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Anatomy and Physiology > Chapter 17: Blood > Flashcards

Chapter 17: Blood Flashcards

1
Q

cardiovascular system consists of __, ___ and __

A

heart, blood vessels and blood

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2
Q

what are the 3 types of blood vessels?

A

arteries, veins, capillaries

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3
Q

arteries carry blood __ (to / away from) the heart

A

away

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4
Q

veins carry blood__ (to/ away from) the heart

A

to

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5
Q

function of capillaries

A

allow for exchange between blood and interstitial fluids

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6
Q

list functions of blood

A
  1. transport (gas nutrients, wastes, hormones)
  2. regulate pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
  3. limit fluid loss at injury sites
  4. defend against toxins and pathogens
  5. body temp
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7
Q

how does the blood limit fluid loss at the injury site?

A

enzymes that start clotting when vessel wall is broken

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8
Q

how does the blood help defend against pathogens?

A

transports wbc and antibodies to fight infection

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9
Q

how does blood stabilize body temperature?

A

absorbs heat generated in one area and distributes it to other tissues

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10
Q

t/f blood is fluid connective tissue

A

t

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11
Q

whole blood

A

blood with all its components

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12
Q

plasma

A

liquid matrix of blood

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13
Q

formed elements of blood

A

celle and cell fragments

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14
Q

about how many litres of blood in a man?

A

5-6 L

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15
Q

about how many litres of blood in a woman?

A

4-5L

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16
Q

temperature of whole blood

A

38 C

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17
Q

blood is __x more viscous than water, this is due to __

A

5; interactions between water molecules in the plasma with dissolved proteins and formed elements

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18
Q

blood pH

A

7.35-7.45

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19
Q

plasma makes up __% of blood volume

A

55

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20
Q

plamsa is similar to ___

A

interstitial fluid

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21
Q

plasma has continuous exchange of __, __ and __ across capillary walls

A

water, ions, small solutes

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22
Q

unlike interstitial fluid, plasma also involves exchange of __ and contains __ that cannot cross the walls

A

respiratory gases (O2 and cO2); dissolved proteins

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23
Q

formed elements account for __ % of whole blood volume

A

45

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24
Q

99% of formed elements are ___

A

RBC

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25
Q

which contains more protein, plasma or IF?

A

plasma (5x more)

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26
Q

which organ makes more than 9-% of plasma proteins?

A

liver

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27
Q

what prevents plasma proteins from leaving the bloodstream?

A

large globular shape

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28
Q

60% of plasma proteins are __

A

albumins

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29
Q

what is the function of albumins?

A

osmotic pressure

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30
Q

35% of plasma proteins are __

A

globulins

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31
Q

what are the 2 types of globulins?

A
  1. antibodies (immunoglobulins)

2. transport globulins

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32
Q

what is the function of immunoglobulins (antibodies)

A

attack foreign pathogens and proteins

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33
Q

what is the function of transport globulins?

A

bind ions, hormones, lipids and other compounds

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34
Q

4% of plasma proteins are __

A

fibrinogen

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35
Q

what is the function of fibrinogen?

A

blood clotting by forming insoluble strands if fibrin

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36
Q

plasma contains active and inactive __ and __

A

hormones and enzymes

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37
Q

plasma is __% water

A

92

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38
Q

what are the 3 types of plasma solutes?

A

electrolytes; organic nutrients; organic wastes

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39
Q

what are the major electrolytes? (4)

A

na, k, ca, hco3

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40
Q

organic nutrients in plasma include __, __ and __

A

lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids

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41
Q

what is the function of organic nutrients in the plasma?

A

cell ATP production, growth, and maintenance

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42
Q

why are there organic wastes in the plasma?

A

they are being carried to the site of breakdown or secretion

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43
Q

examples of organic wastes carried in plasma

A

urea and uric acid, creatine, bilirubin and NH4

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44
Q

what are the 3 major types of formed elements

A

platelets, wbc, rbc

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45
Q

what are platelets and their functions?

A

small membrane bound cell fragment involved in clotting

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46
Q

white blood cells are involved with the body’s __ and there are __ different types with different functions

A

defense; 5

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47
Q

what is the function of RBC

A

oxygen transportation

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48
Q

the development of formed elements is called __ and occurs in the __

A

hemopoiesis; red bone marrow

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49
Q

hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) make

A

hemocytoblasts

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50
Q

hemocytoblasts make 2 types of stem cells:

A
  1. lymphoid stem cells (make lymphocytes)

2. myeloid stem cells (make RBc and other WBc)

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51
Q

lymphoid stem cells originate in the __

A

red bone marrow

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52
Q

t/f all lymphocytes migrate to the lymphoid tissues

A

false

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53
Q

lymphoid tiisue locations

A

thymus, spleen, lymph nodes

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54
Q

lymphoblasts can make

A

pro lymphocytes

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55
Q

what is colony-stimulating factor and its function?

A

hormones released by lymphocytes and other cells in immune response to stimulate blood cell formation

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56
Q

myeloid stem cells differentiate into 3 types of __ cells that then differentiate into __, __ and __

A

progenitor; 1. mono blasts and myeloblasts 2. megakaryoctes 3. pro erythroblasts

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57
Q

monoblasts differentiate into __ and then __

A

promonocytes; monocytes

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58
Q

myeloblasts differentiate into 3 types of ____ that differentiate into __ cells

A

myecocytes; band cells

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59
Q

band cells differentiate into 3 types of WBC _

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

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60
Q

what is the structure of megakaryocytes?

A

enormous cells with large nuclei

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61
Q

megakaryocytic shed __- that will become __

A

membrane enclosed packs of cytoplasm; Platelets

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62
Q

proerthroblasts differentiate into ___

A

erythroblasts

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63
Q

what happens to erythroblasts once they’re made? what do they become?

A

they lose their nuclei and become reticulocytes

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64
Q

reticulocytes differentiate into __

A

erythrocytes (RBC)

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65
Q

erythropoietin is released into plasma in response to

A

low tissue oxygen levels

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66
Q

what is the name for low tissue oxygen levels?

A

hypoxia

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67
Q

list stimuli for EPO release (4)

A
  1. anemia
  2. reduced blood flow to kidneys
  3. decreased O2 content in lungs from disease or high altitude
  4. lung damage
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68
Q

EPO release stimulates ___ and ___

A

stem cells and developing RBC’s in red bone marrow

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69
Q

what is dyscrasias?

A

blood disorders

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70
Q

list reasons for a blood test (2)

A
  1. blood typing

2. check types/number of RBC, WBC and platelets

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71
Q

what is included in a complete blood count? (4)

A
  1. abc count
  2. wbc count
  3. erythrocyte indices (hemoglobin)
  4. hematocrit
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72
Q

what do red blood cell tests assess?

A

number, size, and maturity of circulating RBCs

73
Q

what fraction of cells in the body are RBC?

A

1/3

74
Q

a single drop of whole blood contains ~___ RBC

A

260 million

75
Q

a rBC test measure the number of RBC per ___ (unit) of role blood

A

uL or cubic millimetre

76
Q

T/F women have slightly lower RBC count than men

A

true

77
Q

are RBC capable of division and repair? why/whynot?

A

no, because they don’t have a nucleus or ribosomes

78
Q

what is the primary function of RBC?

A

transport respiratory gases

79
Q

95% of the intracellular proteins in RBC are __

A

hemoglobin

80
Q

structure of hemoglobin

A

quaternary structure made of 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains

81
Q

t/f hemoglobin is similar to myoglobin

A

true

82
Q

each chain in a hemoglobin molecule contains a single __ molecule

A

heme

83
Q

each heme group contains a __- ion that interacts with __ to form __

A

iron; oxygen; oxyhemoglobin

84
Q

what makes oxygenated blood bright red?

A

the interaction with iron

85
Q

is oxygen binding to iron reversible or irreversible?

A

reversible

86
Q

when hemoglobin is not bound to oxygen it is called __ and the blood colour is __

A

deoxyhemoglobin; dark red

87
Q

how many heme groups in one hemoglobin molecule?

A

4

88
Q

__-% of oxygen in blood is bound to hemoglobin and the rest is dissolved in the __

A

98.5; plasma

89
Q

what happens at the end of the life of a RBC?

A

hemolysis of PM and engulfed by macrophages in the spleen, liver, or bone marrow

90
Q

what is erythropoiesis?

A

RBC formation

91
Q

erythropoiesis occurs only in what locations?

A

red bone marrow or myeloid tissue in vertebrae, ribs, sternum, skull, scapulae, pelvis. and ends of limb bones

92
Q

how can bone marrow respond to sustained blood loss?

A

fatty yellow marrow can convert to red marrow to be able to produce RBC

93
Q

after being engulfed by a macrophage, the heme units are stripped of their ___

A

iron

94
Q

what happens to the iron that is stripped in macrophage ?

A

stored in phagocyte or enters the blood

95
Q

when a macrophage releases stripped iron, to what does in attach to in the blood?

A

transferrin

96
Q

what happens to the heme that has been stripped of its iron when in the macrophage? what 2 things does it become in succession and where is it transported?

A

becomes biliverdin then bilirubin, enters the bloodstream and goes to the liver

97
Q

what does the macrophage do with the globular proteins of an RBC after engulfing it?

A

breaks them down into amino acids to be recycled

98
Q

what happens to hemoglobin that is not phagocytized>

A

breaks down on its own and is excreted in urine

99
Q

breakdown of an abnormally large number of RBCs results in what colour urine? what is the name of this condition?

A

red or brown; hemoglobinuria

100
Q

__ is excreted in bile by the liver

A

bilirubin

101
Q

what causes bilirubin to build up?

A

blocked bile ducts, or inability to process bilirubin

102
Q

when bilirubin builds up it diffuses into __ and causes__

A

peripheral tissues; jaundice

103
Q

in the large intestine, bacteria convert bilirubin into __ and ___

A

urobilins and stercobilins

104
Q

what 2 things do the kidneys excrete that give urine its yellow colour?

A

hemoglobin and urobilins

105
Q

what is hematuria?

A

presence of intact RBC in the urine

106
Q

hematuria only occurs after __

A

damage to urinary tract

107
Q

what are antigens?

A

substances that can elicit immune response

108
Q

T/F our cells have surface antigens that are recognized ar self by the immune system

A

true

109
Q

blood type is determined genetically by ___

A

what antigens are present to RBC plasma membranes

110
Q

what are the three most important blood cell surface antigens>

A

A, B, Rh

111
Q

blood antigens are also called

A

agglutinogens

112
Q

what are the four abo blood types?

A

a, b, ab, o

113
Q

what is agglutination?

A

clumping together of RBC

114
Q

what causes agglutination?

A

surface antigens are exposed to antibodies (agglutinins) of another blood type

115
Q

agglutination is called what type of reaction?

A

cross reaction

116
Q

the RH blood group is based on __

A

presence or absence of Rh surface antigen on RBCs

117
Q

T/F exposure to foreign RBCs is needed to develop antibodies for A/B

A

false

118
Q

T/F exposure to foreign rh is needed to develop antibodies in an rh- person

A

true

119
Q

what are hemolytic diseases of the newborn?

A

when a child has different blood type from the mother, the mother’s antibodies can cross the placenta and attack/destroy fetal RBC’s

120
Q

T/F there are many different forms of HDN, some of which are harmless, some are deadly

A

true

121
Q

T/F a baby can have a different blood type than either of their parents

A

true

122
Q

what is the most common hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

when the mother has Rh- and Rh+ baby

123
Q

why is an rh- woman having an rh+ baby not so much an issue in the first pregnancy?

A

because fetal cells are mostly isolated form maternal blood, so mom’s immune system is not not stimulated to make anti-Rh antibody

124
Q

why is an Rh mother with an rh+ baby a problem if its the second pregnancy with an Rh + baby?

A

because during the birth of the first baby, their was bleeding an the mother was exposed to the rh+ blood and began making antigens

125
Q

what happens during the second pregnancy of an rh- mother with an rh+ baby?

A

the antibodies cross the placenta and cause anemia in the baby, as the need for RBCs increases, erythroblasts are release into the bloodstream before maturity

126
Q

what happens to a baby when erythroblasts are released into the bloodstream before they reach maturity?

A

erythoblastosis; fetalis

127
Q

what would you expect in a severely HDN baby?

A

severely jaundiced and anemic

128
Q

how can HDN be prevented?

A

giving the mother anti -rH antibodies (RhoGAM) at weeks 26 and 28 and during delivery

129
Q

what is the function of RhoGAM?

A

destroy fetal RBC that cross the placenta before they stimulate mother’s immune response

130
Q

what are the 5 types of neutrophils?

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. leukocytes
  3. monocytes
  4. eosinophils
  5. basophils
131
Q

WBC spend most of their life migrating through ___

A

loose and dense connective tissues

132
Q

can all WBC migrate through the bloodstream/

A

yes

133
Q

when WBC make contact with vessels and squeeze between endothelial cells, what is this called?

A

emigration or diapedesis

134
Q

what is positive chemotaxis

A

wbc are attracted to chemical stimulus,

135
Q

what is the role of positive chemotaxis in WBC?

A

it attracts them to site of infection and damage

136
Q

what wbc are capable of phagocytosis?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

137
Q

what are macrophages?

A

monocytes that have moved into peripheral tissues

138
Q

T/F wbc spend most of their life in circulation

A

false

139
Q

what increases WBC count?

A

infection and allergy

140
Q

what is a differential count?

A

gives count of each type of WBC present as a percentage of all wbc present

141
Q

what are the 2 major classes of wbc?

A
  1. granular leukocytes

2. agranular leukocytes

142
Q

structure of granular lekocytes. Do they absorb stain?

A

large and abundant cytoplasmic granules ( secretory vesicles and lysosomes); yes, absorb stain

143
Q

structure of granular leukocytes. do they absorb stain?

A

smaller secretory vesicles/lysosomes that do not absorb stain

144
Q

what type of wbc is responsible for releasing histamines?

A

basophils

145
Q

what types of wbc are granular?

A

neutrophils, eosiniphils, basophils

146
Q

what types of wbc are granular?

A

monocytes and leukocytes

147
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

process responsible for stopping blood loss through damaged vessel walls

148
Q

hemostasis establishes the framework for __

A

tissue repair

149
Q

what are the 3 phases of hemostasis?

A
  1. vascular
  2. platelet
  3. coagulation
150
Q

the vascular phase is dominated by __ and __

A

endothelial response and vascular spasm

151
Q

what happens in the vascular phase?

A

exposed endothelial cells in contact with blood release chemicals and local hormones

152
Q

what specifically is secreted by endothelial cells in the vascular phase, and what 2 things does that lead to?

A

endothelins;

  1. smooth muscle contraction : vascular spasm
  2. division of endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts for repair
153
Q

what happens in the platelet phase?

A

platelets bind to sticky endothelial cells, basement membrane, collagen and other platelets

154
Q

platelets release ADP to stimulate ___

A

lately aggregation and secretion

155
Q

platelets release chemicals that stimulate

A

vascular spams

156
Q

platelet factors

A

proteins that play role in clotting

157
Q

platelet derived growth factors promotes __

A

vessel repair

158
Q

why do platelets release calcium ions?

A

essentail to aggregations anf clotting

159
Q

what happens in the coagulation phase?

A

circulating fibrinogen becomes insoluble fibrin and blood cells and platelets will get caught in it (blood clot)

160
Q

what are procoagulants and their function?

A

calcium and other proteins/proenzymes. clotting

161
Q

what are the 2 pathways in the coagulation phase that lead to the common pathway?

A

intrinsic and extrinsic

162
Q

the extrinsic pathway begins with the release of

A

tissue factor

163
Q

the intrinsic pathway begins with the activation of __

A

proenzymes exposed to collagen fibres at the injury site

164
Q

what is activated by the common pathway?

A

prothrombin activator

165
Q

what is the role of the prothrombin activator?

A

converts prothrombin into thrombin

166
Q

what is the function of thrombin?

A

turns fibrinogen into fibrin

167
Q

what happens in clot retraction?

A

rbc and platelets stick to fibrin threads, platelets contract to form tighter clot and pull edges together

168
Q

what is fibrinolysis?

A

clot dissolving

169
Q

fibrinolysis begins with the activation of ___ by thrombin, which converts it to __

A

plasminogen; plasmin

170
Q

what is the function of plasmin>

A

erodes clot

171
Q

what is a venipuncture?

A

withdrawal of whole blood from a superficial

172
Q

what vein is most used for venipuncture?

A

median cubital

173
Q

a venipuncture is used for diagnosis for what reasons>

A
  1. easy to locate veins
  2. vein walls are thinner than comparable arteries
  3. venous blood pressure is relatively low, so veins heal quickly
174
Q

describe structure of rbc in iron deficient anemia

A

microcytic

175
Q

what causes sickle cell disease?

A

genetic mutation affecting amino acid sequence of beta globulin unit of hemoglobin

176
Q

what are 2 issues associated with sickled rbc?

A
  1. more fragile

2. get stuck together and block flow

177
Q

the first symptoms of leukaemia?

A

presence of immature and abnormal wbc in circulation

178
Q

what are the 2 types of leukaemia?

A

myeloid and lymphoid

Anatomy and Physiology (13 decks)

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