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RT 77 pathology > chapter 12 trauma > Flashcards

chapter 12 trauma Flashcards

1
Q

Trauma is the most common cause of death for ages____ to ___

A

1 -44 yrs old

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2
Q

Before a trauma victim is transported , what 3 actions must take place to avoid displacing fractures

A
  1. Establish a clear airway
  2. Control acute bleeding
  3. immobilize the patient
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3
Q

The primary hospitals in the trauma system are ______

A

Level 1 trauma centers

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4
Q

What are key elements of a level 1 trauma center

A
  1. 24 hr. coverage by general surgeons

2. other specialty care includes: ortho, neuro, anesthesiology etc

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5
Q

____ are the most common trauma facility serving as a community trauma center

A

level 2

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6
Q

Does a level 2 trauma hospital provide cardiac surgery, hemodialysis or microvascular surgery

A

no, only level 1

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7
Q

___ Trauma Center is capable of providing total care for every aspect of injury – from prevention through rehabilitation.

A

level 1 trauma center

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8
Q

is able to initiate definitive care for all injured patients.

A

level 2 trauama center

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9
Q

_____ Trauma Center has developed transfer agreements for patients requiring more comprehensive care at a Level I or Level II Trauma Center

A

level 3 trauma center

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10
Q

What is the primary means of evaluating skeletal trauma

A

conventional radiography

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11
Q

Dual or sharp pain in the posterior neck is a primary manifestation of _____

A

Whiplash injury

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12
Q

____ fractures are the most frequent type of injury involving a vertebral body

A

compression fracture

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13
Q

fracture of 2nd cervical vertebra
Arch
AKA: _____

A

hangman’s fracture

aka traumatic spondylosis

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14
Q

a non-medical term describing a range of injuries to the neck caused by or related to a sudden distortion of the neck associated with extension.

A

whiplash

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15
Q

Define Hangman’s fracture

Aka:_____

A

*** aka: traumatic spondlyosis

fracture of arch of second vertebral body

associated with anterior subluxation of c2-3

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16
Q

Hangman’s fracture is associated with _____.

A

subluxation of C2-3

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17
Q

vertebral arch Burst fracture of the C1

A

Jefferson’s fracture

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18
Q

what is the jefferson’s fracture

A

vertebral arch burst of C1

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19
Q

The spine is vizualized as 2 columns
1.
2.

A
  1. Anterior = vertebral body and intervertebral disk

2. posterior column = posterior elements ) spinous process and lamina

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20
Q

If just one column of the spine is fractured , it is considered

A

stable

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21
Q

If both columns of the spine are fractured it is considered

A

unstable

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22
Q

what are the 3 classifications of cerebral cranial fractures

A
  1. Linear
  2. Depressed
  3. Basilar
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23
Q

straight, sharply defined, nonbranching lines describe which type of fracture

A

Linear fracture

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24
Q

Define linear fracture

A

Straight,
sharply defined
non-branching lines of the skull

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25
Q

curvelinear density in which the fracture edges overlap describes which fracture

A

depressed fracture

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26
Q

define depressed fracture

A

Skull fracture that is depressed inward

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27
Q

fracture of bones of the base of the skull that can involve the occipital bone, sphenoid, ethmoid or temporal bones.

A

Basilar skull fracture

  • radiographic sign: air fluid level in sphenoid sinus or clouding of mastoid air cells
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28
Q

Which pathology is present when air fluid level is seen in a sphenoid sinus or clouding of mastoid air cells are seen

A

Basilar skull fracture

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29
Q

Which radiographic exam is crucial when there is a suspected basilar fracture

A

x-table skull

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30
Q

Damage to the brain that results from accerleration and rapid deceleration of the head is known as

A

closed head injury

aka: traumatic brain injury ( TBI )

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31
Q

Brief loss of unconsciousness which results in headache, vomiting and vertigo

A

Concussion

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32
Q

Define concussion

A

Brief loss of conciousness due to a blow to the head

Can cause headache, vomiting and vertigo

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33
Q

bruising of brain parachyma

A

contussion

- more dangerous than a concussion

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34
Q

define contussion

A

bruising of brain parachyma

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35
Q

contusion formed on the side of the head where the trauma occurs

A

coup lesion

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36
Q

define coup lesion

A

contussion formed on the side of the head where the trauma occured

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37
Q

contussion formed on oppisite side of the skull of trauma

A

contrecoup lesion

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38
Q

____ are characterized by neuron damage, edema and pinpoint puncture or depressions

A

contussion

bruising the brain parachyma

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39
Q

Persistence of loss of consciousness for more than 24 hrs.

A

coma

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40
Q

define coma

A

loss of consciousness for more than 24 hs.

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41
Q

collection of blood

what are the 4 types

A

hematoma

  • 4 types:
    1. epidural
    2. subdural
    3. Subarachnoid
    4. intracerebral
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42
Q

define hematoma

exam to diagnose

A

collection of blood

CT scan

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43
Q

what are the 4 types of hematomas

A
  1. epidural
  2. subdural
  3. Subarachnoid
  4. intracerebral
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44
Q

____ hematoma results from a torn artery with blood pulling between the skull and dura matter

A

epidural hematoma

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45
Q

___ follows blunt trauma. It is positioned between the dura matter and the arachnoid meningeal layers

A

subdural hematoma

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46
Q

___ oocurs at the vertex. It accumulates between the arachnoid layer and the pia matter

A

subarachnoid hematoma

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47
Q

this hematoma results from trauma and non traumatic causes

A

intracerebral hematoma

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48
Q

Discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces applied to the bone or transmitted along the line of a bone

A

fracture

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49
Q

define fracture

exam to dx

A

discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces applied to the bone or transmitted directly along the line of a bone

  • xray
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50
Q

during trauma x-rays, why are 2 projections needed at 90 degrees apart from each other

A

to determine fracture alignment

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51
Q

when is a fracture considered to be in “ good alignment”

A
  1. when there is no angulation of displacement in both frontal and lateral projection
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52
Q

define delayed union

A

term for when a fracture does not heal within a usual time

53
Q

term for when a fracture does not heal within a usual time

A

delayed union

54
Q

fracture that heals in a faulty position which affects the function and cosmetic appearance

55
Q

define malunion fracture

A

fracture that heals in a faulty position which affects the function and cosmetic appearance of the part

56
Q

fracture in which healing does not occur and fragments do not join

A

nonunion fracture

most serious form

57
Q

define nonunion fracture

A

fracture in which healing does not occur and fragments do not join

58
Q

fracture in which the bone has penetrated the skin

A

open fracture

aka compound fracture

59
Q

another word for compound fracture is ___

define

A

open fracture

Fracture that penetrates the skin ( requires surgical intervention to clean out bacteria that may enter through the broken skin)

60
Q

Fracture in which it does NOT penetrate the skin

A

closed fracture

aka : simple fracture

61
Q

define closed fracture

A

fracture in which the bone does not penetrate the skin

62
Q

list the fractures that are classified according to the mechanics of stress that produce the break

A
  1. Torsion ( twisting)
  2. Transverse
  3. Linear
  4. Spiral
63
Q

when one fractured bone is jammed into another fragment it is known as

A

impacted fracture

64
Q

define impacted fracture

A

when one fractured bone is jammed into another fracture

65
Q

List the fractures as classified according to their location

A
  1. intertrochanteric
  2. Transcervical
  3. Supracondylar
  4. Transcondylar
66
Q

why do fracture do not fit into a specific classification ?

A

because they are often mixed fractures

67
Q

What is the choice of treatment for closed and non-displaced fractures

A

splinting, casting or both

68
Q

reduction in which anesthetic is given for pain and then a splint or cast is applied

A

closed reduction

69
Q

reduction is required when orthopedic hardware is needed to maintain fracture reduction

A

open reduction

aka ORIF
Open reduction internal fixation

70
Q

What does ORIF stand for

A

open reduction internal fixation

71
Q

Fracture in which the bone is splintered or crushed

A

Communited fracture

72
Q

Fracture in which the bone has separated into 2 fragments

A

complete non communicated fracture

73
Q

Define Complete non communicated fracture

list examples:

A

fracture in which the bone has separated into 2 fragments

  1. Spiral/ Oblique
  2. Transverse
  3. Pathologic
74
Q

fracture that results from a rotary type of injury that twist the bone apart

  • common in shafts of bones
A

Spiral / oblique fracture

Classificaiton of complete, noncomminuted fracture

75
Q

Ragged along a fracture line

which type of classification is it

A

transverse fracture

classification of complete, non comminuted fracture

76
Q

transverse fracture that occurs in abnormal bone that is weakened by disease

A

Pathologic fracture

classification of complete, non comminuted fracture

77
Q

fracture in which a fragment of bone is pulled away from the bone

Classifcation

A

avulsion fracture

  • occurs around joints
    Traumatic
78
Q

define avulsion fracture

A

fracture in which a fragment of bone is pulled away from the bone

  • occurs around joints
79
Q

fracture in which cortex breaks on one side without separation or breaking on the opposite side

A

greenstick fracture

  • type of incomplete fractures
80
Q

define greenstick fracture

A

fracture in which cortex of a bone breaks on one side with out breaking on the other side

  • type of incomplete fracture
81
Q

aka buckle fracture

- is a greenstick fracture in which the cortex bulges outward producing a slight iregularity

A

Torus fracture

type of incomplete fracture

82
Q

define torus fracture

A

aka buckle fracture

Greenstick fracture in which the cortex bulges outward

83
Q

fractures that involve the ends of long bones of a child

A

growth plate fracture

84
Q

define growth plate fractures

A

fracture that involve the ends of long bones of a child

85
Q

fracture that occurs as a result of abnormal degree of repitive trauma

A

stress fracture

86
Q

define stress fracture

A

fracture that occurs from an abnormal degree of repitive trauma

87
Q

maximal strain on a bone from unaccustomed activity

A

fatigue fracture

88
Q

define fatigue fracture

A

maximal strain on a bone from unaccustomed activity

89
Q

Fracture that has clinical signs but no radiological evidence , 10 day follow up will show bone reabsorption or displacement at the fracture site

A

occult fracture

90
Q

define occult fracture

A

Fracture that has clinical signs but no radiological evidence , 10 day follow up will show bone reabsorption or displacement at the fracture site

91
Q

fracture of the distal radius

what is the radiographic appearance

A

colle’s fracture

radiographic appearance= dinner fork

92
Q

define colle’s fracture

A

fracture of distal radius

radiographic appearance= dinner fork

93
Q

A colle’s fracture with displacement of fragment towards the palmer aspect of hand

A

Smith’s fracture

94
Q

Fracture of the 5th metacarpal as a result of blow to or with the hand

A

Boxer’s fracture

95
Q

Define boxer’s fracture

A

Fracture of the 5th metacarpal as a result of blow to or with the hand

96
Q

fracture and dislocation of the 1st metacarpal joint

A

Bennett fracture

97
Q

what is a Pott fracture

A

fracture to both malleoli with dislocation of the ankle joint

98
Q

fracture to both malleoli with dislocation of the ankle joint

A

Pott’s fracture

99
Q

what is a trimalleolar fracture

A

fracture of the medial and posterior malleoi of tibia

and
lateral malleolus of fibula

100
Q

Severe ankle sprain with fracture of proximal third of fibula

A

maisonneuvre fracture

101
Q

Term for fractures of facial bones

A

visceral cranial fractures

102
Q

what does the tripod fracture consists of

A
  1. Frontal bone
  2. Temporal bone
  3. Maxillary bone
103
Q

what is the most common site of fracture of the mandible

104
Q

horizontal fracture of the maxilla that results in a freely movable jaw

105
Q

pyramidal mandible fracture that results in a triangular separation of the maxilla

A

Le Fort II

106
Q

Transverse mandible fracture that is the most serious as is extends across the orbits

A

Le Fort III

107
Q

Direct blow to the front of the orbit that transfers the force to the orbital walls and the floor

A

Blow out fracture (occurs on the orbital floor)

108
Q

what is the thinnest and weakest point of the orbit

A

Orbital floor

109
Q

The most frequently fractured facial bone

A

nasal bones

110
Q

what is the nasal septum composed of

A
  1. vomer

2. perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

111
Q

injury to a joint in which bone is out of its joint and not in contact with its normal articulation

A

dislocation

112
Q

define dislocation

A

joint dislocation results bone is out of its joint and not in contact with its normal articulation

113
Q

partial dislocation often occurring with fracture

A

subluxation

114
Q

define subluxation

A

partial dislocation often occurring with fracture

115
Q

what are the common sites for dislocation

A
  1. Shoulder
  2. Hip
  3. acromioclavicular joints
116
Q

shoulder dislocations most commonly dislocate _____

A

anteriorly

= humeral head located below the glenoid fossa and the coracoid process

117
Q

compression fracture of the humeral head

A

hill-sachs deformity

118
Q

Hip dislocations- femoral head is most commonly displaced

A

posteriorly in which it lies against the sciatic notch

119
Q

acromioclavivular joint separation are most commonly seen in ____

120
Q

term associated with physical form of child abuse

AKA: ______

A

battered child syndrome
aka
non accidental trauma

121
Q

what are the physical signs of child abuse

A
  1. Burns
  2. Bruises
  3. Fractures

all in various stages of healing

122
Q

severe type of physical abuse that affects the child head and neck

A

shaken baby syndrome

123
Q

bone death from insufficient blood supply

A

avascular necrosis

124
Q

common form of avascular necrosis affecting the femoral head

  • classification ___
A

Legg-Calve Perthes disease

  • Traumatic
  • x-ray
125
Q

Free air trapped in the plueral space and compresses lung tissue

A

pnuemothroax

126
Q

Incomplete expansion of the lung as a result of partial or total collapse

Classification??

A

atelectasis

Traumatic

It is not a disease but a sign of an abnormal process

127
Q

air collection of the peritoneal cavity

A

pneumoperitoneum

radiographic appearance= foot ball sign

128
Q

radiographic appearance of foot ball sign

A

pnuemoperitoneum

RT 77 pathology (13 decks)

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