,000 megabytes

129
Q

Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:

A

impotence

130
Q

What are the operative mortality rates of patients with unruptured AAA scheduled for elective repair?

A

2% to 3%

131
Q

Wilson, Andrews, and Hall frames are examples of positioning devices used for:

A

lumbar hemilaminotomy

132
Q

Surgical technologists and other allied health professionals in perioperative services usually work under the direction of which hospital administrative director?

A

director of nursing

133
Q

During an anaphylactic reaction, the surgical team must maintain the airway and provide supplemental oxygen or the patient may die of:

A

respiratory failure

134
Q

Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT?

A

It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side

135
Q

Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?

A

pull it

136
Q

Which of the following are used on tips of hemostats to prevent breaking of delicate monofilament suture when tagged?

A

suture aid booties

137
Q

The fallopian tubes are located bilaterally in the mesosalpinx of which uterine-pelvic ligaments?

A

broad

138
Q

What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy

139
Q

Magnesium, calcium, and zinc come from which drug source?

A

mineral

140
Q

A person with only basic physiological functions of respiration, blood pressure, and heartbeat intact is categorized as having suffered which kind of death?

A

higher brain

141
Q

Rapid serial film changers and pressure injectors are used in which diagnostic imaging study?

A

angiogram

142
Q

What is another name for the ovarian suspensory ligament?

A

infundibulopelvic

143
Q

What is the name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning?

A

mayfield

144
Q

For a dilation and curettage (D&C), which of the following orders of instrument use is CORRECT for endometrial biopsy?

A

weighted vaginal speculum, tenaculum, uterine sound, cervical dilators, endometrial curettes

145
Q

Which of the following naming categories for pharmaceutical drugs would NOT be used in a health care setting?

A

street

146
Q

Which of the following national agencies is an arm of the CDC and functions under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to research and establish permissible exposure limits for chemical vapors and gases?

A

NIOSH

147
Q

Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT

A

hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site

148
Q

All of the following are examples of tissue interaction with laser light energy EXCEPT:

A

cotraction

149
Q

Which bone is involved in a Colles’ fracture?

A

radius

150
Q

How will the surgeon manipulate skin edges of a wound before the surgical technologist places an approximating skin staple?

A

evert the edges lutward

151
Q

Which specialist would likely have privileges to surgically treat diseases of the breast, hepatobiliary and gastrointestinal systems, and thyroid gland?

A

general surgeon

152
Q

What does Sister Callista Roy define as β€œall conditions, circumstances, and influences that surround and affect the development and behavior of the person”?

A

environment

153
Q

Which of the following is an inward turning of the eyelid with resulting corneal irritation?

A

entropian

154
Q

If a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following?

A

negligence

155
Q

Which of the following statements regarding peracetic acid sterilized items is CORRECT?

A

Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored.

156
Q

Which position would facilitate exposure of the operative area during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A

reverse trendeleburg with slight tilt to the left

157
Q

What is the chemical name of Gore-Tex suture?

A

polytetrafluoroethylene

158
Q

What is a common component of many contrast media that may be a contraindication for use in allergic patients?

A

iodine

159
Q

Which type of ventilation system provides a supply of clean air and reduces contaminants and fumes from the OR?

A

positive unidirectional

160
Q

Clinical death begins how many minutes after the cessation of heart action and breathing:

A

4-6

161
Q

In what way can the surgical technologist who is setting up his or her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old patient’s anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia?

A

Perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quiet as possible for induction.

162
Q

By what action does a β€œcigarette” drain remove fluid from a wound?

A

wicking

163
Q

What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a prevacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave?

A

4 minutes

164
Q

Through which hospital department or committee would the certified surgical first assistant (CSFA) submit a request for privileges to work in the operating room?

A

medical staff

165
Q

Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?

A

6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene

166
Q

Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?

A

temporalis

167
Q

Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called:

A

hemorrhoid

168
Q

To achieve the goal of leaving as little foreign material in a wound, the ideal suture selected should have:

A

high-tensile strength and small diameter

169
Q

Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?

A

overproduction of immunoglobin

170
Q

Which diameter fixation screw would MOST likely be used for a fracture of the mandible?

A

4.0 mm

171
Q

Which two structures form the external tunic of the globe of the eye?

A

cornea and sclera

172
Q

All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:

A

subclavicular

173
Q

Which fascial sheet is attached to the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubis?

A

scarpas fascia

174
Q

Which of the following terms best describes the process of keeping thorough, accurate, and legal records of a patient’s medical care?

A

documentation

175
Q

A T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely exit through:

A

one of the 5 mm right port site incisions

176
Q

β€œBowel technique” refers to steps used by the surgical team to prevent postoperative:

A

ssi

177
Q

Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?

A

AB

178
Q

Which type of syringe has no calibrations?

A

bulb/ear

179
Q

The treatment for DIC includes:

A

heparin, cryoprecipitate, transfusion of fresh frozen plasma

180
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs?

A

hypothermia

181
Q

In a common adage, what is the β€œbest medicine” in health care?

A

prevention

182
Q

Which injury would be treated prior to shock in an emergency situation?

A

chest injury

183
Q

Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery?

A

vaginalis

184
Q

Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age?

A

pharyngeal

185
Q

Surgical removal of the entire breast without any lymph nodes is a(n):

A

simple mastectomy

186
Q

Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate method of performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?

A

medical hand wash

187
Q

Which type of hernia occurs below the abdominocrural crease and more frequently in females?

A

femoral

188
Q

What term for legal right of an author or photographer over the reproduction of original work?

A

copyright

189
Q

Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?

A

femur

190
Q

Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?

A

renal pelvis

191
Q

What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?

A

atlas

192
Q

What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?

A

injury to endothelial lining

193
Q

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?

A

powered shaving system

194
Q

Which national membership organization’s House of Delegates proposed the creation of the Association of Operating Room Technicians (AORT) in 1969?

A

AORN

195
Q

Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?

A

ceruminous

196
Q

Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus?

A

sulfonamides

197
Q

Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet?

A

lucidum

198
Q

How long should the steam biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?

A

24 hrs

199
Q

When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?

A

first trimester

200
Q

Which surgical procedure treats compression of the median nerve by a transverse ligament?

A

carpal tunnel release

201
Q

Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?

A

larygneal

202
Q

What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation?

A

penectomy

203
Q

Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:

A

nose bleed

204
Q

Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

A

compartmental syndrome

205
Q

Which of the following surgical team members would be primarily responsible for maintaining the patient’s operative record and transporting the patient to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?

A

circulating RN `

206
Q

DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and

A

platelets

207
Q

What is a common potential side effect of all forms of antibiotic therapy for major pediatric infections?

A

pseudomembranous enterocolitis

208
Q

How are most drugs absorbed by the body?

A

passive transport

209
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause of a patient burn from alternate exit pathway of ESU current?

A

placement site of ECG leads

210
Q

Which of the following terms represents a positive physical and psychological state of a patient?

A

eustress

211
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?

A

radiopaque vaginal packing

212
Q

The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines?

A

Langer’s

213
Q

Which anesthetic method helps reduce the anxiety and stress experienced by pediatric surgical patients?

A

rapid induction

214
Q

Lung tissue has what kind of consistency?

A

friable

215
Q

What is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burs on a pneumatic drill?

A

hand piece on safety

216
Q

Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids?

A

Groshong

217
Q

Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?

A

solar

218
Q

Intraoperative fluoroscopy for cholangiography would require which of the following?

A

radiolucent OR table