Ch 9-18 PP Questions + Module 3&4 Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following is not a factor in establishing a causal relationship? 
A) Confounders
B) Relationship
C)  Temporal
D) Sample
A

Answer D: Sample

Confounders, relationship, and temporal are the three traits of establishing a causal relationship. The sample impacts statistical power.

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2
Q
Which of the following is true of a randomized controlled trial?
A) Also known as an observational study
B) Uses a control group
C) Researchers select the participants
D) Retrospective
A

Answer: B, uses a control group

Randomized controlled trials use an intervention, have a control group, randomized participants, and are primary studies.

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3
Q
What is a method or intervention that quasi-experimental studies can use to increase the quality of the results if it does not use a comparison group?
A) Time-series Design
B) Increase sample size
C) Randomization
D) Identify confounding variables
A

Answer A, time-series design

Quasi-experimental studies do not use randomization, otherwise it would be structured as a RCT.

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4
Q
Which of the following are methods to control a study? (Select all that apply).
A) Heterogeneity
B) Matching
C) Randomization
D) Script
A

Answer: B, C, D, matching, randomization, and script.

Homogeneity is used not heterogeneity. Matching, Randomization, Script, Blinding, and Statistical control are all methods of maintaining control in a study.

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5
Q
What type of study collects data at multiple points or over an extended period of time?
A) Observational
B) Quasi-experimental
C) Randomized Controlled Trial
D) Longitudinal
A

Answer D, longitudinal

This is the definition of a longitudinal design. The other three are research design methods and are not specific to a time.

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6
Q
A researcher is investigating a population of nurses.  Nurses are divided up into cardiac nurses and oncology nurses.  What would cardiac nurses or oncology nurses represent?
A) Strata
B) Eligibility criteria
C) Sampling bias
D) Representative sample
A

Answer A, Strata.

Strata are mutually exclusive samples of the population based on specific criteria. The only different in the two groups are where they work. Eligibility criteria would refer to a set of requirements to be involved in a study. Sampling bias is when a certain population type is overrepresented or underrepresented in a sample. A representative sample would be one that most relates to the overall population in the hospital.

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7
Q
A researcher collects data on patients in a labor and delivery unit over a two-month time frame.  What type of sampling method is this?
A) Quota sampling
B)  Purposive sampling
C) Convenience sampling
D) Consecutive sampling
A

Answer: D, consecutive sampling

The question uses a population from an accessible location over a length time, and this represents consecutive sampling. Quota sampling would involve dividing a group into strata and then picking from them. Purposive sampling handpicks individuals based on traits in the population. Convenience sampling picks individuals that are the most convenient. One key difference in consecutive and convenience is that consecutive specifies a location and it identifies a time period to use instead of one point in time.

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8
Q
Which of the following is a type of probability sampling?
A) Convenience Sampling
B) Consecutive Sampling
C) Systematic Sampling
D) Quota Sampling
A

Answer: C, systematic sampling

Types of probability sampling include: Simple random sampling, Stratified random sampling, and Systematic Sampling. The other 3 are types of nonprobability sampling.

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9
Q
What is an example of when a large sample size might not be an accurate representation of the population?
A) a power analysis determines the size
B) nonprobability sampling is used
C) qualitative studies
D) observational studies
A

Answer B, nonprobability sampling is used.

If the sample is not selected randomly, then sample bias can weaken the power of the sample, including a large sample size.

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10
Q
Benefits of Questionnaires include which of the following?  (Select all that apply).
A) anonymity 
B) reach diverse geographical areas
C) free from validity errors
D) less costly than interviews
A

Answer: A, B, and D, anonymity, free from validity errors, less costly than interviews.

Self-report studies, including interviews and questionnaires pose a potential problem with accuracy and validity. Questionnaires allow anonymity, the ability to reach diverse geographical areas, and are less costly than interviews.

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11
Q
What is one similarity between quantitative and qualitative research designs?
A) Blinding
B) Control
C) Randomization
D) Time designs
A

Answer: D, time designs.

Both qualitative and quantitative studies can use cross-sectional or longitudinal designs. Qualitative studies do not use blinding, control, or randomization.

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12
Q
Which type of qualitative study design involves fieldwork?
A) Ethnography
B) Phenomenology
C) Grounded Theory
D) Case studies
A

Answer: A, ethnography

Ethnographic studies require the researchers to involve themselves in the culture and to perform fieldwork to become involved for a length of time.

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13
Q
Which term is applicable to interpretive phenomenology?
A) Bracketing
B) Hermeneutics 
C) Intuiting
D) Describing
A

Answer: B, hermeneutics

Bracketing, intuiting, analyzing, and describing are four traits of descriptive phenomenology. Hermeneutics is characteristic to interpretive phenomenology.

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14
Q
Which type of qualitative research focuses on a core variable?
A) Ethnography
B) Phenomenology
C) Grounded theory
D) Narrative analysis
A

Answer C, grounded theory.

Grounded theory focuses on behavior targeted towards a problem or core variable.

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15
Q
Which type of qualitative research method focuses on a single entity?
A) Ethnography
B) Phenomenology
C) Grounded Theory
D) Case Studies
A

Answer: D, case studies.

Case studies focus on a single entity which can include a person, family, social group or unit. The other study types use varying sample sizes.

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16
Q
Which sampling technique involves having participants refer other individuals to be participants?
A) Convenience
B) Purposive
C) Theoretical
D) Snowball
A

Answer: D, snowball

Snowball sampling is known as network sampling and asks early informants to make referrals.

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17
Q
What is the primary factor in determining the sample size in qualitative studies?
A) Data saturation
B) Power analysis
C) Qualitative study technique
D) Sampling technique
A

Answer: A, data saturation.

Data saturation, or when no new information is provided or when answers are redundant is the primary factor in determining sample size. Power analysis is used to calculate sample size in quantitative studies. Qualitative study techniques lend themselves to certain sample sizes, and the sampling technique can influence the sample, but the sample size for qualitative studies is fluid and is finalized when data saturation is achieved.

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18
Q
Which qualitative study type relies on key informants?
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded Theory
C) Ethnography
D) Observational
A

Answer: C, ethnography

Ethnography involves immersing oneself in a cultural group and using key informants to help the study progress. Grounded theory and phenomenological studies use sample participants but not key informants. Observational studies are nonexperimental quantitative studies. Observation is a technique of data collection and not a formal study type in qualitative studies.

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19
Q
Which type of data collection technique involves asking a broad general question and asking follow-up questions based on participants responses?
A) Participant observation
B) Unstructured interviews
C) Focus group interviews
D) Topic guided interviews
A

Answer: B, unstructured interviews.

Unstructured interviews do not have a list of topics and are based on the participants responses. The questions become more focused as the participants engages in answering. Participant observation, focus group interviews, and topic guided interviews all use a list of topics to provide a framework for the topics they ask questions about during the interview.

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20
Q
Which type of qualitative study type takes the longest time to conduct?
A) Ethnography
B) Phenomenological
C) Grounded Theory
D) Longitudinal
A

Answer A: Ethnography

Ethnographic studies require getting entrance into an environment, getting to know a group, participating in the group activities, and collects data with a longitudinal time frame. Longitudinal may be used as a way to describe a study, but it refers to how data is collected and is not a study design. The other qualitative study types do not require the same time investment as an ethnographic study.

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21
Q

What makes a research study a mixed-methods study?
A) uses both qualitative and quantitative data collection
B) begins with one research design and shifts to one or more designs as the study progresses
C) combines multiple quantitative research designs to answer one research question
D) design focused on measuring multiple research questions with one method

A

Answer A: uses both qualitative and quantitative data collection

A mixed-methods study uses quantitative and qualitative study methods and data collection. It may be used for one or more research questions. It does not use multiple quantitative methods or continuously evolve designs as the study continues.

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22
Q
Which type of study designation would be seen in a convergent study?
A) QUAN -> QUAL
B) QUAL -> QUAN
C) QUAN + QUAL
D) QUAL = QUAN
A

Answer C, QUAN + QUAL

Convergent designs are mixed-methods study in which the qualitative and quantitative study occur concurrently and with equal weight. The arrow sign is used to indicate sequential studies, and an equal sign is not a designation used.

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23
Q
Which type of study design would occur first in an explanatory design?
A) Phenomenological
B) Grounded Theory
C) Ethnographic
D) Quasi-experimental
A

Answer: D, quasi-experimental

Explanatory designs begin with quantitative study designs followed by qualitative designs. Quasi-experimental is the only quantitative research design listed.

24
Q
Which phase of a clinical trial focuses on pilot testing?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV
A

Answer: B, phase II

Phase II involves pilot testing of treatment effectiveness.

25
Q
What type of study design utilizes the plan-do-study-act process?
A) Evaluation Research
B) Clinical Trials
C) Quality Improvement Studies
D) Nursing Intervention Research
A

Answer: C, quality improvement studies

Quality improvement studies commonly use the plan-do-study-act process.

26
Q
Which level of measurement applies to IQ scores?
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Interval
D) Ratio
A

Answer: C, interval.

IQ scores are representative of an interval measurement.

27
Q
Which type of distribution is represented by a bell-curve?
A) Frequency
B) Skewed
C) Symmetric
D) Normal
A

Answer: D, normal.

A bell-curve is typical for a normal distribution. This includes parameters such as height and intelligence

28
Q
What is the sum of all variables divided by the number of participants?
A) Mean
B) Mode
C) Range
D) Median
A

Answer A: mean

Mean, median, and mode are three measures of central tendency. The mean is the average which adds all variables together and divides them by the number of participants. Range is the highest value minus the lowest value. It does not measure central tendency.

29
Q
To be statistically significant what standard deviation value is needed with a normal distribution?
A) < 1
B) within 2
C) 3-4
D) > 5
A

Answer: B, within 2.

For a bell-shaped curve or a normal distribution, a 95% confidence interval is associated with two standard deviations.

30
Q
Which value is best at establishing statistical significance?
A) p
B) Chi-squared
C) t
D) ANOVA
A

Answer A: p

Each type of statistical test will calculate a value for a research study; however, it will also calculate a p value. It is uniform through testing to designate a p value of < 0.05 as meaning it is statistically significant.

31
Q
Which values are specific for calculating reliability? (Select all that apply).
A) Cohen’s kappa
B) Specificity
C) Cronbach’s alpha
D) Intraclass correlation coefficient
A

Answer: A, C, and D, Cohen’s kappa, Cronbach’s alpha, and intraclass correlation coefficient.

Specificity is a term that applies to validity.

32
Q
A test for strep throat has been developed.  The test shows positive for every case of strep throat, but also shows positive for influenza.  What is the best way to classify this test?
A) Highly specific and highly sensitive
B) Highly specific and low sensitivity
C) Low specificity and highly sensitive
D) Low specificity and low sensitivity
A

Answer: C, low specificity and highly sensitive.

Since the test sometimes shows positive for influenza it would not be highly specific. Since the test shows positive for every case of strep throat it is highly sensitive.

33
Q
What guidelines are used to track variations in a sample?
A) CONSORT
B) PRISMA
C) JCAHO
D) HCAPPS
A

Answer A: CONSORT

CONSORT guidelines are developed for keeping track of sample changes through a study. The other guidelines are not related to study samples.

34
Q
Which factor is useful in determining group-level clinical significance?
A) p
B) Power analysis
C) Minimal important change
D) Number needed to treat
A

Answer: D, number needed to treat

Number needed to treat, effect size index, and confidence intervals are used for group-level significance. P is used for statistical significance. Minimal important change is used for individual-level significance. Power analysis is used to calculate an adequate sample size.

35
Q
What is used to calculate individual-level clinical significance?
A) t-test
B) benchmark
C) CONSORT
D) chi-squared
A

Answer: B, benchmark

Benchmarks are used to calculate individual-level clinical significance. T-test and chi-squared are statistical tests. CONSORT is a set of guidelines for keeping track of a sample.

36
Q

Which of the following are methods to measure minimum individual change? (Select all that apply).
A) using a 0.5 standard deviation threshold
B) benchmark
C) aiming for a 95% confidence interval
D) having patient’s rate what is significant

A

Answers: A, B, and D, 0.5 SD threshold, using benchmarks, and having patient’s rate what is significant.

A 95% confidence interval is used for group-level clinical significance.

37
Q
When reading a qualitative research study, what term would describe a qualitative data analytic method?
A) Chi-square
B) Independent t-test
C) Logistic regression
D) Content analysis
A

Answer: D, content analysis.

Content analysis, Qualitative content analysis, thematic content analysis are all variations of a term seen to describe the data analysis for a qualitative article. The other three methods are quantitative methods.

38
Q
What is narrative information in a qualitative study broken down into first?
A) Constructs
B) Theory
C) Codes
D) Themes
A

Answer: C, codes.

The first analysis of data identifies codes by processes of coding. Themes are identified next, and constructs or theories are the final outcome of a study.

39
Q
Which style of qualitative analysis uses domain analysis?
A) Qualitative Content Analysis
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology 
D) Grounded Theory
A

Answer: B, ethnography.

Ethnographic analysis uses Spradley’s methods which include domain analysis, taxonomic analysis, componential analysis and theme analysis.

40
Q
Which phenomenologist analyzes artistic works in their analytical methods? 
A) van Manen
B) Colaizzi
C) Heidegger
D) Giorgi
A

Answer: A, van Manen.

Van Manen included artistic works in his methods. Colaizzi validates results by speaking to study participants. Heidegger used the hermeneutic circle. Giorgi felt it was inappropriate to return to participants to validate findings or to use external judges to review the analysis.

41
Q
What method is present in all areas of grounded theory analysis?
A) selective coding
B) conceptual description
C) paradigm development
D) constant comparison
A

Answer: D, constant comparison.

Constant comparison is a method used by all the analytical methods. Glaser uses selective coding, and Strauss uses conceptual description and paradigm development.

42
Q
What component is required in qualitative research to claim a study is credible?
A) Confirmability
B) Authentiticy
C) Transferability
D) Dependability
A

Answer: D, dependability.

Credibility cannot be attained in the absence of dependability.

43
Q
What is a strategy used in qualitative research to reduce bias?
A) Prolonged engagement
B) Reflexive journaling
C) Persistent observation
D) Audit trail
A

Answer: B, reflexive journaling

Reflexive journaling allows the researcher to be mindful of their past experiences and properly convey the patient’s experience rather than their own.

44
Q
What process in qualitative research involves checking that the themes are congruent with the participant’s beliefs?
A) Member check
B) Triangulation
C) Reflexivity
D) Persistent Observation
A

Answer: A, member check

Member checking involves the researcher discussing their interpretations with the participants to see if the participants agree or not.

45
Q
What strategy in a qualitative study involves getting multiple researchers for data collection, coding, and analysis?
A) Inquiry audit
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Negative case analysis
D) Peer debriefing
A

Answer: B, investigator triangulation.

In peer debriefing one investigator collects the data and makes interpretations and then has it reviewed by a group of experts. Investigator triangulation has several researchers conduct the study at the same time.

46
Q

Which technique helps establish researcher credibility in qualitative research?
A) Investigator Triangulation with at least three researchers
B) Audit Trail conducted before two inquiry audits
C) Peer debriefing with at least five peers
D) Including information about the researcher in the study

A

Answer: D, including information about the researcher in the study.

Researcher credibility involves discussing the researcher in the study, including to discus their qualifications, the process they used for reflexivity, and discussing what association they had with participants.

47
Q
What component is used in types of systematic reviews to measure the impact of the independent variable?
A) Sample
B) Research Design
C) Effect Size
D) Outcome
A

Answer: C, Effect size

The effect size is calculated to determine how effective the independent variable is in leading to outcomes in each study. The other methods are compared but are not uniform across all studies.

48
Q

When would it not be appropriate to use a meta-analysis?
A) multiple studies have a similar research question
B) good quality studies with conflicting results
C) mostly primary research studies related to the phenomenon
D) Cohen’s d can be easily calculated

A

Answer: B, good quality studies with conflicting results.

A meta-analysis should be used when you have multiple primary research studies with near-identical research questions that have an effect size. It is acceptable for studies with nonsignificant results to conflict, but if the studies are of good quality with conflicting results then another approach should be considered.

49
Q
What is a risk that can occur in a meta-analysis if the study excludes articles that are not peer-reviewed?
A) Intrinsic bias
B) Reduced validity
C) Publication bias
D) Reduced reliability
A

Answer: C, publication bias

Publication bias is the tendency for published studies to systematically overrepresent statistically significant findings. Studies that have results that are not statistically significant may not be published.

50
Q
What technique is used to display the effect sizes of multiple studies to assess if it is appropriate to do a meta-analysis?
A) Forest plot
B) Cohen’s d
C) Odd’s Ratio
D) Pearson’s r
A

Answer: A, forest plot.

A forest plot displays the results of multiple studies on a graph. The other methods are used to calculate effect size.

51
Q

What is different about the research design for a metasynthesis versus a meta-analysis?
A) focus on primary research studies
B) researchers same as those of studies included
C) calculate effect size for data analysis
D) begin with a focused research question

A

Answer: B, researchers same as those of studies included.

In a metasynthesis the researchers of the studies are often the same as those that conduct the metasynthesis. In a meta-analysis the researchers do not include studies they were involved with for objectivity. Both types focus on primary research studies, calculate effect size, and begin with a focused research question.

52
Q
Which of the following study types is a form of qualitative research?
A) Systematic Review 
B) Randomized Controlled Trial 
C) Quasi-experimental study 
D) Narrative Analysis
A

D) Narrative Analysis (Chapter 11)
Narrative analyses focus on the story that can be used to understand specific events and situations that require linking an inner world of needs to an external world of observable actions.

An RCT, a quasi-experimental study, and systematic reviews are examples of quantitative research.

53
Q
Which type of sampling technique uses volunteers to participate?
A) Theoretical 
B) Purposive 
C) Snowball 
D) Convenience
A

D) Convenience (Chapter 12.)
Convenience samples for a qualitative study include volunteers to participate. A convenience sample may be the FIRST type of sampling trialed.

Snowball sampling is having participants make referrals to people. It is also known as network sampling. Leaving the participant selection up to others can give a skewed sample that might not be the most information-rich sources.
Purposive sampling is a sampling type adopted after other methods are tried first where the researchers deliberately pick participants to find those that are information-rich.
-Maximum variation sampling involves deliberately selecting cases with a wide range of variation on dimensions of interest.
-Confirming cases are cases that strengthen credibility.
-Disconfirming cases are new cases that challenge the results.
Theoretical sampling is an evolving process where participants are selected as needed for relevance to the emerging theory discovered.

54
Q
What is the number that occurs most frequently in a distribution?
A) Average 
B) Mean 
C) Mode 
D) Median
A

C) Mode (Chapter 14)
Central tendency includes methods to determine a central value for a set of numbers.
The mode is the number that occurs most frequently in a distribution.
The median is the point in a distribution that divides scores in half.
The mean equals the sum of all values divided by the number of participants.

55
Q
A study is designed to test the effects of a new medication on blood pressure.  70% of the participants were supposed to take the medication but decided not to while still remaining a part of the study and its results.  What type of bias does this represent?
A) Noncompliance
B) Acquiescence 
C) Attrition 
D) Volunteer
A

A) Noncompliance (Chapter 15)
Noncompliance bias is when study participants are not compliant with the intervention.

Volunteer bias prevents randomization and introduces bias into a study.
Attrition bias is when participants drop out of a study and are removed from the results and their impact.
Acquiescence is when participants want to be in agreement and it skews the data.

56
Q
What is the term that describes making sure the data reflects the participants' view or voice rather than the researcher's bias?
A) Confirmability 
B) Credibility 
C) Transferability 
D) Dependability
A

A) Confirmability (Chapter 17)
Confirmability is making sure the data reflects the participants’ views or voices rather than the researcher’s bias.

Credibility is a measure of truth in the data and how it is interpreted. Credibility looks at the way a study is carried out to demonstrate the findings are believable and taking steps to demonstrate credibility to external readers.

Dependability relates to the ability of the study findings to be repeated in similar circumstances. If a study is not dependable, then it is not credible.

Transferability is the ability for the results to be applied or assumed for other settings.