Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > Ch11: Pediatric Pathology > Flashcards

Ch11: Pediatric Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is neonatal?

A

first 4 weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is infancy?

A

first year of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the five breakdowns of pediatrics?

A
  1. Neonatal
  2. Infancy
  3. Age 1-4
  4. Age 5-14
  5. Age 15-24
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During which age group do most pediatric deaths occur?

A

Under 1 year of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are congenital anomalies?

A

Morphologic defects that are present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Does congenital mean genetic?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percentage of newborns have a major anomaly?

A

3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does major anomaly mean?

A

anomaly having either a cosmetic or functional significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an anomaly?

A

Marked deviation from normal, especially as a result of congenital or hereditary defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a malformation?

A

Primary errors of morphogenesis - intrinsically abnormal developmental process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Are malformations due to a single gene problem or multifactorial?

A

Multifactorial usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a disruption?

A

secondary destruction of an organ or body region that was previously normal in development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A disruption arises from what?

A

extrinsic disturbance in morphogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a deformation?

A

extrinsic disturbance of development leading to a variety of structural abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What causes deformation?

A

Localized or generalized compression of the growing fetus by abnormal biomechanical forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is most common factor of deformations?

A

uterine constraint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a sequence?

A

pattern or cascade of anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Example of a sequence?

Symptoms? (5)

A

Oligohydramnios –> Potter sequence

Wide set eyes with epicanthal folds
Low set ears
Broad, flattened nose
Receding chin
Limb anomalies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a syndrome?

A

constellation of congenital anomalies, believed to be pathologically related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do sequences and syndromes differ?

A

syndrome cannot be explained on the basis of a single localized initiating defect in organogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What leads to a syndrome? (2)

A
  1. Viral infections and 2. chromosomal abnormalities- can lead to a group of anomalies in multiple organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are genetic anomalies?

A

Anomalies that are genetic in origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three groups of genetic anomalies?

A
  1. Karyotypic aberrations
  2. Single gene mutations
  3. Multifactorial inheritance (multiple genes + environment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to 80-90% of fetuses with aneuploidy or abnormality of chromosome number?

A

Spontaneous abortion (die in utero)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

90% of single gene mutation anomalies are inherited in what pattern?
What are the rest?

A
  1. Autosomal dominant
  2. Autosomal recessive

X-linked or something else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common chromosomal disorder?

A

Trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common form of inherited mental retardation?

A

Trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Symptoms of trisomy 21? 6

A

Mental retardation, flat facial profile, prominent epicanthal folds, simian crease, duodenal atresia, and congenital heart defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What disease occurs more often in trisomy 21 patients as they age?

A

Alzheimers

Acute lymphoblastic anemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What increases risk of trisomy 21?

A

Increasing age of mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Trisomy 18/Edward’s results in what symptoms? 7

A 
Severe mental retardation
Rocker bottom feet
Low set ears
Micrognathia
Congenital heart defects
Renal abnormalities
Clenched hands with overlapping fingers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Trisomy 13/Patau’s syndrome has what symptoms? (6)

A 
Severe mental retardation
Microcephaly
Cleft lip/cleft palate
Polydactyly
Congenital heart defects
Renal abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What causes Cri-du-chat syndrome?

A

Chromosome 5p deletion (short arm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Results of cri-du-chat syndrome? (6)

A 
Severe mental retardation
High pitched crying/mewing – source of the syndrome name
Epicanthal folds
Broad nasal bridge
Malformed ears
Congenital heart defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Klinefelter’s the result of?

A

XXY sex chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Klinefelter’s symptoms? (5)

A 
Testicular atrophy
Tall stature
Long extremities
Gynecomastia 
Female hair and fat distribution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What causes Turner syndrome?

A

Missing X chromosome in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Results of turner syndrome? (5)

A 
Short stature
Ovarian dysgenesis
Webbing of neck/Cystic hygromas
Coarctation of aorta
Primary amenorrhea/Hypothyroidism/Insulin resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the quadscreen look for? 4

A

AFP
hCG
Estriol
Inhibin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

AFP/alpha-fetoprotein is produced by who?

A

Fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

hCG is what?

A

Hormone made in placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is estriol?

A

Estrogen made by both fetus and placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is inhibin A?

A

Protein made by placenta and ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

After getting the measurements of the four substances in the quad-screen what are they then combined with? (2)

A
  1. Age

2. Ethnicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When is quad screen performed?

A

16th and 18th week of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who should definitely get a quad screen? (6)

A
  1. Family history of defects
  2. Older than 35
  3. Used drugs or harmful meds
  4. Take insulin
  5. Viral infection
  6. High radiation levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

High levels of AFP suggest what?

Such as what? (2)

A

possibility of a neural tube defect

such as spina bifida or anencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common reason for elevated AFP levels?

A

inaccurate dating of the pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Low AFP
Abnormal hCG and estriol
Suggest what?

A

Chromsomal abnormality such as trisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is the quad screen diagnostic?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are some environmental causes of injury to fetus? 3

A
  1. infections
  2. drugs
  3. irradiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the main infections that can cause fetus problem?

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Other infections
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus (CMV, the most common)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Syphilis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis can cause what? 5

A
  1. Hepatosplenomegaly
  2. GI problems: diarrhea, vomiting
  3. Retinitis, seizures, neurologic problems
  4. Hearing loss
  5. Low birth weight, jaundice, petechial rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Congenital rubella can result in what?

A
  1. Cardiac defect: Patent ductus
  2. Cerebral defect
  3. Eye defect (cataracts and blindness)
  4. Deaf
  5. Prematurity, low birth rate, anemia, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Congenital CMV can result in what?

A
  1. Prematurity, low birth rate, anemia, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia
  2. Microcephaly and seizures
  3. Hearing and vision
  4. Mental retardation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Congenital herpes simplex infection likes what in the brain?

A

Temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the three forms of congenital herpes simplex infection?

A
  1. Localized
  2. Disseminated
  3. CNS form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Symptoms of localized form of congenital HSV?

A

Lesions of skin, eyes and mouth (birth canal exposure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Symptoms of disseminated form of congenital HSV?

A

internal organs, particularly the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Symptoms of CNS form of congenital HSV?

A

Seizures, tremors irritability, lethargy –> encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Congenital syphilis has skeletal and teeth changes such as what? 9

A
  1. Blunted upper incisor teeth (Hutchinson’s teeth)
  2. mulberry molars
  3. Frontal bossing (prominence of the brow ridge)
  4. Hard palate defect
  5. Saddle nose
  6. Swollen knees
  7. Saber shins
  8. Short maxillae
  9. Protruding mandible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Congenital syphilis other findings include? (8)

A 
Pneumonia
Interstitial keratitis
Deafness
Hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice
Petechial and other rashes
Rhinitis
Lymphadenopathy
Rhagades
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Most bacterial and some viral such as HSV infections are acquired by what route?

A

Cervicovaginal route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Transcervical infections are acquired how? (2)

A
  1. exposure to infected amniotic fluid before birth

2. by passing through an infected birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Exposure to a transcervical infection is associated with what incident?

A

Premature Rupture of Membranes and ascending infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Transplacental infections include what?

A
  1. Parasitic: Toxoplasmosis and malaria

2. Bacterial: Listeria and syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How are transplacental infections passed to fetus?

A

Chorionic villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Other common infections in environmental induced injury? 5

A 
Varicella zoster virus (VZV) 
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 
Mumps
Influenza
Enteroviruses
69
Q

How does toxoplasmosis appear in histo?

A

Encysted without surrounding inflammation

70
Q

Rubella infection will result in what symptom?

A

Congenital cataracts bilaterally

71
Q

CMV appears how in histo?

A

Large intra-nuclear inclusion

72
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

presence of bacteria in the blood

73
Q

What is sepsis?

A

“uncontrolled” systemic inflammatory response to infection (bloodstream, urinary tract, lungs, skin, etc.)

74
Q

Mnifestations of sepsis include? 8

A
  1. fever,
  2. leukocytosis,
  3. hypotension,
  4. hypothermia,
  5. tachycardia,
  6. thrombocytopenia,
  7. leukopenia,
  8. organ failure
75
Q

What are the historic pediatric exanthems?

A
  1. Measles (Rubeola, First disease)
  2. Scarlet fever (Streptococcus pyogenes, Second disease)
  3. Rubella (German measles, Third disease)
  4. Duke’s disease (no specific cause identified - virus?)
  5. Erythema infectiosum (Parvovirus B19, Fifth disease or “slapped check disease”)
  6. Roseola (Human herpesviruses 6 & 7, Sixth disease)
76
Q

How are perinatal infections grouped?

A

Time of onset:
Early onset: First 7 days of life
Late onset: 7 days to 3 months

77
Q

Most common early onset infection?

A

Group B strep

78
Q

What percentage of women are carreirs for GBS?

A

10-30

79
Q

Late onset infections include? (2)

A
  1. Listeria

2. Candida

80
Q

What is the most common teratogen?

A

Ethanol

81
Q

What effects can ethanol have on the fetus? 5

A
  1. Growth retardation
  2. Microcephaly
  3. Atrial septal defect
  4. Maxillary hypoplasia
  5. Mental retardation and behavioral problems
82
Q

Thalidomide can result in what problems?

A
  1. Shortened limb
  2. CV, GI, GU, special sensory defects
  3. Suppress angiogenesis
83
Q

How is thalidomide used clinically?

A

Anti-angiogenesis in oncology therapy

84
Q

Phenytoin/Dilantin is a drug used for what? 2

A
  1. Anti-epileptic

2. Anti-arrhythmic

85
Q

Phenytoin/Dilantin can cause what? (4)

A
  1. broadened nasal bridge,
    2, cleft lip/palate
  2. microcephaly
  3. Mental retardation
86
Q

What is a baby born with phenytoin/dilantin effects called?

A

Fetal hydantoin syndrome (FHS)

87
Q

Folic acid antagonists include what?

A

Methotrexate

88
Q

Loss of folic acid activity leads to increases in what? (4)

A

Neural tube defects
CV defects
GU defects
Cleft lip/palate

89
Q

Androgens whether endogenous or exogenous can have what effect on babies? 4

A
  1. Low birth rate
  2. Altered second to fourth fingers (males longer fourth, females longer first)
  3. Masculinization of females
  4. Aggressive behavior
90
Q

Warfarin and coumadin can have what effects on babies? 4

A

Hypoplastic nose
Stippled epiphyses
Other skeletal abnormalities
Ocular abnormalities

91
Q

13-cis-retinoic acid is known as what?

A

Isotretinoin or Accutane

92
Q

Accutane has what problem despite its amazing results

A

Terriblly teratogenic

93
Q

What does a female who is on accutane have to do?

A

sign form to be on birth control pills prior to treatment

94
Q

Problems with accutane on baby?

A

Abnormalities of the face, eyes, ears, skull, CNS, CV system, thymus and parathyroid glands

95
Q

Mothers on ACE inhibitors will have babies with what?

A

Renal defects

96
Q

Cocaine mothers have what problems? (4)

A
  1. Premature delivery
  2. Birth defects
  3. ADD
  4. Fetal/neonate addiction to crack
97
Q

DES was used to prevent what?

A

Miscarriages

98
Q

Problems with DES on babies? 4

A

Vaginal adenosis and vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
Uterine abnormalities
Increased risk of breast cancer
GU defects in males

99
Q

Effect of iodine on baby?

A

Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism

100
Q

Can babies get a malformation due to mother being diabetic?

A

Yes

101
Q

Matneral hyperglycemia induces what?

A

fetal hyperinsulinemia –> increased insulin and IGF release

102
Q

Effects of hyperinsulinemia on fetus? 5

A 
Increased body fat
Organomegaly (macrosomia)
Cardiac anomalies
Neural tube defects, and other CNS malformations
Hypertrophy of pancreatic islets
103
Q

Hypertrophy of pancreatic islets puts infant as risk for what?

A

post-natal hypoglycemia

104
Q

Can radiation be a teratogen?

A

Yes

105
Q

What is fetal hydrops?

A

accumulation of widespread fetal edema during pregnancy

106
Q

Two forms of getal hydrops?

A

immune and non-immune forms

107
Q

What will severe fetal hydrops result in?

A

Intrauterine demise (hydrops fetalis)

108
Q

What was the most common form of fetal hydrops?

A

Immune

109
Q

Immune hydrops is secondary to what?

A

maternal IgG antibodies capable of transplacental distribution

110
Q

When is immune hydrops most commonly seen?

A

Rh disease

111
Q

What is RH disease?

What does it require?

A

Maternal IgG antibodies to the red blood cell antigen D

D negative mother and prior exposure to the D antigen

112
Q

What does immune hydrops cause in the infant?

A
  1. Anemia (HDN and erythoblastosis fetalis)
  2. Jaundice
  3. CHF (hypoproteinemia and anasarca)
113
Q

Why has immune fetal hydrops become less common?

A

identification of D negative mothers, D positive infants and the use of RhoGAM (anti-D antibodies) is the standard of care
Infant is also treated with intrauterine transfusions of D-negative RBC’s

114
Q

Three major causes of non-immune hydrops?

Example of each

A
  1. CV defects (CHF)
  2. Chromosomal anomalies (Turner syndrome)
  3. Non-immune fetal anemia (Hemoglobinopathies and Parovirus B19)
115
Q

What is SIDS?

A

sudden death of an infant under age 1 which remains unexplained after thorough investigation

116
Q

When is SIDS diagnosed?

A

After complete autopsy

117
Q

What are usual causes of SIDS? 5

A 
Infections - viral myocarditis and bronchopneumonia
CV abnormalities
Traumatic child abuse
Suffocation
Genetic disorders
118
Q

How much has SIDS dropped recently?

A

50%

119
Q

90% of SIDS deaths occur when?

A

First 6 months of life

120
Q

Parental risk factors for SIDS? 6

A
  1. Mom 20 or less
  2. Mom smokes
  3. Drug abuse by either parent
  4. Short intergestational period
  5. Bad prenatal care
  6. Low socioeconomic group
121
Q

Infant risk factors for SIDS? 4

A
  1. Brain stem problems
  2. prematurity and low birth weight
  3. Male sex and multiple births
  4. SIDS in other siblings
122
Q

Environmental risk factors for SIDS? 4

A
  1. Prone or side sleeping position
  2. Soft sleeping surfaces
  3. Hyperthermia
  4. Co-sleeping first three months of life
123
Q

Typical autopsy findings of SIDS? (2)

A

petechia of the thymus, visceral

parietal pleura and epicardium

124
Q

What type of inheritance is PKU?

A

Autosomal recessive

125
Q

PKU is a decrease in what enzyme?

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

126
Q

Normally phenyalanine is converted into what?

A

Tyrosine

127
Q

Tyrosine becomes what in PKU patients?

A

Essential amino acid

128
Q

Is buildup of phenylalanine metabolites toxic?

A

Yes

129
Q

PKU is most common in what population?

A

Scandinavian descent

130
Q

What do high phenylalanine levels do to the baby?

A

impairs brain development and if not treated will develop severe MR by 6 months

131
Q

Treatment of PKU is to do what?

A

Remove phenylalanine from diet

132
Q

Are CNS effects seen in adults?

Exception

A

No

Pregnant women with high levels of phenylalanine can cause CNS damage in non-PKU infants

133
Q

Galactosemia has what inheritance?

A

Autosomal recessive

134
Q

What accumulates in galactosemia?

Result?

A

galactose and galactose-1-phosphate

impairs amino acid transport in kidney resulting in aminoaciduria

135
Q

Damage caused by toxic metabolites has what symptoms? (3)

A
  1. Liver: hepatosplenomegaly, steatosis, fibrosis
  2. Eyes: Cataracts
  3. Mental retardation
136
Q

Galactosemia babies have what problem? (2)

A
  1. Failure to thrive

2. Increased E.coli sepsis

137
Q

Treatment for galactosemia involves what?

A

Removing galactose and lactose from diet

138
Q

Removal of galactose from the diet is required when?

A

first 2 years of life

139
Q

Even removing galactose from diet, what can still happen to galactosemia patients? (2)

A
  1. Speech disorder

2. Premature ovarian failure

140
Q

Cystic fibrosis has what inheritance?

A

Autosomal recessive

141
Q

In terms of demographics, what is CF the most common disorder of?

A

Most common lethal genetic disorder in caucasians

142
Q

CF is a disorder of what?

Which affects what? (2)

A

epithelial transport of chloride and other ions

  1. fluid secretions in exocrine glands
  2. epithelial lining of the respiratory, GI and reproductive tracts
143
Q

Primary defect of CF is what?

A

abnormal function of an epithelial ion channel protein encoded by the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene on chromosome 7q31.2

144
Q

How many CF mutations are there?

A

1300

145
Q

What is the most severe CF mutation and accounts for 70% of them?

A

DeltaF508

146
Q

Since chloride ions can’t be excreted in CF what happens?

A

sodium is excessively absorbed, and water passively follows, leading to abnormally thick mucus

147
Q

Results of CF in infant?

A
  1. Meconium ileus

2. Failure to thrive

148
Q

Results of CF as infant grows order?

In terms of ducts and pancreas

A

Abnormally viscid mucus secretions then obstruct duct lumens –> chronic lung disease, pancreatic insufficiency with malnutrition, hepatic cirrhosis, intestinal obstruction and male infertility

Pancreatic exocrine insufficiency –> protein and fat malabsorption –> increased fecal fat loss (steatorrhea) and inability to absorb fat soluble vitamins –> deficiency of vitamins A, D, E, K

149
Q

The sweat chloride test does what?

If elevated what does it mean?

A

measures the sodium chloride concentration of sweat

presumptive diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is made

150
Q

Disease severity of CF depends on what?

A
  1. Specific CF mutation
  2. Other associated diseases
  3. Environmental factors such as infection
151
Q

What are causes of respiratory diestress in a newborn? 6

A 
Excessive sedation of mother, 
fetal head injury, 
fetal aspiration, 
intrauterine hypoxia, 
autosomal recessive polycystic renal disease, diaphragmatic hernia
152
Q

Most common cause of respiratory distress in newborn?

A

Hyaline membrane disease/Respiratory distress syndrome

153
Q

How is HMD/RDS diagnosed in X-ray?

A

Ground glass infiltrates

154
Q

Incidence of RDS is inversely proportional to what? 2

A
  1. Gestational age

2. Fetal lung maturity

155
Q

RDS occurs most often in what?

A

infants born at less than 28 weeks

156
Q

Fundamental defect of neonatal respiratory distress?

A

Deficiency of surfactant

157
Q

What is surfactant’s job?

A

Reduce surface tension in the lung

158
Q

Surfactant is synthesized by what cells?

A

Type II pneumocytes

159
Q

When is surfactant abundantly seen?

A

After 35 weeks

160
Q

Assessment of Fetal Lung Maturity is necessary for what?

A

Avoiding RDS

161
Q

FLM is necessary for what age group?

A

Babies between 34 and 37 weeks gestation

162
Q

Is FLM better at predicting immaturity or maturity?

A

Maturity

163
Q

What is used to treat RDS?

A

Surfactant therapy

164
Q

What is the most common method of FLM assays?

A

Fluorescence polarization assay

165
Q

The lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio is used to determine what

A

Fetal lung maturity

166
Q

Lecithin increases with what?

What does sphingomyelin increase with?

A

Gestation age

Constant

167
Q

A 2:1 L/S ratio indicates what?

A

Fetal lung maturity

168
Q

Many FLM assays are done using what fluid?

A

Amniotic fluid

169
Q

Clinical presentation of necrotizing enterocolitis? 3

A

Bloody stools,
abdominal distention, and
circulatory collapse

Pathology (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions