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Human Anatomy & Physiology 1 (Marieb) > Ch. 6 Bones and Skeletal Tissue > Flashcards

Ch. 6 Bones and Skeletal Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of cartilage that help form the skeleton?

A

Hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage

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2
Q

What are the major functions of bones?

A

Support, protection, movement, storage, and blood cell formation

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3
Q

How are bones classified?

A

By their location and shape

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4
Q

What does the gross structure of all bones consist of?

A

Compact bone sandwiching spongy bone

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5
Q

What are the two methods by which bones develop?

A

Intramembranous and endochondral ossification

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6
Q

What are the key cells involved in bone remodeling?

A

Osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

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7
Q

What are the steps involved in bone fracture repair?

A

Hematoma formation, callus formation, and remodeling

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8
Q

What are the disorders of bone remodeling?

A

Osteoporosis, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease

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9
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Cells responsible for bone formation

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10
Q

What are the two main types of bone tissue?

A

Compact bone and spongy bone

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11
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

A growth plate that allows long bones to grow

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12
Q

What are the major regions of the skeleton?

A

Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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13
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Cells that break down bone tissue

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14
Q

What is the functional importance of bone markings?

A

They serve as sites for muscle attachment, joint formation, and passage of nerves and blood vessels

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15
Q

What are the four bone classes?

A

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, and irregular bones

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16
Q

Osteocytes

A

Mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix

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17
Q

How do hormones and physical stress regulate bone remodeling?

A

Hormones and physical stress influence the activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts, thereby regulating bone deposition and resorption

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18
Q

What is the most plentiful type of cartilage in the adult body?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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19
Q

Which type of cartilage is found in the external ear and the epiglottis?

A

Elastic cartilage

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20
Q

What is a key difference between cartilage and bone tissue?

A

Cartilage grows in an interstitial manner; bone does not.

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21
Q

Which type of cartilage is highly compressible with great tensile strength?

A

Fibrocartilage

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22
Q

What is the primary function of the perichondrium?

A

To resist outward expansion when the cartilage is compressed and to nourish cartilage cells

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23
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found in the human body?

A

Ends of long bones, rib cage, respiratory passageways, and external nose

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24
Q

What are the two ways cartilage grows?

A

Appositional growth and interstitial growth

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25
Q

What cells are found within the lacunae of cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

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26
Q

Perichondrium

A

A layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds cartilage and contains blood vessels to nourish cartilage cells

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27
Q

What is the primary function of hyaline cartilage?

A

To provide support with flexibility and resilience

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28
Q

Chondrocytes

A

Cells found in cartilage that are enclosed in small cavities called lacunae

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29
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found in the body?

A

In the external ear and the epiglottis

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30
Q

What is the main characteristic of fibrocartilage?

A

It is highly compressible with great tensile strength

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31
Q

Appositional growth

A

Growth where cartilage-forming cells in the perichondrium secrete new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage

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32
Q

What is the difference between appositional and interstitial growth in cartilage?

A

Appositional growth adds new layers on the surface, while interstitial growth expands the cartilage from within

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33
Q

Interstitial growth

A

Growth where chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix, expanding the cartilage from within

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34
Q

What is one of the primary functions of bones in the human body?

A

Support

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35
Q

Which bones protect the brain?

A

Fused bones of the skull

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36
Q

What is the role of bones in mineral storage?

A

Reservoir for minerals like calcium and phosphate

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37
Q

Where does most blood cell formation occur?

A

Red marrow of certain bones

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38
Q

What type of marrow stores fat?

A

Yellow marrow

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39
Q

What hormone is produced by bones to help regulate insulin secretion?

A

Osteocalcin

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40
Q

How do bones assist in movement?

A

They act as levers for skeletal muscles

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41
Q

What is the primary function of red marrow in bones?

A

Hematopoiesis (blood cell formation)

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42
Q

Which type of marrow is responsible for fat storage?

A

Yellow marrow

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43
Q

What hormone do bones produce that helps regulate insulin secretion?

A

Osteocalcin

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44
Q

How do bones contribute to mineral storage in the body?

A

Bones act as a reservoir for minerals like calcium and phosphate, releasing them into the bloodstream as needed.

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45
Q

What function do bones serve in relation to skeletal muscles?

A

Bones serve as levers for skeletal muscles, allowing movement of the body and its parts.

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46
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

The formation of blood cells, which occurs in the red marrow of certain bones.

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47
Q

Osteocalcin

A

A hormone produced by bones that helps regulate insulin secretion, glucose homeostasis, and energy expenditure.

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48
Q

Mineral storage

A

The process by which bones store minerals like calcium and phosphate and release them into the bloodstream as needed.

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49
Q

Anchorage

A

The function of bones serving as levers for skeletal muscles, allowing movement of the body and its parts.

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50
Q

Support

A

The function of bones providing a framework that supports the body and cradles its soft organs.

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51
Q

What are the two major regions of the human skeleton?

A

Axial and appendicular

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52
Q

Which bones are part of the axial skeleton?

A

Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

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53
Q

What is the primary function of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Locomotion and manipulation of the environment

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54
Q

Which of the following is an example of a long bone?

A

Femur

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55
Q

What shape classification does the sternum fall under?

A

Flat bones

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56
Q

Which bones are classified as short bones?

A

Wrist and ankle bones

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57
Q

What is a unique feature of sesamoid bones?

A

They form in a tendon

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58
Q

Which of the following is an example of an irregular bone?

A

Vertebra

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59
Q

What is the function of the femur’s hollow-cylinder shape?

A

Provides maximum strength with minimum weight

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60
Q

What is the primary function of the axial skeleton?

A

To protect, support, or carry other body parts

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61
Q

Which bones are included in the axial skeleton?

A

The bones of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

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62
Q

What is the primary function of the appendicular skeleton?

A

To help us move from place to place and manipulate our environment

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63
Q

Which bones are included in the appendicular skeleton?

A

The bones of the upper and lower limbs and the girdles (shoulder bones and hip bones)

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64
Q

How are bones classified by shape?

A

As long, short, flat, or irregular

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65
Q

What are examples of long bones?

A

All limb bones except the patella, wrist, and ankle bones

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66
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

The bones of the wrist and ankle

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67
Q

What is a special type of short bone that forms in a tendon?

A

Sesamoid bones

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68
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

The sternum, scapulae, ribs, and most cranial bones of the skull

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69
Q

What are examples of irregular bones?

A

The vertebrae and hip bones

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70
Q

Axial skeleton

A

The part of the skeleton that forms the long axis of the body, including the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

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71
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

The part of the skeleton that includes the bones of the upper and lower limbs and the girdles that attach the limbs to the axial skeleton

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72
Q

Long bones

A

Bones that are considerably longer than they are wide, with a shaft and two ends

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73
Q

Short bones

A

Bones that are roughly cube shaped, such as the bones of the wrist and ankle

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74
Q

Sesamoid bones

A

A special type of short bone that forms in a tendon, such as the patella

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75
Q

Flat bones

A

Bones that are thin, flattened, and usually a bit curved, such as the sternum and scapulae

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76
Q

Irregular bones

A

Bones with complicated shapes that do not fit into the other categories, such as the vertebrae and hip bones

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77
Q

What is the dense outer layer of bone called?

A

Compact bone

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78
Q

What fills the open spaces between trabeculae in living bones?

A

Red or yellow bone marrow

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79
Q

What is the main function of the periosteum?

A

Covers the external surface of the bone

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80
Q

Which part of a long bone contains yellow marrow in adults?

A

Medullary cavity

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81
Q

What type of bone cell is responsible for bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts

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82
Q

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

A

Osteon

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83
Q

Which type of bone contains osteons?

A

Compact bone

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84
Q

What are the small needle-like or flat pieces in spongy bone called?

A

Trabeculae

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85
Q

What is the role of osteocytes in bone tissue?

A

Monitor and maintain the bone matrix

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86
Q

Which bone marking is a large rounded projection that may be roughened?

A

Tuberosity

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87
Q

What are the two types of bone tissue found in all bones?

A

Compact bone and spongy bone

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88
Q

What is the primary function of red bone marrow?

A

Hematopoiesis (blood cell formation)

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89
Q

Where is yellow bone marrow primarily found in adults?

A

In the medullary cavity of long bones

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90
Q

What type of bone tissue forms the outer layer of bones?

A

Compact bone

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91
Q

What is the name of the membrane that covers the external surface of bones?

A

Periosteum

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92
Q

What is the structural unit of compact bone?

A

Osteon or Haversian system

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93
Q

What is the role of osteocytes in bone tissue?

A

To monitor and maintain the bone matrix

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94
Q

What type of cells are responsible for bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts

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95
Q

What is the function of articular cartilage?

A

To cushion the bone ends during movement and absorb stress

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96
Q

What are trabeculae?

A

Small needle-like or flat pieces of spongy bone

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97
Q

Diaphysis

A

The tubular shaft that forms the long axis of a long bone

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98
Q

Epiphysis

A

The ends of a long bone, consisting of an outer shell of compact bone and an interior of spongy bone

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99
Q

Periosteum

A

A double-layered membrane covering the external surface of bones, except at the joints

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100
Q

Endosteum

A

A delicate connective tissue membrane covering internal bone surfaces

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101
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Bone-forming cells that secrete the bone matrix

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102
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Giant multinucleate cells responsible for bone resorption

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103
Q

Osteon

A

The structural unit of compact bone, also known as the Haversian system

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104
Q

Lamellae

A

Layers of bone matrix in compact bone

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105
Q

Canaliculi

A

Hairlike canals that connect lacunae to each other and to the central canal

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106
Q

Trabeculae

A

The small, needle-like or flat pieces of spongy bone

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107
Q

What are the two types of ossification processes in bone development?

A

Intramembranous and endochondral ossification

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108
Q

What type of bone development involves replacing hyaline cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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109
Q

Which bones are primarily formed through intramembranous ossification?

A

Cranial bones and clavicles

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110
Q

At what stage of development does bone tissue begin to replace fibrous or cartilage structures?

A

Around week 8 of embryonic development

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111
Q

What is the primary function of the epiphyseal plate in long bones?

A

To allow for the lengthening of the bone

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112
Q

Which of the following structures consists of hyaline cartilage?

A

Epiphyseal plate

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113
Q

What happens to the chondrocytes in the hypertrophic zone of the epiphyseal plate?

A

They enlarge and their lacunae break down

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114
Q

What is the role of osteoclasts during the lengthening of a long bone?

A

To break down calcified spicules of cartilage

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115
Q

What type of bone growth occurs during infancy and youth?

A

Interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plate

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116
Q

Which hormone is the most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

A

Growth hormone

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117
Q

Ossification

A

The process of bone tissue formation

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118
Q

What type of tissue does intramembranous ossification begin with?

A

Fibrous connective tissue membranes

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119
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

A process where bone develops by replacing hyaline cartilage

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120
Q

What is the primary ossification center?

A

The region in the diaphysis where bone tissue begins to form during endochondral ossification

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121
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

A disc of hyaline cartilage that grows during childhood to lengthen the bone

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122
Q

What happens in the hypertrophic zone during the growth of long bones?

A

Older chondrocytes enlarge and their lacunae erode, leaving large interconnecting spaces

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123
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts in bone growth?

A

Osteoblasts secrete osteoid, which calcifies to form bone tissue

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124
Q

Periosteal bud

A

A collection of elements including a nutrient artery and vein, nerve fibers, red marrow elements, osteoprogenitor cells, and osteoclasts that invades the internal cavities during endochondral ossification

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125
Q

What remains in long bones after secondary ossification is complete?

A

Hyaline cartilage remains at the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages

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126
Q

What is the significance of the bone collar in endochondral ossification?

A

It stabilizes the hyaline cartilage model during the early stages of bone formation

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127
Q

Osteogenesis

A

Another term for the process of bone tissue formation

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128
Q

What is the primary function of osteoclasts in bone remodeling?

A

Bone resorption

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129
Q

Which cells are responsible for depositing new bone matrix?

A

Osteoblasts

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130
Q

What triggers the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A

Low blood calcium levels

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131
Q

What is the role of osteocytes in bone remodeling?

A

Sensing mechanical stress and signaling for bone remodeling

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132
Q

What is the effect of calcitonin on blood calcium levels?

A

Lowers blood calcium levels temporarily at high doses

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133
Q

What is Wolff’s law in the context of bone remodeling?

A

Bone grows or remodels in response to the demands placed on it

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134
Q

What happens to osteoclasts after they complete bone resorption?

A

They undergo apoptosis (cell death)

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135
Q

What is the main function of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in bone remodeling?

A

Stimulating osteoclast activity to release calcium into the blood

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136
Q

Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining calcium homeostasis in the blood?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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137
Q

What is the result of sustained high blood levels of calcium?

A

Formation of kidney stones and undesirable deposits of calcium salts in other organs

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138
Q

What is the primary function of osteoclasts in bone remodeling?

A

Osteoclasts break down bone matrix during bone resorption.

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139
Q

What is the role of osteoblasts in bone remodeling?

A

Osteoblasts deposit new bone matrix during bone deposition.

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140
Q

How often is spongy bone replaced in the human skeleton?

A

Every three to four years.

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141
Q

Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating blood calcium levels?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH).

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142
Q

What triggers the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A

A decline in blood calcium levels.

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143
Q

What is the effect of mechanical stress on bone remodeling?

A

Mechanical stress triggers bone remodeling to strengthen the bone where stress is applied.

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144
Q

What is the result of hypocalcemia on neuromuscular function?

A

Hypocalcemia causes hyperexcitability of nerves and muscles.

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145
Q

What happens to osteoclasts after they complete bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts undergo apoptosis (cell death).

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146
Q

Osteoid seam

A

An unmineralized band of gauzy-looking bone matrix where new bone formation begins.

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147
Q

Calcification front

A

The abrupt transition zone between the osteoid seam and the older mineralized bone.

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148
Q

Wolff’s law

A

The principle that a bone grows or remodels in response to the demands placed on it.

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149
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

A condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood, leading to nonresponsiveness and potential organ dysfunction.

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150
Q

What is the first step in the bone fracture repair process?

A

A hematoma forms

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151
Q

In fracture classification, what term describes a fracture where the bone ends retain their normal position?

A

Nondisplaced fracture

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152
Q

What type of fracture is common in children and involves the bone breaking incompletely?

A

Greenstick fracture

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153
Q

Which cells produce collagen fibers that span the break and connect the broken bone ends during fracture repair?

A

Fibroblasts

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154
Q

What is the final stage of bone fracture repair?

A

Bone remodeling occurs

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155
Q

What type of fracture involves the bone being crushed and is common in porous bones?

A

Compression fracture

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156
Q

What material initially connects the broken ends of bones together?

A

Collagen fibers

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157
Q

What is the term for a fracture where the bone ends penetrate the skin?

A

Open (compound) fracture

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158
Q

Which type of fracture is particularly common in the aged due to brittle bones?

A

Comminuted fracture

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159
Q

What type of fracture occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone?

A

Spiral fracture

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160
Q

What are the four major stages of bone fracture repair?

A

Hematoma formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, and bone remodeling.

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161
Q

Hematoma

A

A localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels, usually in liquid form within the tissue.

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162
Q

What type of fracture involves the bone ends retaining their normal position?

A

Nondisplaced fracture.

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163
Q

What is the term for a fracture where the bone ends penetrate the skin?

A

Open (compound) fracture.

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164
Q

Fibrocartilaginous callus

A

A temporary formation of fibroblasts and chondroblasts that forms at the site of a bone fracture as part of the healing process.

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165
Q

What type of fracture is common in children and involves the bone breaking incompletely?

A

Greenstick fracture.

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166
Q

What is the main difference between a complete and an incomplete fracture?

A

A complete fracture means the bone is broken through, while an incomplete fracture means the bone is not broken all the way through.

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167
Q

Bony callus

A

A hard callus formed by osteoblasts that replaces the fibrocartilaginous callus during bone healing.

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168
Q

What is the purpose of reduction in fracture treatment?

A

Reduction is the realignment of the broken bone ends.

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169
Q

What type of fracture is characterized by bone fragments into three or more pieces?

A

Comminuted fracture.

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170
Q

What is the childhood condition analogous to osteomalacia?

A

Rickets

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171
Q

What causes osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Insufficient calcium in the diet or a vitamin D deficiency

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172
Q

Which demographic is most commonly affected by osteoporosis?

A

Postmenopausal women

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173
Q

What characterizes osteoporosis?

A

Bone resorption outpaces bone deposit

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174
Q

Which of the following is a common risk factor for osteoporosis?

A

Decreased sex hormones

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175
Q

What is a characteristic feature of Paget’s disease?

A

Excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption

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176
Q

Which bones are most commonly affected by Paget’s disease?

A

Spine, pelvis, femur, and skull

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177
Q

What is a common treatment for osteoporosis?

A

Weight-bearing exercise and adequate calcium and vitamin D intake

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178
Q

What is a potential trigger for Paget’s disease?

A

A viral infection

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179
Q

What is the primary cause of osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Insufficient calcium in the diet or a vitamin D deficiency.

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180
Q

Osteomalacia

A

A disorder where bones are poorly mineralized, making them soft and weak, often due to insufficient calcium or vitamin D.

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181
Q

What is a common symptom of osteomalacia?

A

Pain when weight is put on the affected bones.

182
Q

Rickets

A

A childhood disease analogous to osteomalacia, characterized by bowed legs and deformities of the pelvis, skull, and rib cage.

183
Q

What is the main difference between osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Osteomalacia occurs in adults, while rickets occurs in children and is more severe.

184
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A group of diseases where bone resorption outpaces bone deposit, leading to porous and fragile bones.

185
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition characterized by decreased bone mass and increased fragility, often affecting postmenopausal women.

186
Q

What are common fracture sites in individuals with osteoporosis?

A

Compression fractures of the vertebrae and fractures of the neck of the femur.

187
Q

What factors can contribute to osteoporosis?

A

Decreased sex hormones, insufficient bone stress, poor diet, smoking, genetics, hormone-related conditions, alcohol, and certain medications.

188
Q

Paget’s Disease

A

A disorder characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption, leading to weakened and deformed bones.

189
Q

What is a characteristic feature of Paget’s disease?

A

The formation of pagetic bone, which is hastily made and has an abnormally high ratio of spongy bone to compact bone.

190
Q

What are common sites affected by Paget’s disease?

A

The spine, pelvis, femur, and skull.

191
Q

Which germ layer gives rise to embryonic mesenchymal cells?

A

Mesoderm

192
Q

By what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?

A

25

193
Q

At what stage of life does bone formation exceed bone resorption?

A

Childhood and adolescence

194
Q

Which bones are exceptions to age-related bone mass decrease?

A

Skull bones

195
Q

What factor plays the major role in determining bone density changes over a lifetime?

A

Genetics

196
Q

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the growth spurt during adolescence?

A

Sex hormones

197
Q

Which bones begin ossifying by 8 weeks after conception?

A

Most long bones

198
Q

What is a common consequence of diminished blood supply to bones in old age?

A

Fractures heal more slowly

199
Q

What germ layer gives rise to embryonic mesenchymal cells?

A

Mesoderm

200
Q

By what week after conception do most long bones begin ossifying?

A

8 weeks

201
Q

At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified?

A

By age 25

202
Q

What process predominates in old age: bone formation or bone resorption?

A

Bone resorption

203
Q

Which gene helps determine the tendency to accumulate bone mass and risk of osteoporosis?

A

The gene that codes for vitamin D’s cellular docking site

204
Q

Primary ossification centers

A

Areas in the fetus where bone formation begins, typically well-developed by 12 weeks

205
Q

Epiphyseal plates

A

Growth plates in long bones that allow for bone growth during childhood and adolescence

206
Q

What happens to bone mass beginning in the fourth decade of life?

A

Bone mass decreases with age

207
Q

Which bones are an exception to age-related bone mass decrease?

A

Bones of the skull

208
Q

Secondary ossification centers

A

Areas where bone formation continues after birth, allowing for the growth of long bones

209
Q

What vitamin does the skin provide that is necessary for proper calcium absorption?

A

Vitamin D

210
Q

How does muscle activity affect bones?

A

Increases bone strength and viability

211
Q

What does the skeletal system protect in the nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

212
Q

Which system’s hormones regulate the uptake and release of calcium from bones?

A

Endocrine system

213
Q

Where does blood cell formation occur in the skeletal system?

A

Bone marrow cavities

214
Q

What is the role of the skeletal system in the lymphatic system?

A

Provides protection to lymphatic organs

215
Q

How does the respiratory system support the skeletal system?

A

Provides oxygen and disposes of carbon dioxide

216
Q

What do gonads produce that influence the form of the skeleton?

A

Hormones

217
Q

How does the skeletal system support the integumentary system?

A

It provides support for body organs including the skin.

218
Q

What role does the skin play in relation to the skeletal system?

A

The skin provides vitamin D needed for proper calcium absorption and use.

219
Q

How does the skeletal system contribute to muscle activity?

A

It provides levers and ionic calcium for muscle activity.

220
Q

What effect does muscle activity have on bones?

A

Muscle pull on bones increases bone strength and viability; helps determine bone shape.

221
Q

How does the skeletal system protect the nervous system?

A

It protects the brain and spinal cord and provides a depot for calcium ions needed for neural function.

222
Q

What is the role of nerves in the skeletal system?

A

Nerves innervate bone and joint capsules, providing for pain and joint sense.

223
Q

How does the endocrine system interact with the skeletal system?

A

Hormones regulate uptake and release of calcium from bone; promote long bone growth and maturation.

224
Q

What is the function of bone marrow cavities in relation to the cardiovascular system?

A

They provide a site for blood cell formation.

225
Q

How does the skeletal system support the lymphatic system?

A

It provides some protection to lymphatic organs and is the site of origin for lymphocytes involved in immune response.

226
Q

What role does the respiratory system play in relation to the skeletal system?

A

It provides oxygen and disposes of carbon dioxide.

227
Q

How does the skeletal system protect the digestive system?

A

It provides some bony protection to intestines, pelvic organs, and liver.

228
Q

What is the role of the kidneys in relation to the skeletal system?

A

They activate vitamin D and dispose of nitrogenous wastes.

229
Q

How do gonads influence the skeletal system?

A

They produce hormones that influence the form of the skeleton and epiphyseal closure.

230
Q

Homeostasis

A

The maintenance of a stable internal environment within an organism.

231
Q

Vitamin D

A

A nutrient that is essential for calcium absorption and bone health.

232
Q

Bone Marrow

A

The soft tissue inside bones where blood cells are produced.

233
Q

Lymphocytes

A

A type of white blood cell that is part of the immune system.

234
Q

Epiphyseal Closure

A

The process by which the growth plate in long bones hardens and stops producing new bone.

235
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

A congenital condition involving defective cartilage and endochondral bone growth, resulting in short limbs but normal-sized membrane bones.

236
Q

What is a bony spur?

A

An abnormal projection from a bone due to bony overgrowth.

237
Q

What does ostealgia refer to?

A

Pain in a bone.

238
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta also known as?

A

Brittle bone disease.

239
Q

What causes osteomyelitis?

A

Pus-forming bacteria that enter the body via a wound or spread from an infection near the bone.

240
Q

What is the primary treatment for osteomyelitis?

A

Antibiotics, draining abscesses, and removing dead bone fragments.

241
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by osteosarcoma?

A

10–25 years of age.

242
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

A fracture in a diseased bone involving slight or no physical trauma.

243
Q

What is the purpose of traction in treating fractures?

A

To keep the parts of a fractured bone in proper alignment and prevent muscle spasms.

244
Q

Achondroplasia

A

A congenital condition involving defective cartilage and endochondral bone growth, resulting in short limbs but normal-sized membrane bones; a type of dwarfism.

245
Q

What is a bony spur?

A

An abnormal projection from a bone due to bony overgrowth, common in aging bones.

246
Q

Ostealgia

A

Pain in a bone.

247
Q

Osteitis

A

Inflammation of bony tissue.

248
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Also called brittle bone disease, a disorder where the bone matrix contains inadequate collagen, making bones prone to shattering.

249
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

A form of bone cancer typically arising in a long bone of a limb, most often in individuals aged 10–25, which grows aggressively and tends to metastasize to the lungs.

250
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

A fracture in a diseased bone that occurs with slight or no physical trauma, such as a hip bone weakened by osteoporosis breaking and causing a fall.

251
Q

Traction

A

Placing sustained tension on a body region to keep fractured bone parts in proper alignment and prevent muscle spasms.

252
Q

What type of cartilage is the most abundant in the skeletal system?

A

Hyaline cartilage

253
Q

Which type of cartilage contains abundant elastic fibers and supports the outer ear?

A

Elastic cartilage

254
Q

What is the primary function of fibrocartilage?

A

Resisting compression and stretching

255
Q

What are the two types of cartilage growth?

A

Interstitial and appositional growth

256
Q

How are bones classified based on their shape?

A

Long, short, flat, irregular

257
Q

What type of bone tissue is found in the diaphysis of a long bone?

A

Compact bone

258
Q

Which cells are responsible for bone resorption?

A

Osteoclasts

259
Q

What is the main inorganic component of bone matrix?

A

Hydroxyapatites (calcium salts)

260
Q

Which process forms most of the bones in the body?

A

Endochondral ossification

261
Q

What hormone is released when blood calcium levels decline?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

262
Q

What is the sequence of bone repair after a fracture?

A

Hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus, bony callus, remodeling

263
Q

What condition is characterized by excessive and abnormal bone remodeling?

A

Paget’s disease

264
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A

A type of cartilage that appears glassy and contains collagen fibers, providing support with flexibility and resilience. It is the most abundant skeletal cartilage.

265
Q

What type of cartilage supports the outer ear and epiglottis?

A

Elastic cartilage

266
Q

Fibrocartilage

A

A type of cartilage that contains thick collagen fibers, is highly compressible, and resists stretching. It forms intervertebral discs and knee joint cartilages.

267
Q

What are the two methods of cartilage growth?

A

Interstitial growth and appositional growth

268
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Cells that synthesize bone matrix and are responsible for bone formation.

269
Q

What is the main function of osteoclasts?

A

Bone resorption (breaking down bone tissue)

270
Q

Osteon

A

The structural unit of compact bone, consisting of a central canal surrounded by concentric lamellae of bone matrix.

271
Q

What is the role of the periosteum in bone structure?

A

It covers the diaphysis (shaft) of long bones and contains cells that contribute to bone growth and repair.

272
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

The process by which bone forms directly from mesenchymal tissue, primarily forming the clavicles and most skull bones.

273
Q

Osteoporosis

A

A condition where bone resorption outpaces bone formation, leading to weak and porous bones.

274
Q

What is the primary cause of osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Inadequate mineralization of bones, often due to insufficient vitamin D.

275
Q

Bone remodeling

A

The continuous process of bone deposition and resorption in response to hormonal and mechanical stimuli.

276
Q

What is the function of red marrow in adults?

A

It is the site of hematopoiesis (blood cell production) and is found within the spongy bone of flat bones and occasionally within the epiphyses of long bones.

277
Q

What type of fracture does Liliana have?

A

Open fracture

278
Q

When assessing Liliana’s condition relative to her tibia fracture after the open reduction, the nurse will be especially alert for signs of which of these problems?

A

Infection

279
Q

Which of the following statements about Liliana’s condition are correct?

A

Her leg will not heal to its normal length if the epiphyses have been damaged.

280
Q

Which of Liliana’s statements indicates the need for further patient education?

A

The only supplement I should need would be calcium, so I will take a calcium supplement every morning.

281
Q

How likely is it that Liliana’s knee cartilage will regenerate?

A

Unlikely, because cartilage has limited ability to regenerate.

282
Q

What type of fracture does Liliana have?

A

A fracture of the superior right tibia with a 3.5-cm laceration where the bone protrudes.

283
Q

After the open reduction of Liliana’s tibia fracture, what problem should the nurse be especially alert for?

A

Infection

284
Q

What might prevent Liliana’s leg from healing to its normal length?

A

Damage to the epiphyses.

285
Q

Which cells are involved in Liliana’s leg healing?

A

Osteoclasts and osteoblasts.

286
Q

What is the role of the periosteum in bone healing?

A

The periosteum is crucial for bone healing; damage to it can affect the healing process.

287
Q

Approximately how long should it take for bone to heal given an uncomplicated recovery?

A

It typically takes about 6-8 weeks for a bone to heal.

288
Q

What complications might arise from the damage to the nutrient artery in tibia?

A

Potential complications include delayed healing or nonunion of the fracture.

289
Q

How likely is it that knee cartilage will regenerate?

A

Cartilage has limited regenerative capacity, so it is unlikely to fully regenerate.

290
Q

Open Reduction

A

A surgical procedure to realign broken bones.

291
Q

Nutrient Artery

A

An artery that supplies blood to the bones.

292
Q

Medial Meniscus

A

A fibrocartilage disc in the knee joint that acts as a cushion.

293
Q

Osteoid

A

Unmineralized bone matrix.

294
Q

Medullary cavity

A

Central cavity of a long bone. Contains yellow or red (bone) marrow.

295
Q

Osteocytes

A

Mature bone cell.

296
Q

Perichondrium

A

Fibrous, connective-tissue membrane covering the external surface of cartilaginous structures.

297
Q

Spongy bone

A

Internal layer of skeletal bone. Also called trabecular bone.

298
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Growth of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells; differs from hyperplasia (an increase in size due to increased cell numbers).

299
Q

Osteon

A

System of interconnecting canals in the microscopic structure of adult compact bone; unit of bone; also called Haversian system.

300
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Bone-forming cells.

301
Q

Trabeculae

A

(1) Any of the fibrous bands extending from the capsule into the interior of an organ; (2) strut or thin plate of bone in spongy bone.

302
Q

Diploë

A

The internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones.

303
Q

Appositional growth

A

Growth accomplished by the addition of new layers onto those previously formed.

304
Q

Perforating canals

A

Canals that run at right angles to the long axis of the bone, connecting the vascular and nerve supplies of the periosteum to those of the central canals and medullary cavity; also called Volkmann’s canals.

305
Q

Ossification

A

The process of bone formation; also called Osteogenesis.

306
Q

Endosteum

A

Connective tissue membrane covering internal bone surfaces.

307
Q

Fractures

A

A break in a bone.

308
Q

Paget’s disease

A

Disorder characterized by excessive bone breakdown and abnormal bone formation.

309
Q

Periosteum

A

Double-layered connective tissue that covers and nourishes the bone.

310
Q

Hematoma

A

Mass of clotted blood that forms at an injured site.

311
Q

Lamella

A

A layer, such as of bone matrix in an osteon of compact bone.

312
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Decreased density and strength of bone resulting from a gradual decrease in rate of bone formation.

313
Q

Interstitial lamellae

A

Incomplete lamellae that lie between intact osteons, filling the gaps between forming osteons, or representing the remnants of an osteon that has been cut through by bone remodeling.

314
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

Hormone released by the parathyroid glands that regulates blood calcium level.

315
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Blood cell formation; hemopoiesis.

316
Q

Fiber

A

A slender threadlike structure or filament. May refer to a cell, part of a cell, or a protein. See also A muscle cell, Axon of a neuron, The most abundant of the three types of protein fibers found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue.

317
Q

Foramen

A

Hole or opening in a bone or between body cavities.

318
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

Embryonic formation of bone by the replacement of calcified cartilage; most skeletal bones are formed by this process.

319
Q

Calcitonin

A

Hormone released by the thyroid. Lowers blood calcium levels only when present at high (therapeutic) levels.

320
Q

Bone resorption

A

The removal of osseous tissue; part of the continuous bone remodeling process.

321
Q

Reduction

A

Chemical reaction in which electrons and energy are gained by a molecule (often accompanied by gain of hydrogen ions) or oxygen is lost.

322
Q

Bone remodeling

A

Process involving bone formation and destruction in response to hormonal and mechanical factors.

323
Q

Sesamoid bones

A

Short bones embedded in tendons, variable in size and number, many of which influence the action of muscles; largest is the patella (kneecap).

324
Q

Epiphyses

A

The end of a long bone, attached to the shaft.

325
Q

Central canal (Haversian)

A

The canal in the center of each osteon that contains minute blood vessels and nerve fibers that serve the needs of the osteocytes

326
Q

Diaphysis

A

Elongated shaft of a long bone.

327
Q

Haversian system

A

System of interconnecting canals in the microscopic structure of adult compact bone; unit of bone; also called Haversian system.

328
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Plate of hyaline cartilage at the junction of the diaphysis and epiphysis that provides for growth in length of a long bone.

329
Q

Osteomalacia

A

Disorder in which bones are inadequately mineralized; soft bones.

330
Q

Osteogenesis

A

The process of bone formation; also called ossification.

331
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Large cells that resorb or break down bone matrix.

332
Q

Lacunae

A

A small space, cavity, or depression; lacunae in bone or cartilage are occupied by cells.

333
Q

Endochondral bone

A

Bone formed by using hyaline cartilage structures as models for ossification.

334
Q

What is a key functional property of cartilage tissue?

A

It is very resilient and can return to its original shape after being compressed.

335
Q

Why does cartilage not contain blood vessels?

A

To maintain a high water content and resilience without the need for direct blood supply.

336
Q

How do cartilage cells receive nutrients?

A

Through diffusion from blood vessels in the surrounding perichondrium.

337
Q

Which type of cartilage is most abundant in the skeletal system?

A

Hyaline cartilage

338
Q

Where would you typically find fibrocartilage?

A

In the knee menisci and between vertebrae.

339
Q

What distinguishes elastic cartilage from hyaline cartilage?

A

Elastic cartilage contains more stretchy elastic fibers.

340
Q

How does appositional growth occur in cartilage?

A

Cartilage-forming cells in the perichondrium secrete new matrix against the existing cartilage.

341
Q

What is a characteristic of interstitial growth in cartilage?

A

It involves the division of chondrocytes within the cartilage, expanding it from within.

342
Q

When does cartilage typically stop growing?

A

During adolescence, when the skeleton stops growing.

343
Q

What is a key difference between cartilage and bone?

A

Cartilage is surrounded by the perichondrium, while bone is surrounded by the periosteum.

344
Q

Which cells are found in the lacunae of cartilage?

A

Chondrocytes

345
Q

How does the extracellular matrix of bone compare to that of cartilage?

A

The matrix of bone is rigid due to inorganic calcium salts.

346
Q

Which of the following best describes the support function of bones?

A

Bones provide a framework that supports the body and cradles its soft organs.

347
Q

How do bones protect vital organs in the human body?

A

The fused bones of the skull protect the brain.

348
Q

What role do bones play in movement?

A

Bones serve as points of attachment for muscles, allowing for the movement of the body.

349
Q

Which minerals are primarily stored in the bones?

A

Calcium and phosphate.

350
Q

Where does most blood cell formation occur in the human body?

A

In the red marrow of certain bones.

351
Q

What is the primary function of yellow marrow found in the cavities of long bones?

A

To store fat as a source of energy for the body.

352
Q

Which hormone is produced by bones and helps to regulate insulin secretion, glucose homeostasis, and energy expenditure?

A

Osteocalcin.

353
Q

Which part of the human skeleton is primarily responsible for protection, support, and carrying other body parts?

A

Axial skeleton

354
Q

The appendicular skeleton is essential for:

A

Locomotion and manipulation of the environment

355
Q

What does the axial skeleton include?

A

Skull, vertebral column, and rib cage

356
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of long bones?

A

They have a shaft and two expanded ends

357
Q

Sesamoid bones, like the patella, are classified as:

A

A special type of short bone

358
Q

Which type of bone is typically involved in protecting internal organs?

A

Flat bones

359
Q

The bones that make up the wrist and ankle are classified as:

A

Short bones

360
Q

An example of an irregular bone is:

A

The vertebrae

361
Q

Why are long bones such as the femur designed to be hollow?

A

To provide maximum strength with minimum weight

362
Q

Flat bones like the scapulae are important for:

A

Protection of internal organs and providing large areas for muscle attachment

363
Q

What is the primary structural difference between compact and spongy bone?

A

Compact bone forms the dense outer layer of bones, while spongy bone is found internally and has a honeycomb structure.

364
Q

Which of the following best describes the location of red and yellow marrow in adult bones?

A

Yellow marrow is found in the medullary cavity of long bones, while red marrow is located in the trabeculae of spongy bones in certain bones like the sternum and hip bones.

365
Q

What is the function of articular cartilage in long bones?

A

To cushion the opposing bone ends during movement and absorb stress.

366
Q

What is the significance of bone markings on the external surface of bones?

A

They provide information about the attachment of muscles and ligaments, and the formation of joints.

367
Q

Which category of bone markings includes surfaces that form joints?

A

Surfaces that form joints.

368
Q

What is the role of osteocytes in bone tissue?

A

To monitor and maintain the bone matrix and act as stress or strain sensors.

369
Q

Which cells are responsible for forming new bone tissue?

A

Osteoblasts.

370
Q

How do nutrients reach the osteocytes in compact bone?

A

Through the central canal in each osteon.

371
Q

What is the primary organic component of the bone matrix that contributes to bone’s flexibility and tensile strength?

A

Osteoid, including collagen fibers.

372
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of the inorganic components in bone?

A

They contribute to bone’s hardness and its ability to resist compression.

373
Q

How does the structure of bone contribute to its strength?

A

The organic components allow it to resist tension, while the inorganic components allow it to resist compression.

374
Q

Which of the following best describes intramembranous ossification?

A

A bone develops from a fibrous membrane.

375
Q

Endochondral ossification is primarily responsible for the formation of which type of bones?

A

Long bones below the base of the skull, excluding the clavicles.

376
Q

What initiates the process of ossification in intramembranous ossification?

A

Mesenchymal cells specializing into osteoblasts.

377
Q

During endochondral ossification, what is the significance of the bone collar forming around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model?

A

It marks the beginning of the primary ossification center.

378
Q

In the process of endochondral ossification, what happens after the cartilage calcifies and develops cavities?

A

The periosteal bud invades, bringing in elements to form spongy bone.

379
Q

What role do osteoclasts play in the formation of the medullary cavity during endochondral ossification?

A

They break down newly formed spongy bone to open up the cavity.

380
Q

How do long bones grow in length?

A

By interstitial growth of the epiphyseal plate cartilage.

381
Q

What is the role of the epiphyseal plate in the longitudinal growth of long bones?

A

It maintains a constant thickness while allowing the bone to lengthen.

382
Q

Which hormone is most important for stimulating epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood?

A

Growth hormone.

383
Q

What effect do sex hormones have on bone growth during puberty?

A

They induce epiphyseal closure, ending longitudinal bone growth.

384
Q

How do bones grow in width (thickness)?

A

By appositional growth, with osteoblasts adding bone matrix externally.

385
Q

What is the outcome of hormonal imbalances on bone growth, such as an excess of growth hormone in children?

A

It results in excessive height, known as gigantism.

386
Q

What is the primary location where bone is deposited and removed in the adult skeleton?

A

At the endosteal surface

387
Q

Which cells are responsible for bone resorption by breaking down the bone matrix?

A

Osteoclasts

388
Q

What initiates the calcification of the newly deposited osteoid during bone deposition?

A

The release of matrix vesicles containing alkaline phosphatase by osteoblasts

389
Q

How does parathyroid hormone (PTH) primarily affect bone remodeling?

A

By indirectly stimulating osteoclasts to resorb bone

390
Q

Which hormone is thought to have a negligible effect on calcium homeostasis in humans under normal conditions?

A

Calcitonin

391
Q

What is the primary role of mechanical stress in bone remodeling?

A

To direct remodeling where it strengthens the bone

392
Q

What is the main purpose of maintaining calcium homeostasis in the blood through bone remodeling?

A

To ensure proper muscle contraction and nerve function

393
Q

According to Wolff’s law, how does the anatomy of a bone reflect its function?

A

Bones grow or remodel in response to the stresses placed on them

394
Q

What is the outcome when the balance between bone deposit and resorption is lost?

A

It can lead to bone diseases due to imbalance

395
Q

Which of the following best describes a nondisplaced fracture?

A

The bone ends retain their normal position.

396
Q

What characterizes a complete fracture?

A

The bone is broken through.

397
Q

An open (compound) fracture is distinguished by which of the following?

A

The bone ends penetrate the skin.

398
Q

What is the first step in treating a fracture?

A

Reduction, the realignment of the broken bone ends.

399
Q

Which method involves the surgical securing of bone ends with screws and plates?

A

Open (internal) reduction.

400
Q

How long does it typically take for a simple fracture of small or medium-sized bones in young adults to heal?

A

Six to eight weeks.

401
Q

What occurs immediately after a bone breaks?

A

A hematoma forms.

402
Q

During the second step of bone repair, what type of callus forms?

A

Fibrocartilaginous callus.

403
Q

What role do osteoblasts play in bone repair?

A

They begin forming spongy bone within the repair tissue.

404
Q

In the final stage of bone repair, what process occurs?

A

Bone remodeling.

405
Q

Which treatment has been suggested to potentially hasten the repair and healing of fractures?

A

Daily ultrasound treatments or electrical stimulation of fracture sites.

406
Q

What is a common symptom of osteomalacia?

A

Pain when weight is put on the affected bones

407
Q

Rickets is most analogous to which condition in adults?

A

Osteomalacia

408
Q

What are common causes of osteomalacia and rickets?

A

Insufficient calcium in the diet or vitamin D deficiency

409
Q

Which group is most often affected by osteoporosis?

A

Postmenopausal women

410
Q

What are common risk factors for developing osteoporosis?

A

Decreased sex hormones and insufficient bone stress

411
Q

Which parts of the skeleton are most often involved in Paget’s disease?

A

Spine, pelvis, femur, and skull

412
Q

What is a common treatment for Paget’s disease?

A

Bisphosphonates and calcitonin

413
Q

How can osteoporosis be prevented or delayed?

A

Minimizing controllable risk factors like diet and exercise

414
Q

Which category of drugs is used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclasts?

A

Bisphosphonates

415
Q

What is a recommended lifestyle change for preventing bone disorders like osteomalacia?

A

Increasing vitamin D intake and sunlight exposure

416
Q

At what stage of development do most long bones begin ossifying?

A

8 weeks after conception

417
Q

What is the primary role of the epiphyseal plates in bone development?

A

To provide for long bone growth during childhood and adolescence

418
Q

By what age are nearly all bones in the human body completely ossified, marking the cessation of skeletal growth?

A

25 years

419
Q

In which age group does bone formation exceed bone resorption?

A

Children and adolescents

420
Q

Which factor plays the major role in determining a person’s bone density changes over a lifetime?

A

Genetics

421
Q

What is the trend in bone mass as individuals enter their fourth decade of life?

A

Bone mass decreases

422
Q

Which demographic is generally known to experience faster age-related bone loss?

A

White females

423
Q

What qualitative change occurs in bones as people age?

A

More osteons remain incompletely formed, and mineralization is less complete

424
Q

Why do fractures heal more slowly in older adults?

A

Because of a diminished blood supply to the bones

425
Q

What is a characteristic feature of achondroplasia?

A

Short limbs with normal-sized membrane bones

426
Q

Achondroplasia results from which of the following?

A

Defective cartilage and endochondral bone growth

427
Q

What is a bony spur?

A

An abnormal projection from a bone due to overgrowth

428
Q

Bony spurs are most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

A

Aging bones

429
Q

What does ostealgia refer to?

A

Pain in a bone

430
Q

Osteitis is characterized by:

A

Inflammation of bony tissue

431
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta puts bones at risk for:

A

Shattering due to inadequate collagen

432
Q

Osteomyelitis is primarily caused by:

A

Pus-forming bacteria entering through a wound

433
Q

A common treatment for osteomyelitis includes:

A

Antibiotics and draining abscesses

434
Q

Osteosarcoma is a form of:

A

Bone cancer

435
Q

The survival rate for osteosarcoma, if detected early, is approximately:

A

50%

436
Q

A pathologic fracture occurs due to:

A

Disease weakening the bone, leading to fracture with minimal trauma

437
Q

The purpose of traction in medical treatment is to:

A

Keep parts of a fractured bone in proper alignment

438
Q

What is the primary function of the large amounts of water found in the extracellular matrix of skeletal cartilage?

A

To provide resilience

439
Q

Which type of skeletal cartilage is characterized by its glassy appearance and collagenous fibers?

A

Hyaline cartilage

440
Q

Fibrocartilages are best suited for which of the following functions?

A

Resisting stretching and being highly compressible

441
Q

How does interstitial growth contribute to the growth of cartilage?

A

By growing from within the cartilage

442
Q

Appositional growth of cartilage involves which of the following processes?

A

The addition of new cartilage tissue at the periphery

443
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of bones?

A

To conduct nerve impulses

444
Q

Bones that are classified as “flat” are primarily characterized by:

A

Two thin plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone

445
Q

The axial and appendicular classifications of bones are based on:

A

Their location in the body

446
Q

What triggers the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) during bone remodeling?

A

A decline in blood calcium levels

447
Q

The initial step in the bone healing process after a fracture is:

A

Formation of a hematoma

448
Q

Which condition is characterized by excessive and abnormal bone remodeling?

A

Paget’s disease

449
Q

Intramembranous ossification is responsible for forming:

A

Most of the skull bones and clavicles

450
Q

Osteoporosis is a condition in which:

A

Bone breakdown outpaces bone formation, leading to weak and porous bones

451
Q

A key factor in the development of osteomalacia and rickets is:

A

Inadequate vitamin D

Human Anatomy & Physiology 1 (Marieb) (10 decks)

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