Chapter 16: Innate Nonspecific Host Defenses Slides Flashcards

1
Q

What are some barriers that body has for defense?

A

Skin, mucous membranes, natural flora, acid, and bile.

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2
Q

What happens if these barriers become pierced or weakened?

A

It may allow pathogens entry to the host.

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3
Q

True or False: These barriers are considered the bodies first line of defense.

A

True.

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4
Q

What are the two major layers of skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis.

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5
Q

What is the epidermis made of?

A

Multiple layers of tightly packed cells.

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6
Q

How does the epidermis protect the body from pathogens?

A

Few pathogens can penetrate these layers.
Shedding of dead skin cells removes microorganism.

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7
Q

How does the dermis protect the body from pathogens?

A

Collagen fibers help skin resist abrasions that could introduce microorganisms.

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8
Q

True or False: The skin is a good at supporting life?

A

False.

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9
Q

What does perspiration have in it that defends against pathogens?

A

Salt (makes it hard for bacteria to survive).
Antimicrobial Peptides (short amino acids chains that put holes in the membranes of bacteria).
Lysozymes (cuts open peptidoglycan).

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10
Q

What is sebum secreted by?

A

Sebaceous (oil) glands.

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11
Q

How does sebum defend against pathogens?

A

Helps keep skin pliable and less likely to break or tear.
Lowers skin pH (around 5).

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12
Q

What are commensal microbes?

A

Good for protection as long as they stay on the skin.

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13
Q

Where can you find mucous membranes?

A

They line all body cavities open to the environment (nose, urinary, etc).

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14
Q

What are the two distinct layers of mucous membranes?

A

Epithelium and deep connective tissue.

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15
Q

What is epithelium?

A

A thin, outer covering of the mucous membranes.

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16
Q

What is epithelium made out of?

A

Living, tightly packed epithelial cells and goblet cells that secrete mucous.

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17
Q

True or False: In epithelium, there is a continual shedding of cells.

A

True.

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18
Q

What does the deep connective tissue layer do?

A

Provides mechanical and nutritive support.

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19
Q

True or False: Mucous membranes produce chemicals that defend against pathogens.

A

True.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of mucous?

A

It keeps bacteria from direct contact with mucosa and normal flora.
Secrets enzymes that digest bacteria.

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21
Q

What does the lacrimal apparatus do?

A

Produces and drains tears.
Lysozyme in tears destroys bacteria.

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22
Q

Where is the lacrimal apparatus located?

A

The eye.

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23
Q

What is the main function of the immune system?

A

To recognize self from non-self.

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24
Q

What are the two other functions of the immune system?

A

Elimination of pathogens.
Formation of memory (the ability for immune system to attack something better the second time).

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25
Q

What is the second line of defense fo the body?

A

The innate immune system.

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26
Q

What is the innate immune system?

A

Utilized when first line of defense is breached.
Immun response not tailored to a specific organism.

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27
Q

What are the two classes of innate immune cells?

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes.

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28
Q

What are granulocytes?

A

Have large granules in cytoplasm.

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29
Q

What are agranulocytes?

A

Do not have granules in their cytoplasm.

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30
Q

What cells fall into the granulocytes class?

A

Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils.

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31
Q

What cells fall into the agranulocytes class?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes.

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32
Q

What are the three basic functions of innate immune cells?

A

Phagocytize pathogens.
Release of soluble antimicrobials (like reactive oxygen species).
Release of immune stimulating signals.

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33
Q

True or False: All innate immune cells can do all three basic functions.

A

False.

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34
Q

What are Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)?

A

They are things on pathogens that are specific to pathogens, so the innate immune system can recognize it as not self.

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35
Q

What are toll-like receptors?

A

They are on cells, made by cells, intracellularly and extracellularly that can recognize PAMPs.

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36
Q

What are neutrophils also called?

A

Polymorphonuclear (PMN) cells becuase they have lobed nuclei.

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37
Q

What is the most common type of innate immune cell?

A

Neutrophils (make up 60% of the peripheral blood leukocytes).

38
Q

Who are the first cellular responders when a pathogen in present?

A

Neutrophils.

39
Q

How long do neutrophils live?

A

Very short-lived (half-life of 7 hours).

40
Q

How do neutrophils primarily kill pathogens?

A

Degranulation - dumping toxic molecules into the surrounding tissue to better clear infectious agents.

41
Q

True or False: Neutrophils can do phagocytosis but not diapedesis.

A

False; they can do both.

42
Q

What do basiophils’ nucleui look like?

A

They are bi-lobed.

42
Q

What do the immune-modulatory chemicals released by basophils do?

A

Sounds the alarm for the immune system.

43
Q

What are basophils known as in tissues?

A

Mast cells.

44
Q

When are mast cells important?

A

During allergic reactions.

45
Q

True or False: Basophils are capable of diapedesis.

A

True.

46
Q

What are in basophils granules?

A

The granules contain histamine and other chemicals that can be chemotactic and can help to open the gaps between cells in the blood vessels.

47
Q

True or False: Basophils cannot perform degranulation.

A

False.

48
Q

What does an eosinophils nucleus look like?

A

Bi-lobed.

49
Q

When are eosinophils important?

A

During parasitic infections (worms).
Also play an important role in allergies.

50
Q

True or False: Eosinophils are capable of phagocytosis and diapedesis.

A

True.

51
Q

What are in eosinophils granules?

A

Granules hold histamine, degradative enzymes and major basic protein (MBP).

52
Q

What is MBP?

A

Binds to the surface carbohydrates of parasites, and this binding is associated with disruption of the cell membrane and membrane permeability.

53
Q

True or False: Eosinophils cannot perform degranulation.

A

False.

54
Q

Where can you find eosinophils?

A

In tissues.

55
Q

What does a monocyte look like?

A

Large cell with slightly lobed nucleus.

56
Q

True or False: Monocytes can perform diapedesis.

A

True.

57
Q

What can monocytes mature into?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells.

58
Q

What is a macrophage’s primary job?

A

Phagocytosizing pathogens.

59
Q

True or False: Macrophages cannot reside in body tissues for a long period of time.

A

False.

60
Q

What is dendritic cells’ primary job?

A

They are professional antigen-presenting cells and tell other cells something is wrong and what is happening.

61
Q

What do dendritic cells look like?

A

They have long branched structures called dendrites.

62
Q

What is the most important thing about dendritic cells?

A

They bridge the innate and adaptive immune systems (allow for communication) and present antigens to T cells.

63
Q

Where are dendritic cells found?

A

They are present in the tissue lining mucosal membranes to have constant surveillance of surroundings.

64
Q

What are the five bodily characteristics involved in inflammation?

A

Pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function.

65
Q

What is pain?

A

The swelling and release of chemicals that stimulate nerve endings.

66
Q

What is heat?

A

Increased blood flow.

67
Q

What is redness?

A

Increased blood flow.

68
Q

What is swelling?

A

Increased fluid.

69
Q

What is acute inflammation?

A

A typically beneficial and shortly-lived swelling.

70
Q

Why is acute inflammation important in the second line of defense?

A

It dilates and increased the permeability of the blood vessels.
Helps the migration of phagocytes.
Allows for tissue repair.

71
Q

What is chronic inflammation?

A

A long-lasting swelling that causes damage to tissues that then causes disease.

72
Q

What is diapedesis/extraction?

A

Movement of WBCs from capillaries through capillary walls to site of infection.

73
Q

How does histamine help with diapedesis?

A

Histamine releases tight junctions of capillaries.

74
Q

What is the first step of diapedesis?

A

P selectins are expressed on endothelial cells that begins that slowing of WBCs.

75
Q

What is the second step of diapedesis?

A

E selectins are expressed which further slows the WBCs.

76
Q

What is the third step of diapedesis?

A

Chemokines bind to chemokine receptor which initiates a change to active integrin. This makes the biding tighter and ultimately stops the WBCs.

77
Q

What is step four of diapedesis?

A

Movement out of capillaries.

78
Q

What do the selectins do?

A

They act like molecular velcro and slow the WBCs down.

79
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Any of a class of cytokines with functions that include attracting WBCs to sites of infection.

80
Q

What are integrins?

A

Molecules on leukocytes that attach to adhesion molecules allowing the leukocytes to flatten and squeeze through the space between the endothelial cells.

81
Q

What do neutrophils do at the site of infection?

A

Release additional cytokines and kill pathogens.

82
Q

How does the releasing of cytokines help infections?

A

They amplify the immune response and recruit additional immune cells.

83
Q

How do neutrophils kill pathogens?

A

Phagocytize bacteria.
Release anti-microbial chemicals and proteins.
Form neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs) made out of neutrophil DNA that confines bacteria.

84
Q

What are the six stages of phagocytosis?

A

Chemotaxis
Adhesion
Ingestion
Maturation
Killing
Elimination

85
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Movement of something in a direction corresponding to a gradient of increasing or decreasing concentration of a particular substance.

86
Q

What is maturation?

A

Vesicle with pathogen matures makes environment unlivable for the pathogen; decrease in pH; breaks down pathogen.

87
Q

What are some examples of PAMPs?

A

Peptidoglycan, LPS, double-stranded RNA, unmethylated DNA.

88
Q

What can binding to TLRs cause?

A

Phagocytosis
Cytokine production

89
Q

What is the difference between PAMPs and antigens?

A

PAMPs are conserved molecules of related microbes that are recognized by innate immune cells. They are not super specific, but can determine if something is a virus, bacteria, etc. Antigens are more specific and can differentiate specific microbes.

90
Q

Why is it important that TLRs are located internally and externally?

A

They can recognize PAMPs anywhere, even if virus has infiltrated the cell.