CH9 (test bank) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to groups?
A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

A

C) A group influences our emotional reactions.

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2
Q

Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?
A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.
D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

A

E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

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3
Q

An informal group is characterized by the ________.
A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
B) predetermined designation of tasks of members.
C) pursuit of particular organizational goals.
D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
E) creation of timelines and rationale

A

D) fulfillment of the need for social contact

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4
Q

Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?
A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups.
C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational
goals to attain.
D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally
structured nor organizationally determined.

A

E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally
structured nor organizationally determined.

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5
Q

Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of, is
the territory of the ________ theory.
A) social exchange
B) expectancy
C) social identity
D) reinforcement
E) equity

A

C) social identity

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6
Q

________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better
than other people.
A) In-group homogeneity
B) Xenocentrism
C) In-group favoritism
D) Black sheep effect
E) Hindsight bias

A

C) In-group favoritism

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7
Q

At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural
background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal
compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company’s day-to-day functioning
leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner’s cousin was promoted to
the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from a different cultures were
blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.
A) social loafing
B) in-group favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange

A

B) in-group favoritism

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8
Q

Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian
man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him
stealing. However, one of the customer attendants watched him steal the money and reported it to the
manager the next day, following which Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became
extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them saying “you guys
are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.
A) social loafing
B) in-group favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange

A

B) in-group favoritism

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9
Q

Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.
A) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are
from other groups
B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group
identification as well
C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves
favorably
D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into
the world
E) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone
else’s culture over their own

A

B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group
identification as well

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10
Q

In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.
A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater
identification as well
B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves
favorably
C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into
the world
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone
else’s culture over their own
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are
from other groups

A

E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are
from other groups

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11
Q

Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.
A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into
the world
B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater
identification as well
C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define
themselves favorably
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone
else’s culture over their own
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are
from other groups

A

C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define
themselves favorably

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12
Q

Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the
________.
A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater
identification as well
B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into
the world
C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define
themselves favorably
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone
else’s culture over their own
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are
from other groups

A

B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into
the world

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13
Q

Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?
A) adjourning
B) performing
C) storming
D) forming
E) norming

A

C) storming

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14
Q

Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great
deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership?
A) introduction
B) storming
C) forming
D) evolution
E) norming

A

C) forming

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15
Q

The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.
A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
D) intragroup conflict within the group
E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

A

D) intragroup conflict within the group

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16
Q

By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is
established.
A) norming
B) storming
C) forming
D) adjourning
E) performing

A

B) storming

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17
Q

During the third stage of group development ________.
A) conflicts over leadership are common
B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
C) intragroup conflicts occur
D) members resist the constraints the group places on them
E) groups disband

A

B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness

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18
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?
A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group
development model.
B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and
leadership.
C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on
individuality.
D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member
behavior.
E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

A

D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member
behavior

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19
Q

When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to
be in the stage of ________.
A) storming
B) norming
C) inertia
D) forming
E) performing

A

E) performing

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?
A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose,
structure, and leadership.
B) During the performing stage there is conflict over who will control the group.
C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which
behaviors the group considers acceptable.
D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it
imposes on individuality.

A

D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.

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21
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?
A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage.
D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.
E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

A

D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group
development?
A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time
constraints.
D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and groupshift to break out of the phases of inertia.
E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary
changes.

A

E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary
changes.

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23
Q

Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way,
she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team
may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has
been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become
increasingly worried about the team’s progress with no inputs coming from the members and she has had
no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month’s duration,
she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the
group is at the stage of ________.
A) forming
B) inertia following the first meeting
C) second phase of inertia before the group’s last meeting
D) storming
E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

A

E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

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24
Q

The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.
A) the phase of inertia before transition
B) the determination of the group’s direction
C) the transition to plan the major changes
D) a period of accelerated activity
E) the adoption of new perspectives

A

B) the determination of the group’s direction

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25
Q

The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches
the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.
A) performing
B) inertia
C) equilibrium
D) transition
E) first meeting

A

E) first meeting

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26
Q

Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as
depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?
A) better perspectives and patterns
B) group solidarity and collectivist goals
C) promotion of diversity
D) deadlines and time constraints
E) role perception and expectation

A

D) deadlines and time constraints

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27
Q

Role perception is defined as ________.
A) the way others believe we should act in a given context
B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation
C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.

A

B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation

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28
Q

Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the
nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence
Nightingale, had very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She felt that as a nurse, she
must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she could serve her patients well, and she often went
to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects
Janice’s ________.
A) role fuzziness
B) role ambiguity
C) role conflict
D) role perception
E) role status

A

D) role perception

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29
Q

Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.
A) fuzziness
B) expectation
C) conflict
D) perception
E) enhancement

A

B) expectation

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30
Q

Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from
demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the
following terms best represents these beliefs?
A) diversity
B) similarity
C) role expectation
D) uncertainty reduction
E) dispersion of responsibility

A

C) role expectation

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31
Q

When ________, the result is role conflict.
A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world
C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the
group that are distinctive
D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

A

D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another

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32
Q

Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager
offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the
promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael
is most likely to experience ________.
A) role conflict
B) social loafing
C) groupthink
D) role fuzziness
E) groupshift

A

A) role conflict

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33
Q

Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are
shared by the group’s members?
A) status
B) norms
C) dyads
D) goals
E) cliques

A

B) norms

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34
Q

Which of the following is an example of performance norms?
A) dress codes
B) rules in informal groups
C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
D) distribution of pay
E) the manner in which a job must be done

A

E) the manner in which a job must be done

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35
Q

The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships
on and off the job.
A) appearance
B) social arrangement
C) performance
D) reference
E) organizational

A

B) social arrangement

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36
Q

A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest jobs
are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little
except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?
A) performance norms
B) appearance norms
C) resource allocation norms
D) reference norms
E) leisure norms

A

C) resource allocation norms

37
Q

________ refers to the adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group.
A) Deviance
B) Conflict
C) Divergence
D) Conformity
E) Appearance

A

D) Conformity

38
Q

The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________
groups.
A) interacting
B) reference
C) organizational
D) control
E) nominal

A

B) reference

39
Q

Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and
college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better
life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club
where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the
members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.
A) nominal group
B) organizational group
C) control group
D) intervention group
E) reference group

A

E) reference group

40
Q

Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational
norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?
A) undue hardship
B) deviant workplace behavior
C) antidiscrimination and retaliation
D) progressive discipline
E) wrongful termination

A

B) deviant workplace behavior

41
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?
A) It is involuntary in nature.
B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in
more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

A

B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.

41
Q

Status refers to the ________.
A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
B) adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group
C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another
E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members

A

C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others

42
Q

According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?
A) control over the resources needed by the group
B) contribution to goals
C) ability to conform to group norms
D) personality
E) talent

A

C) ability to conform to group norms

43
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?
A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group
members.
B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in
low-status jobs.
C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as
long as their activities aren’t severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

A

B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in
low-status jobs.

44
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size of the group has on the
performance of the group?
A) The size of the group does not affect the group’s overall behavior.
B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.
C) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.
D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

A

C) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.

45
Q

Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when
working collectively?
A) groupthink
B) collective efficacy
C) social loafing
D) groupshift
E) social facilitation

A

C) social loafing

46
Q

When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively.
Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was
heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard.
However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was
shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.
A) groupthink
B) collective efficacy
C) social loafing
D) groupshift
E) in-group favoritism

A

C) social loafing

47
Q

Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?
A) difficult task assignments
B) high collective efficacy
C) severe time constraints
D) dispersion of responsibility
E) heavy workload

A

D) dispersion of responsibility

48
Q

Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?
A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified
D) increasing the size of the group
E) increasing the group’s workload

A

C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified

49
Q

Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing?
A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.
B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when they work collectively.
C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.
E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance

A

E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance

50
Q

________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in
the group.
A) Assertiveness
B) Social dominance
C) Authoritativeness
D) Cohesiveness
E) Diversity

A

D) Cohesiveness

51
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and
performance norms on group productivity?
A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of
the group.
C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

A

E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

52
Q

________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one
another.
A) Homogeneity
B) Diversity
C) Conformity
D) Civility
E) Universality

A

B) Diversity

53
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual
decision making?
A) increased ambiguous responsibility
B) increased conformity pressures
C) increased diversity of views
D) increased dispersion of accountability
E) increased pace of decision making

A

C) increased diversity of views

54
Q

When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual
decisions.
A) acceptance of solution
B) speed
C) efficiency
D) clear responsibility
E) legitimacy

A

A) acceptance of solution

55
Q

Group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________, when compared to individual
decision making.
A) diversity
B) creativity
C) acceptance of final solutions
D) speed
E) accuracy

A

D) speed

56
Q

________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic
appraisal of alternative courses of action.
A) Groupshift
B) Social loafing
C) In-group favoritism
D) Cyber loafing
E) Groupthink

A

E) Groupthink

57
Q

Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a
case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other.
Using the results of the activity she understands the baseline measures of the group’s functioning.
During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly.
However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to
be under an illusion of unanimity. From the scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.
A) diversity
B) groupshift
C) role conflict
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

A

D) groupthink

58
Q

Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink?
A) increasing the group size
B) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
C) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
D) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

A

E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

59
Q

In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate
the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.
A) social desirability bias
B) groupshift
C) halo effect
D) social loafing
E) in-group favoritism

A

B) groupshift

60
Q

Groupshift is seen when ________.
A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of
alternatives and arriving at a solution
C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture
over their own
E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm
for consensus.

A

B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of
alternatives and arriving at a solution

61
Q

The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some
experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met
with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven
wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their
company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major
concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This
scenario depicts the operation of ________.
A) conformity
B) groupshift
C) role conflict
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

A

B) groupshift

62
Q

Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.
A) reference groups
B) nominal groups
C) brainstorming
D) interacting groups
E) electronic meeting groups

A

D) interacting groups

63
Q

Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and
originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark
often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project,
Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and
ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of
potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign.
To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of
________.
A) in-group favoritism
B) groupshift
C) brainstorming
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

A

C) brainstorming

64
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?
A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of “production blocking.”
C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.
D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an
individual working alone.
E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.

A

C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.

65
Q

A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their
judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.
A) reference groups
B) nominal groups
C) brainstorming
D) interacting groups
E) in-group

A

B) nominal groups

66
Q

Bonnie Patterson is a manager for seven years at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A
good part of her work day involves holding meetings and she likes to get work on a time-bound
schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting,
followed by some time to contemplate over the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team
members present their ideas one after the another, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a
ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group
decision making.
A) interacting
B) reference group
C) brainstorming
D) nominal group
E) groupthink

A

D) nominal group

67
Q

Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the
project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together
closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly,
creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?
A) nominal and electronic
B) brainstorming
C) brainstorming and electronic
D) electronic and interacting
E) interacting and brainstorming

A

E) interacting and brainstorming

68
Q

ABL is one of the largest consumer goods companies in the country and it recently held its annual
conference where members of all regional divisions were invited. Since the company is vast and rarely
finds all its employees together in such a manner, it used this opportunity to present to them certain new
ideas they had regarding various aspects of their functioning. Large meetings with each regional team
were held to provide them with information about the proposed changes and to obtain their anonymous
votes through computers. This helped the company speed up the decision-making process and
consolidate the results immediately. Which of the following group decision techniques did ABL use
here?
A) heuristics and algorithm approach
B) nominal groups approach
C) electronic meeting approach
D) reference groups approach
E) brainstorming

A

C) electronic meeting approach

69
Q

In-group favoritism does not adversely affect people of the out-group.

A

F

70
Q

The social identity theory proposes that people use groups to understand who they are and how they
fit into the world.

A

T

71
Q

A batch of trainees has been assigned a new project and the team is unsure of the details of the
project and how they will pursue its completion as a group with specific tasks and roles. This batch of
trainees is in the forming stage of group development.

A

T

72
Q

During the forming stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group
demonstrates cohesiveness.

A

F

73
Q

The development of temporary work groups is best understood in terms of the five-stage group
development model.

A

F

74
Q

Role perception indicates our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation.

A

T

75
Q

Role expectations at work are often conveyed through the psychological contract.

A

T

76
Q

A company’s dress code policy comes under the performance norms.

A

F

77
Q

Important groups to which individuals belong or hope to belong are called nominal groups.

A

F

78
Q

An individual’s personal characteristics like good looks or friendly personality represents one of the
dimensions of the status characteristics theory.

A

T

79
Q

High-status members of groups are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other
group members.

A

F

80
Q

If a group is highly cohesive then it will be highly productive even with low performance norms.

A

F

81
Q

Surface-level diversity refers to attitudes, values, and opinions which are different in diverse groups.

A

F

82
Q

Group decisions are generally less accurate than the judgments of the most accurate individual in the
group.

A

T

83
Q

Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.

A

F

84
Q

Amy Jones has to come up with a strategy to regulate the excessive use of the Internet by her
employees in such a way that they accept and commit to the solution themselves. It is advisable for her
to use group decision making, rather than individual decision making in this situation.

A

T

85
Q

Groupthink is a phenomenon that relates to the consensus norms.

A

T

86
Q

Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an
individuals working alone.

A

F

87
Q

The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet formally but
does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group.

A

T

88
Q

Electronic meetings minimize social pressures and conflicts.

A

T