Chapter 17 Anesthesia and Analgesia Flashcards

1
Q

t or f: a preanesthetic is given before the induction of anesthesia.

A

true

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2
Q

what type of drug can reverse the effect of another drug?

A

antagonist

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3
Q

name an alternative to opioid analgesics that are not controlled substances and do not cause depression of the central nervous system?

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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4
Q

what is capillary refill time?

A

the time it takes capillaries to refill with blood after emptying

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5
Q

name four of the physiological parameters that should be monitored during surgery.

A
pulse
oxygen saturation
respiration
blood pressure
mucous membrane and skin color
capillary refill time
reflexes
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6
Q

name the 3 phases of anesthesia administration

A

induction
maintenance
recovery

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7
Q

name a common anesthetic used for aquatic species

A

tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222)

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8
Q

what is the purpose of soda lime when used in an anesthetic circuit?

A

to absorb expired carbon dioxide (CO2)

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9
Q

t or f: rebreathing inhalant anesthesia systems should normally be used with smaller animals.

A

false. nonrebreathing systems are normally used with animals less than 5kg.

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10
Q

t or f: when neuromuscular blockers are used alone, the paralyzed animal is fully conscious and can feel pain.

A

true

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11
Q

Which of the four stages of anesthesia should be attained before the trachea can be intubated?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

c. Stage 3

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12
Q

Which type of animal does NOT need to be routinely fasted before anesthesia?

a. Rodent
b. Goat
c. Cat
d. Dog

A

a. Rodent

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13
Q

When must coprophagy in rabbits be taken into consideration?

a. Anesthetizing for a long period of time
b. Fasting prior to gastric surgery
c. Intubating endotracheally during anesthesia
d. Administering opioid analgesics during surgical recovery

A

b. Fasting prior to gastric surgery.

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14
Q

At what stage of anesthesia are reflexes lost?

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

c. Stage 3

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15
Q

Which response may characterize stage 1 of anesthesia

a. Excitement
b. Loss of consciousness
c. Loss of reflexes
d. Analgesia

A

a. Excitement

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16
Q

Which animal should be fasted overnight if it is to be intubated?

a. Cat
b. Rabbit
c. Rat
d. Mouse

A

a. Cat

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17
Q

How often should vital parameters be recorded in the anesthetic log for each animal?

a. At 1 minute intervals
b. Every 5-10 minutes
c. Every 30 minutes
d. At the beginning and the end of the procedure

A

b. Every 5-10 minutes

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18
Q

Which of the following provides a measure of an animal’s pulse rate?

a. Ventilator
b. Capillary refill time
c. Pulse oximeter
d. Flow meter

A

c. Pulse oximeter

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19
Q

What does a pulse oximeter measure?

a. The level of hydration of the animal’s tissues
b. The level of oxygen in the blood
c. The animal’s platelet functions
d. The tidal volume of the animal

A

b. The level of oxygen in the blood

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20
Q

Which of the following is the type of respiration seen in normal, awake animals?

a. Pneumonic
b. Thoracic
c. Thoracic-abdominal
d. Abdominal

A

b. Thoracic

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21
Q

What does an ultrasonic Doppler flow detector measure?

a. Respiration rate
b. Red blood cell count
c. Blood pressure
d. Blood oxygenation

A

c. Blood pressure

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22
Q

Which of the following animals are more susceptible to hypothermia while under anesthesia?

a. Rodents
b. Rabbits
c. Nonhuman primates
d. Amphibians

A

a. Rodents

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23
Q
Heating devices used to maintain the body temperature of anesthetized animals should be \_\_\_\_°F higher than the
animal’s normal body temperature.
a. 1-2
b. 3-4
c. 5-6
d. 7-8
A

a. 1-2

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24
Q

If an animal’s blood oxygen level is normal, what color are its mucous membranes?

a. Whitish
b. Pink
c. Dark red
d. Bluish

A

b. Pink

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25
Q

Cyanosis relates to which of the following conditions?

a. The animal’s blood pressure is too high.
b. The animal’s intestines cease peristaltic movement.
c. The animal loses consciousness.
d. The animal’s tissues are not receiving enough oxygen.

A

d. The animal’s tissues are not receiving enough oxygen.

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26
Q
What measurement is obtained in an anesthetized dog, when you apply finger pressure on the gums for one second
and then release this pressure?
a. Blood pressure
b. Blood oxygenation
c. Capillary refill time
d. Hydration status
A

c. Capillary refill time

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27
Q

On what body part is the palpebral reflex tested?

a. Eyelid
b. Toe
c. Tongue
d. Tail

A

a. Eyelid

28
Q

Which of the following routes should be used to give barbiturate anesthetics “to effect?”

a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Intraperitoneal

A

c. IV

29
Q

A pre-anesthetic treatment may be used to:

a. induce anesthesia more smoothly.
b. keep the animal from suffering from hypothermia.
c. prevent blood loss during surgery.
d. None of the above

A

a. induce anesthesia more smoothly.

30
Q

Atropine and glycopyrrolate are which type of drug?

a. Tranquilizer/sedative
b. Anticholinergic
c. Barbiturate
d. Opioid

A

b. Anticholinergic

31
Q

What type of drug is acetylpromazine?

a. Tranquilizer/sedative
b. Anticholinergic
c. Barbiturate
d. Opiod

A

a. Tranquilizer/sedative

32
Q

Which drug is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist?

a. Atropine
b. Promazine
c. Xylazine
d. Diazepam

A

c. Xylazine

33
Q

What is the term for a drug that can reverse the effect of another drug?

a. Agonist
b. Synergist
c. Barbiturate
d. Antagonist

A

. d. Antagonist

34
Q

Pentobarbital and propofol are examples of what type of drug?

a. Tranquilizers
b. Anesthetics
c. Analgesics
d. Anticholinergics

A

b. Anesthetics

35
Q

Which of the following is an anesthetic drug that is often found in euthanasia preparations?

a. Diazepam
b. Thiopental
c. Pentobarbital
d. Promazine

A

c. Pentobarbital

36
Q

Which statement applies to propofol?

a. It can be given IV, IP, or IM.
b. It can be given as a continuous intravenous infusion.
c. It is a long-acting anesthetic agent.
d. It has long recovery periods.

A

b. It can be given as a continuous intravenous infusion.

37
Q

What is a serious complication associated with the use of the anesthetic tribromoethanol?

a. It can cause anxiety upon recovery.
b. It causes kidney damage.
c. It can cause cardiac arrest in older rodents.
d. It can cause intestinal ileus.

A

d. It can cause intestinal ileus.

38
Q

Which of the following drugs is a dissociative agent?

a. Diazepam
b. Tricaine methanesulfonate
c. Ketamine
d. Xylazine

A

c. Ketamine

39
Q

What is the best anesthetic for use with fish or amphibians?

a. Buprenorphine
b. Urethane
c. Ketamine
d. Tricaine methanesulfonate

A

d. Tricaine methanesulfonate

40
Q

Post-anesthetic behavioral changes can persist for up to ___hours in animals administered dissociative anesthetics

a. 1
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24

A

d. 24

41
Q

Which of the following is a description of the open drop system for inhalation anesthesia?
a. The animal is placed onto a pool of anesthetic inside a chamber.
b. A few drops of anesthetic are put on a cotton ball, which is then placed in a cone covering the animal’s
snout.
c. It is an anesthesia system that does not require scavenging waste gases.
d. It is a system which allows for optimal controlled administration of the anesthetic during the procedure.

A

b. A few drops of anesthetic are put on a cotton ball which is placed in a cone covering the animal’s snout.

42
Q

In rebreathing anesthesia systems, what type of gas reaches the animal’s lungs?

a. A mixture of fresh and scavenged gas
b. Only the anesthetic gas
c. Only fresh carrier gas
d. A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases

A

d. A mixture of fresh and exhaled gases

43
Q

. Where can you set the desired concentration of anesthetic gas in a rebreathing system?

a. At the top of the tank of gas
b. At the pressure reducing valve
c. At the flow meter
d. At the dial on the vaporizer

A

d. At the dial on the vaporizer

44
Q
A compound that may be toxic to the kidneys may be generated when the anesthetic gas \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ passes
through a soda lime canister.
a. isoflurane
b. sevoflurane
c. nitrous oxide
d. diethyl ether
A

b. sevoflurane

45
Q

In rebreathing machines, the size of the rebreathing bag should be determined by what factor?

a. The anesthetic gas used
b. The concentration of anesthetic gas used
c. The total length of the tubing in the system
d. The size of the animal

A

d. The size of the animal

46
Q

The volume of the rebreathing bag in an anesthesia system should be about ___times the animal’s tidal volume.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10

A

c. 6

47
Q

The tidal volume for most laboratory animals is ____ml/kg.

a. 2-5
b. 10-12
c. 15-20
d. 25-30

A

c. 15-20

48
Q

What is the role of the pop-off valve in a rebreathing system?

a. To shunt the waste gases to the scavenger system
b. To prevent the animal’s lungs from overinflating
c. To prevent the concentration of anesthetic gas from increasing to dangerous level
d. To adjust the system for use with animals of different sizes

A

. b. Prevents the animal’s lungs from overinflating.

49
Q

A nonrebreathing system is used for animals of what body weight range?

a. Less than 5 kg
b. Between 5 and 10 kg
c. Greater than 10 kg
d. Any weight

A

a. Less than 5 kg

50
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for endotracheal intubation of any species?

a. The animal must weigh at least 300 g.
b. The animal must already be anesthetized.
c. The animal will be anesthetized using a rebreathing system.
d. The animal must be fasted overnight before intubation.

A

b. The animal must already be anesthesized.

51
Q

Which of the following drugs is an opioid?

a. Nitrous oxide
b. Ketamine
c. Pancuronium
d. Morphine

A

d. Morphine

52
Q

Which of the following characteristics does NOT apply to morphine?

a. It has sedative properties.
b. It is an analgesic.
c. It has anti-inflammatory properties.
d. It may cause convulsions in cats.

A

. c. It has anti-inflammatory properties.

53
Q

Which of the following drugs can reverse the effect of opioids?

a. Succinylcholine and vancuronium
b. Nalorphine and naloxone
c. Pentobarbital and thiopental
d. Diazepam and midazolam

A

b. Nalorphine and naloxone

54
Q

Pain

A

defined as a perception in the brain of potential or actual tissue damage resulting from signals transmitted from specialized nerve endings in the tissues, known as nociceptors.

55
Q

General anesthesia

A

a state in which the animal is unconscious to pain and sensation, and the body is immobile.

56
Q

Analgesia

A

the alleviation of pain,

57
Q

Stage 1

A

Voluntary movement. This stage typically lasts from the initial administration of an anesthetic until loss of consciousness occurs. At this stage, the animal may become excited; any fear or anxiety that the animal has is accentuated.

58
Q

Stage 2

A

Delirium or involuntary movement. Stage 2 typically lasts from the loss of consciousness until the animal has a regular breathing pattern. At this stage, the animal loses voluntary control of movement. Reflexes are still present and are sometimes exaggerated, so animals should not be stimulated. During this stage, it is not possible to intubate the trachea.

59
Q

Stage 3

A

Surgical anesthesia. This stage is typically characterized by a continued loss of reflexes and muscle relaxation. The animal should be at an appropriate depth of anesthesia during this stage such that there is adequate analgesia for surgical procedures. The animal should be nonresponsive to painful stimuli. The trachea may be intubated at this stage.

60
Q

Light plane

A

this plane is sufficient for chemical immobilization of the animal for nonpainful procedures, but analgesia is insufficient for surgery. The light plane is characterized by eyeball movement and responses of skeletal muscle reflexes.

61
Q

Medium plane

A

The medium plane is suitable for most surgical procedures. Respiration and pulse are stable, and most reflexes are abolished.

62
Q

Deep plane

A

Respiration is severely depressed, and the animal breathes by movement of the diaphragm, not the rib cage. Typically, a ventilator is operated to support the animal’s breathing.

63
Q

Stage 4

A

Extreme CNS depression. Due to an overdose of the anesthetic, the animal has greater CNS depression than at stage 3. The result is respiratory and circulatory failure. Death occurs if the animal is not resuscitated.

64
Q

induction phase

A

he anesthetic is first administered to animal awake, with the objective of reaching stage 3 as quickly and smoothly as possible

65
Q

maintenance phase

A

the objective is keeping the animal evenly and safely in stage 3 and at the appropriate plane for the duration of the procedure.

66
Q

recovery phase

A

the procedure is completed and the animal is allowed to wake up

67
Q

anesthesia plan

A

administering the anesthetic drugs;
monitoring the animal during the procedure and in recovery; and
responding to an anesthetic emergency.