Chapter 17: Blood Flashcards

1
Q

cardiovascular system consists of __, ___ and __

A

heart, blood vessels and blood

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2
Q

what are the 3 types of blood vessels?

A

arteries, veins, capillaries

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3
Q

arteries carry blood __ (to / away from) the heart

A

away

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4
Q

veins carry blood__ (to/ away from) the heart

A

to

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5
Q

function of capillaries

A

allow for exchange between blood and interstitial fluids

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6
Q

list functions of blood

A
  1. transport (gas nutrients, wastes, hormones)
  2. regulate pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
  3. limit fluid loss at injury sites
  4. defend against toxins and pathogens
  5. body temp
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7
Q

how does the blood limit fluid loss at the injury site?

A

enzymes that start clotting when vessel wall is broken

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8
Q

how does the blood help defend against pathogens?

A

transports wbc and antibodies to fight infection

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9
Q

how does blood stabilize body temperature?

A

absorbs heat generated in one area and distributes it to other tissues

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10
Q

t/f blood is fluid connective tissue

A

t

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11
Q

whole blood

A

blood with all its components

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12
Q

plasma

A

liquid matrix of blood

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13
Q

formed elements of blood

A

celle and cell fragments

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14
Q

about how many litres of blood in a man?

A

5-6 L

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15
Q

about how many litres of blood in a woman?

A

4-5L

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16
Q

temperature of whole blood

A

38 C

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17
Q

blood is __x more viscous than water, this is due to __

A

5; interactions between water molecules in the plasma with dissolved proteins and formed elements

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18
Q

blood pH

A

7.35-7.45

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19
Q

plasma makes up __% of blood volume

A

55

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20
Q

plamsa is similar to ___

A

interstitial fluid

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21
Q

plasma has continuous exchange of __, __ and __ across capillary walls

A

water, ions, small solutes

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22
Q

unlike interstitial fluid, plasma also involves exchange of __ and contains __ that cannot cross the walls

A

respiratory gases (O2 and cO2); dissolved proteins

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23
Q

formed elements account for __ % of whole blood volume

A

45

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24
Q

99% of formed elements are ___

A

RBC

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25
which contains more protein, plasma or IF?
plasma (5x more)
26
which organ makes more than 9-% of plasma proteins?
liver
27
what prevents plasma proteins from leaving the bloodstream?
large globular shape
28
60% of plasma proteins are __
albumins
29
what is the function of albumins?
osmotic pressure
30
35% of plasma proteins are __
globulins
31
what are the 2 types of globulins?
1. antibodies (immunoglobulins) | 2. transport globulins
32
what is the function of immunoglobulins (antibodies)
attack foreign pathogens and proteins
33
what is the function of transport globulins?
bind ions, hormones, lipids and other compounds
34
4% of plasma proteins are __
fibrinogen
35
what is the function of fibrinogen?
blood clotting by forming insoluble strands if fibrin
36
plasma contains active and inactive __ and __
hormones and enzymes
37
plasma is __% water
92
38
what are the 3 types of plasma solutes?
electrolytes; organic nutrients; organic wastes
39
what are the major electrolytes? (4)
na, k, ca, hco3
40
organic nutrients in plasma include __, __ and __
lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids
41
what is the function of organic nutrients in the plasma?
cell ATP production, growth, and maintenance
42
why are there organic wastes in the plasma?
they are being carried to the site of breakdown or secretion
43
examples of organic wastes carried in plasma
urea and uric acid, creatine, bilirubin and NH4
44
what are the 3 major types of formed elements
platelets, wbc, rbc
45
what are platelets and their functions?
small membrane bound cell fragment involved in clotting
46
white blood cells are involved with the body's __ and there are __ different types with different functions
defense; 5
47
what is the function of RBC
oxygen transportation
48
the development of formed elements is called __ and occurs in the __
hemopoiesis; red bone marrow
49
hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) make
hemocytoblasts
50
hemocytoblasts make 2 types of stem cells:
1. lymphoid stem cells (make lymphocytes) | 2. myeloid stem cells (make RBc and other WBc)
51
lymphoid stem cells originate in the __
red bone marrow
52
t/f all lymphocytes migrate to the lymphoid tissues
false
53
lymphoid tiisue locations
thymus, spleen, lymph nodes
54
lymphoblasts can make
pro lymphocytes
55
what is colony-stimulating factor and its function?
hormones released by lymphocytes and other cells in immune response to stimulate blood cell formation
56
myeloid stem cells differentiate into 3 types of __ cells that then differentiate into __, __ and __
progenitor; 1. mono blasts and myeloblasts 2. megakaryoctes 3. pro erythroblasts
57
monoblasts differentiate into __ and then __
promonocytes; monocytes
58
myeloblasts differentiate into 3 types of ____ that differentiate into __ cells
myecocytes; band cells
59
band cells differentiate into 3 types of WBC _
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
60
what is the structure of megakaryocytes?
enormous cells with large nuclei
61
megakaryocytic shed __- that will become __
membrane enclosed packs of cytoplasm; Platelets
62
proerthroblasts differentiate into ___
erythroblasts
63
what happens to erythroblasts once they're made? what do they become?
they lose their nuclei and become reticulocytes
64
reticulocytes differentiate into __
erythrocytes (RBC)
65
erythropoietin is released into plasma in response to
low tissue oxygen levels
66
what is the name for low tissue oxygen levels?
hypoxia
67
list stimuli for EPO release (4)
1. anemia 2. reduced blood flow to kidneys 3. decreased O2 content in lungs from disease or high altitude 4. lung damage
68
EPO release stimulates ___ and ___
stem cells and developing RBC's in red bone marrow
69
what is dyscrasias?
blood disorders
70
list reasons for a blood test (2)
1. blood typing | 2. check types/number of RBC, WBC and platelets
71
what is included in a complete blood count? (4)
1. abc count 2. wbc count 3. erythrocyte indices (hemoglobin) 4. hematocrit
72
what do red blood cell tests assess?
number, size, and maturity of circulating RBCs
73
what fraction of cells in the body are RBC?
1/3
74
a single drop of whole blood contains ~___ RBC
260 million
75
a rBC test measure the number of RBC per ___ (unit) of role blood
uL or cubic millimetre
76
T/F women have slightly lower RBC count than men
true
77
are RBC capable of division and repair? why/whynot?
no, because they don't have a nucleus or ribosomes
78
what is the primary function of RBC?
transport respiratory gases
79
95% of the intracellular proteins in RBC are __
hemoglobin
80
structure of hemoglobin
quaternary structure made of 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains
81
t/f hemoglobin is similar to myoglobin
true
82
each chain in a hemoglobin molecule contains a single __ molecule
heme
83
each heme group contains a __- ion that interacts with __ to form __
iron; oxygen; oxyhemoglobin
84
what makes oxygenated blood bright red?
the interaction with iron
85
is oxygen binding to iron reversible or irreversible?
reversible
86
when hemoglobin is not bound to oxygen it is called __ and the blood colour is __
deoxyhemoglobin; dark red
87
how many heme groups in one hemoglobin molecule?
4
88
__-% of oxygen in blood is bound to hemoglobin and the rest is dissolved in the __
98.5; plasma
89
what happens at the end of the life of a RBC?
hemolysis of PM and engulfed by macrophages in the spleen, liver, or bone marrow
90
what is erythropoiesis?
RBC formation
91
erythropoiesis occurs only in what locations?
red bone marrow or myeloid tissue in vertebrae, ribs, sternum, skull, scapulae, pelvis. and ends of limb bones
92
how can bone marrow respond to sustained blood loss?
fatty yellow marrow can convert to red marrow to be able to produce RBC
93
after being engulfed by a macrophage, the heme units are stripped of their ___
iron
94
what happens to the iron that is stripped in macrophage ?
stored in phagocyte or enters the blood
95
when a macrophage releases stripped iron, to what does in attach to in the blood?
transferrin
96
what happens to the heme that has been stripped of its iron when in the macrophage? what 2 things does it become in succession and where is it transported?
becomes biliverdin then bilirubin, enters the bloodstream and goes to the liver
97
what does the macrophage do with the globular proteins of an RBC after engulfing it?
breaks them down into amino acids to be recycled
98
what happens to hemoglobin that is not phagocytized>
breaks down on its own and is excreted in urine
99
breakdown of an abnormally large number of RBCs results in what colour urine? what is the name of this condition?
red or brown; hemoglobinuria
100
__ is excreted in bile by the liver
bilirubin
101
what causes bilirubin to build up?
blocked bile ducts, or inability to process bilirubin
102
when bilirubin builds up it diffuses into __ and causes__
peripheral tissues; jaundice
103
in the large intestine, bacteria convert bilirubin into __ and ___
urobilins and stercobilins
104
what 2 things do the kidneys excrete that give urine its yellow colour?
hemoglobin and urobilins
105
what is hematuria?
presence of intact RBC in the urine
106
hematuria only occurs after __
damage to urinary tract
107
what are antigens?
substances that can elicit immune response
108
T/F our cells have surface antigens that are recognized ar self by the immune system
true
109
blood type is determined genetically by ___
what antigens are present to RBC plasma membranes
110
what are the three most important blood cell surface antigens>
A, B, Rh
111
blood antigens are also called
agglutinogens
112
what are the four abo blood types?
a, b, ab, o
113
what is agglutination?
clumping together of RBC
114
what causes agglutination?
surface antigens are exposed to antibodies (agglutinins) of another blood type
115
agglutination is called what type of reaction?
cross reaction
116
the RH blood group is based on __
presence or absence of Rh surface antigen on RBCs
117
T/F exposure to foreign RBCs is needed to develop antibodies for A/B
false
118
T/F exposure to foreign rh is needed to develop antibodies in an rh- person
true
119
what are hemolytic diseases of the newborn?
when a child has different blood type from the mother, the mother's antibodies can cross the placenta and attack/destroy fetal RBC's
120
T/F there are many different forms of HDN, some of which are harmless, some are deadly
true
121
T/F a baby can have a different blood type than either of their parents
true
122
what is the most common hemolytic disease of the newborn?
when the mother has Rh- and Rh+ baby
123
why is an rh- woman having an rh+ baby not so much an issue in the first pregnancy?
because fetal cells are mostly isolated form maternal blood, so mom's immune system is not not stimulated to make anti-Rh antibody
124
why is an Rh mother with an rh+ baby a problem if its the second pregnancy with an Rh + baby?
because during the birth of the first baby, their was bleeding an the mother was exposed to the rh+ blood and began making antigens
125
what happens during the second pregnancy of an rh- mother with an rh+ baby?
the antibodies cross the placenta and cause anemia in the baby, as the need for RBCs increases, erythroblasts are release into the bloodstream before maturity
126
what happens to a baby when erythroblasts are released into the bloodstream before they reach maturity?
erythoblastosis; fetalis
127
what would you expect in a severely HDN baby?
severely jaundiced and anemic
128
how can HDN be prevented?
giving the mother anti -rH antibodies (RhoGAM) at weeks 26 and 28 and during delivery
129
what is the function of RhoGAM?
destroy fetal RBC that cross the placenta before they stimulate mother's immune response
130
what are the 5 types of neutrophils?
1. neutrophils 2. leukocytes 3. monocytes 4. eosinophils 5. basophils
131
WBC spend most of their life migrating through ___
loose and dense connective tissues
132
can all WBC migrate through the bloodstream/
yes
133
when WBC make contact with vessels and squeeze between endothelial cells, what is this called?
emigration or diapedesis
134
what is positive chemotaxis
wbc are attracted to chemical stimulus,
135
what is the role of positive chemotaxis in WBC?
it attracts them to site of infection and damage
136
what wbc are capable of phagocytosis?
neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes
137
what are macrophages?
monocytes that have moved into peripheral tissues
138
T/F wbc spend most of their life in circulation
false
139
what increases WBC count?
infection and allergy
140
what is a differential count?
gives count of each type of WBC present as a percentage of all wbc present
141
what are the 2 major classes of wbc?
1. granular leukocytes | 2. agranular leukocytes
142
structure of granular lekocytes. Do they absorb stain?
large and abundant cytoplasmic granules ( secretory vesicles and lysosomes); yes, absorb stain
143
structure of granular leukocytes. do they absorb stain?
smaller secretory vesicles/lysosomes that do not absorb stain
144
what type of wbc is responsible for releasing histamines?
basophils
145
what types of wbc are granular?
neutrophils, eosiniphils, basophils
146
what types of wbc are granular?
monocytes and leukocytes
147
what is hemostasis?
process responsible for stopping blood loss through damaged vessel walls
148
hemostasis establishes the framework for __
tissue repair
149
what are the 3 phases of hemostasis?
1. vascular 2. platelet 3. coagulation
150
the vascular phase is dominated by __ and __
endothelial response and vascular spasm
151
what happens in the vascular phase?
exposed endothelial cells in contact with blood release chemicals and local hormones
152
what specifically is secreted by endothelial cells in the vascular phase, and what 2 things does that lead to?
endothelins; 1. smooth muscle contraction : vascular spasm 2. division of endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts for repair
153
what happens in the platelet phase?
platelets bind to sticky endothelial cells, basement membrane, collagen and other platelets
154
platelets release ADP to stimulate ___
lately aggregation and secretion
155
platelets release chemicals that stimulate
vascular spams
156
platelet factors
proteins that play role in clotting
157
platelet derived growth factors promotes __
vessel repair
158
why do platelets release calcium ions?
essentail to aggregations anf clotting
159
what happens in the coagulation phase?
circulating fibrinogen becomes insoluble fibrin and blood cells and platelets will get caught in it (blood clot)
160
what are procoagulants and their function?
calcium and other proteins/proenzymes. clotting
161
what are the 2 pathways in the coagulation phase that lead to the common pathway?
intrinsic and extrinsic
162
the extrinsic pathway begins with the release of
tissue factor
163
the intrinsic pathway begins with the activation of __
proenzymes exposed to collagen fibres at the injury site
164
what is activated by the common pathway?
prothrombin activator
165
what is the role of the prothrombin activator?
converts prothrombin into thrombin
166
what is the function of thrombin?
turns fibrinogen into fibrin
167
what happens in clot retraction?
rbc and platelets stick to fibrin threads, platelets contract to form tighter clot and pull edges together
168
what is fibrinolysis?
clot dissolving
169
fibrinolysis begins with the activation of ___ by thrombin, which converts it to __
plasminogen; plasmin
170
what is the function of plasmin>
erodes clot
171
what is a venipuncture?
withdrawal of whole blood from a superficial
172
what vein is most used for venipuncture?
median cubital
173
a venipuncture is used for diagnosis for what reasons>
1. easy to locate veins 2. vein walls are thinner than comparable arteries 3. venous blood pressure is relatively low, so veins heal quickly
174
describe structure of rbc in iron deficient anemia
microcytic
175
what causes sickle cell disease?
genetic mutation affecting amino acid sequence of beta globulin unit of hemoglobin
176
what are 2 issues associated with sickled rbc?
1. more fragile | 2. get stuck together and block flow
177
the first symptoms of leukaemia?
presence of immature and abnormal wbc in circulation
178
what are the 2 types of leukaemia?
myeloid and lymphoid