#3 Flashcards
1
Q
Which statement regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?
A
They should be counted while all still on back table
2
Q
Where is a Swan-Ganz catheter placed?
A
pulmonary artery
3
Q
Split-thickness skin grafts are used to cover which type of burned tissue?
A
denuded areas of 4rd degree burns
4
Q
Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are:
A
benign neoplasms
5
Q
What type of life-support treatment would be considered ultimately futile and its benefits far outweighed by the financial and emotional burden suffered by the family and health care system?
A
extraordinary
6
Q
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding anatomical changes following pelvic exenteration?
A
colostomy will exit on the left and ileostomy on the right side of the abdomen
7
Q
Which of the following structures is NOT part of the anatomy of the vulva?
A
cervix
8
Q
The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is:
A
sterilization
9
Q
The hepatic and splenic flexures are located proximally and distally in which part of the large intestine?
A
transverse
10
Q
What is another name for the innominate artery?
A
brachiocephalic
11
Q
What is the name of the structure that is a small depression containing only cones and has the highest visual acuity?
A
central fovea
12
Q
Coral would be classified as what type of graft material?
A
xenograft
13
Q
The part of the complete ESU circuit that delivers alternating current back from exposed tissue to the ESU generator is the:
A
patient return electrode (grounding pad)
14
Q
Which towel is placed first when squaring off the operative site?
A
same side as person applying towels
15
Q
In which of the following procedures would sutures most likely NOT be necessary?
A
extra capsular cataract extraction
16
Q
Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves?
A
septal
17
Q
What is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting?
A
debridement
18
Q
What are the serrations of DeBakey and Cooley vascular instruments considered to be?
A
atraumatic
19
Q
The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive layer is:
A
empyema
20
Q
Which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered completely from anesthesia, but within 24 hours?
A
recession/resection
21
Q
During which crisis should a patients groin and armpits have ice applied?
A
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
22
Q
Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and venous cannulae?
A
purse-string
23
Q
Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection?
A
CT scan
24
Q
Cough syrups containing codeine would be placed in which classification of controlled substances?
A
Class V
25
The term C-arm refers to a(n):
fluoroscopic machine
26
What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?
The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.
27
Weitlaner, O’Connor-O’Sullivan, and Balfour are examples of:
self-retaining retractors
28
Which of the following names represents an eye speculum that resembles an uncoiled metal paper clip?
Barraquer
29
Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?
Leyla-Yasargil
30
Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?
pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
31
Cryptorchidism is more commonly known as:
undescended testicles q
32
What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?
bone cement
33
Which diagnostic study provides the most detailed information for surgical planning in AAA repair?
aortogram
34
Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?
saturated steam
35
Which gynecologic procedure is performed for treatment of urinary incontinence or cystocele?
anterior colporrhaphy
36
In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?
anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion
37
Which department would provide services for repair of broken equipment or to do routine preventive checks?
maintenance and biomed
38
Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops?
resectoscope
39
Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?
socket
40
What does the adrenal medulla secrete?
catecholamines
41
Bifurcated drains and fluffy pressure dressings are used following mastectomy primarily to:
prevent formation of hematoma and seroma
42
Which muscle is incised in transverse abdominal approaches for gynecologic procedures?
anterior rectus
43
which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures
blunt probe
44
Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:
Great toe
45
In which procedure would the procerus and corrugator muscles be ablated, avulsed, resected, or separated?
endoscopic brow lift
46
What is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the perioperative setting and must be accessible to health care workers?
MSDS
47
What is a commonly used rib self-retaining retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes?
Finochietto
48
Which of the following legislative rulings requires medical facilities to inform patients of their rights to choose the types and extent of medical care available and their legal right to advance directives?
Patient Self-Determination Act
49
Which instrument is a rib shear?
Bethune
50
Which term describes a physician-group-owned hospital?
proprietary
51
Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde dried prior to submersion?
moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels
52
Which of the following is a weighted vaginal speculum?
Auvard
53
Which handheld retractor is specifically designed for use in open cholecystectomy to elevate the liver?
Harrington
54
In normal blood gas ranges, arterial oxygen saturation should be at or near what percentage range of capacity?
96% to 100%
55
Why would two separate setups be required for an immediate reconstruction following mastectomy?
to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
56
Which type of laser has a wavelength that creates a bright blue-green visible light within a plasma tube?
argon
57
Which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps for operating a fire extinguisher?
PASS
58
Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?
bunionectomy
59
The term adnexa refers to which gynecologic anatomical structures?
fallopian tubes, ovaries, and infundibulum
60
What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?
Cloward
61
What is the procedure name for the removal of fibroid tumors of the uterus with the preservation of fertility?
myomectomy
62
Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?
arterial bifurcation
63
What color is the abnormal tissue after staining with acetic acid in a cervical biopsy?
white
64
Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope?
retrograde urogram
65
When turning the sterile gown, what is handed to the circulator that completes the gowning process?
gown tab or card
66
In general, after what length of continuous pneumatic tourniquet use should the extremity be allowed to reperfuse before reinflating the tourniquet?
one hour
67
For which special patient population group would the help of a counselor or social worker who could communicate the current state of mind or mood of the patient to the OR staff be of benefit to all parties involved?
substance abuse
68
Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake?
water
69
Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?
sphenoid sinus
70
Which of the following pertains to a patient’s wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate?
advanced directive
71
Which type of drug is used to treat possible postoperative nausea and vomiting?
antimetic
72
Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?
u-drape
73
Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis?
mastoiditis
74
Which governmental agency has authority as outlined in the Safe Medical Device Act?
FDA
75
In which of the following abdominal incisions would the linea alba be opened down to the peritoneum?
median vertical
76
What does a mesh graft device do?
It expands the size of the skin graft.
77
Which patient condition might be characterized by physical appearance of flat nasal bridge and short neck with some impairment of cognitive ability and growth, slower speech, and an affectionate to clingy persona?
Down syndrome
78
Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?
heat stoke
79
Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:
operative approaches
80
Which of the following diagnoses is currently used in most jurisdictions of the world to define a state of irreversible death?
whole brain death
81
Which teeth are located in the center front of the mouth?
incisors
82
Which anatomical structure is the largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body?
spleen
83
The pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the:
ear
84
Which organization would employees of the central sterile processing department likely join as members?
IAHCSMM
85
How long should a person performing disaster triage take to categorize patients for treatment?
1 minute or less
86
What is the name for the type of hernia in which both direct and indirect defects are present?
pantaloon
87
A patient undergoing chemotherapy and radiation therapy for cancer might experience prolonged wound healing due to:
immunosuppressed status
88
Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as “professional misconduct that results in harm to another”?
malpractice
89
What is another term for spinal anesthesia?
intrathecal
90
What is the anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system?
subarachnoid space
91
Fiducials placed on bony landmarks are used in which type of neurosurgical procedure?
stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy
92
For which procedure would the gynecologist likely wear surgical loupes?
tubal reanastomosis
93
Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted?
right lower quadrant
94
Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders?
cardiac catheterization
95
What kind of wound is a sacral decubitus ulcer?
chronic
96
Which of the following is NOT a region of the pancreas?
capsule
97
A surgical technologist working in a Veteran’s Administration (VA) facility might frequently encounter patients with which of the following conditions?
PTSD
98
An assistant may be needed to properly perform which type of surgical skin prep?
circumferential extremity
99
When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?
when both kidney s are functioning at or below 10% of normal
100
An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n):
prostate biopsy
101
During triage of a chemical and nuclear disaster, victims are separated in order to contain the contamination. The warm zone
is 300 ft from hot zoon
102
Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?
dorsal, superior, and inferior
103
What chronically occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears?
otitis media
104
Which member of the U.S. government makes a federal disaster declaration and mobilizes FEMA?
president
105
Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?
greenstick
106
Extreme caution should be exercised when using which of the following for localized anesthesia of fingers, toes, or the penis, or in neonates?
epi
107
Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus?
posterolateral
108
Which of the following terms is used to describe surgical intervention that does not have to be performed immediately or within a short period of time, for example, a torn meniscus repair?
elective
109
What is a vascular imaging technique that removes the background structures from view is refereed to as?
digital subtraction
110
Which type of study would be used to diagnose sleep apnea?
polysomnography
111
Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?
achilles
112
What is the name of the gelatin-like fluid that fills the posterior cavity of the eye?
vitreous humor
113
Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?
UPPP
114
Which of the following is NOT one of the "Five Stages of Grief"?
represssion
115
What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture?
External fixation
116
Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?
short
117
What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?
2
118
Which of the following is a pharmacologic agent that constricts the pupil of the eye?
acetylcholine
119
Which method of tubal ligation (sterilization) is most frequently used?
Pomeroy
120
What is another term used for diagnostic isotope scanning?
nuclear medicine
121
In or by which of the four components of communication would "decoding" take place?
receiver
122
What is the appropriate method for delivering a sterile item to
the back table from a peel package?
Open package laterally and completely; gently toss item without touching glued edge or going over back table.
123
In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?
flat and irregular
124
Which of the following might be used for stabilization in a Dupuytren's contracture release if an assistant is unavailable?
lead hand
125
What is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status?
glucometer
126
What distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume?
1 cm
127
What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?
hydrocele
128
How much memory does a computer with a gigabyte (GB) capacity hold?
1,000 megabytes
129
Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:
impotence
130
What are the operative mortality rates of patients with unruptured AAA scheduled for elective repair?
2% to 3%
131
Wilson, Andrews, and Hall frames are examples of positioning devices used for:
lumbar hemilaminotomy
132
Surgical technologists and other allied health professionals in perioperative services usually work under the direction of which hospital administrative director?
director of nursing
133
During an anaphylactic reaction, the surgical team must maintain the airway and provide supplemental oxygen or the patient may die of:
respiratory failure
134
Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is CORRECT?
It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side
135
Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?
pull it
136
Which of the following are used on tips of hemostats to prevent breaking of delicate monofilament suture when tagged?
suture aid booties
137
The fallopian tubes are located bilaterally in the mesosalpinx of which uterine-pelvic ligaments?
broad
138
What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?
benign prostatic hypertrophy
139
Magnesium, calcium, and zinc come from which drug source?
mineral
140
A person with only basic physiological functions of respiration, blood pressure, and heartbeat intact is categorized as having suffered which kind of death?
higher brain
141
Rapid serial film changers and pressure injectors are used in which diagnostic imaging study?
angiogram
142
What is another name for the ovarian suspensory ligament?
infundibulopelvic
143
What is the name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning?
mayfield
144
For a dilation and curettage (D&C), which of the following orders of instrument use is CORRECT for endometrial biopsy?
weighted vaginal speculum, tenaculum, uterine sound, cervical dilators, endometrial curettes
145
Which of the following naming categories for pharmaceutical drugs would NOT be used in a health care setting?
street
146
Which of the following national agencies is an arm of the CDC and functions under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services to research and establish permissible exposure limits for chemical vapors and gases?
NIOSH
147
Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT
hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site
148
All of the following are examples of tissue interaction with laser light energy EXCEPT:
cotraction
149
Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture?
radius
150
How will the surgeon manipulate skin edges of a wound before the surgical technologist places an approximating skin staple?
evert the edges lutward
151
Which specialist would likely have privileges to surgically treat diseases of the breast, hepatobiliary and gastrointestinal systems, and thyroid gland?
general surgeon
152
What does Sister Callista Roy define as "all conditions, circumstances, and influences that surround and affect the development and behavior of the person"?
environment
153
Which of the following is an inward turning of the eyelid with resulting corneal irritation?
entropian
154
If a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following?
negligence
155
Which of the following statements regarding peracetic acid sterilized items is CORRECT?
Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored.
156
Which position would facilitate exposure of the operative area during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
reverse trendeleburg with slight tilt to the left
157
What is the chemical name of Gore-Tex suture?
polytetrafluoroethylene
158
What is a common component of many contrast media that may be a contraindication for use in allergic patients?
iodine
159
Which type of ventilation system provides a supply of clean air and reduces contaminants and fumes from the OR?
positive unidirectional
160
Clinical death begins how many minutes after the cessation of heart action and breathing:
4-6
161
In what way can the surgical technologist who is setting up his or her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old patient's anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia?
Perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quiet as possible for induction.
162
By what action does a "cigarette" drain remove fluid from a wound?
wicking
163
What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a prevacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave?
4 minutes
164
Through which hospital department or committee would the certified surgical first assistant (CSFA) submit a request for privileges to work in the operating room?
medical staff
165
Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?
6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
166
Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?
temporalis
167
Dilation of the submucosal and subcutaneous venous plexus that lines the anal canal is called:
hemorrhoid
168
To achieve the goal of leaving as little foreign material in a wound, the ideal suture selected should have:
high-tensile strength and small diameter
169
Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?
overproduction of immunoglobin
170
Which diameter fixation screw would MOST likely be used for a fracture of the mandible?
4.0 mm
171
Which two structures form the external tunic of the globe of the eye?
cornea and sclera
172
All of the following are locations for incision in augmentation mammoplasty EXCEPT:
subclavicular
173
Which fascial sheet is attached to the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubis?
scarpas fascia
174
Which of the following terms best describes the process of keeping thorough, accurate, and legal records of a patient's medical care?
documentation
175
A T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would MOST likely exit through:
one of the 5 mm right port site incisions
176
"Bowel technique" refers to steps used by the surgical team to prevent postoperative:
ssi
177
Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?
AB
178
Which type of syringe has no calibrations?
bulb/ear
179
The treatment for DIC includes:
heparin, cryoprecipitate, transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
180
Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs?
hypothermia
181
In a common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care?
prevention
182
Which injury would be treated prior to shock in an emergency situation?
chest injury
183
Which of the following tunica is NOT part of the structure of an artery?
vaginalis
184
Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age?
pharyngeal
185
Surgical removal of the entire breast without any lymph nodes is a(n):
simple mastectomy
186
Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate method of performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?
medical hand wash
187
Which type of hernia occurs below the abdominocrural crease and more frequently in females?
femoral
188
What term for legal right of an author or photographer over the reproduction of original work?
copyright
189
Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?
femur
190
Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?
renal pelvis
191
What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?
atlas
192
What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?
injury to endothelial lining
193
Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?
powered shaving system
194
Which national membership organization's House of Delegates proposed the creation of the Association of Operating Room Technicians (AORT) in 1969?
AORN
195
Which type of gland is found only in the ear canal and is responsible for creation of ear wax?
ceruminous
196
Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus?
sulfonamides
197
Which epidermal stratum is present only on the palms of hands and soles of feet?
lucidum
198
How long should the steam biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?
24 hrs
199
When would a congenital facial deformity likely occur?
first trimester
200
Which surgical procedure treats compression of the median nerve by a transverse ligament?
carpal tunnel release
201
Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?
larygneal
202
What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation?
penectomy
203
Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:
nose bleed
204
Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?
compartmental syndrome
205
Which of the following surgical team members would be primarily responsible for maintaining the patient's operative record and transporting the patient to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU)?
circulating RN `
206
DIC leads to the consumption of coagulation factors and
platelets
207
What is a common potential side effect of all forms of antibiotic therapy for major pediatric infections?
pseudomembranous enterocolitis
208
How are most drugs absorbed by the body?
passive transport
209
Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause of a patient burn from alternate exit pathway of ESU current?
placement site of ECG leads
210
Which of the following terms represents a positive physical and psychological state of a patient?
eustress
211
Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?
radiopaque vaginal packing
212
The skin incision for a thyroidectomy will follow which anatomical lines?
Langer's
213
Which anesthetic method helps reduce the anxiety and stress experienced by pediatric surgical patients?
rapid induction
214
Lung tissue has what kind of consistency?
friable
215
What is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burs on a pneumatic drill?
hand piece on safety
216
Which vascular device is double-lumened for administration of chemotherapy, antibiotic therapy, and IV fluids?
Groshong
217
Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?
solar
218
Intraoperative fluoroscopy for cholangiography would require which of the following?
radiolucent OR table
