Ch. 5 The Integumentary System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

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2
Q

Which pigments contribute to skin color?

A

Melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin

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3
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis?

A

Papillary dermis and reticular dermis

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4
Q

What are nails primarily composed of?

A

Keratin

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5
Q

What is the primary function of sweat glands?

A

Help control body temperature

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6
Q

Which glands secrete sebum?

A

Sebaceous glands

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7
Q

Which type of cells make up hair?

A

Dead, keratinized cells

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8
Q

What are the functions of the skin?

A

Barrier, temperature regulation, sensation, excretion, and vitamin D synthesis

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9
Q

Integumentary System

A

The system consisting of the skin and its appendages (sweat and oil glands, hairs, and nails) that serves several protective functions.

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10
Q

What are the major layers of the epidermis?

A

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum

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11
Q

What factors determine skin color?

A

Melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin

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12
Q

Arrector Pili Muscle

A

A small muscle attached to hair follicles that causes hair to stand up (goosebumps) when contracted.

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13
Q

What are nails composed of?

A

Scale-like modifications of the epidermis

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14
Q

What is the function of sweat glands?

A

Help control body temperature

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15
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

Secrete sebum

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16
Q

What are the three major types of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma

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17
Q

Why are serious burns life-threatening?

A

They can lead to severe fluid loss, infection, and shock.

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18
Q

Eccrine Glands

A

Sweat glands that are found all over the body and are important for regulating body temperature.

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19
Q

Apocrine Glands

A

Sweat glands found in specific areas such as the armpits and groin, which become active during puberty.

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20
Q

What are the two layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

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21
Q

Which layer of the skin is composed mostly of dense connective tissue?

A

Dermis

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22
Q

What is another name for the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Hypodermis

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23
Q

What type of tissue primarily makes up the subcutaneous layer?

A

Adipose tissue

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24
Q

What is the primary function of the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Acts as a shock absorber and insulator

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25
Q

What is the outermost protective shield of the body called?

A

The epidermis

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26
Q

Which layer of the skin makes up the bulk of it and is composed mostly of dense connective tissue?

A

The dermis

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27
Q

How do nutrients reach the epidermis?

A

By diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis

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28
Q

What is another name for the subcutaneous tissue?

A

The hypodermis or the superficial fascia

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29
Q

What are the main components of the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Mostly adipose tissue with some areolar connective tissue

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30
Q

What are the functions of the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Storing fat, anchoring the skin to underlying structures, acting as a shock absorber, and reducing heat loss

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31
Q

Epidermis

A

The outermost protective shield of the body, composed of epithelial cells

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32
Q

Dermis

A

The tough, leathery layer of the skin composed mostly of dense connective tissue

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33
Q

Subcutaneous tissue

A

A layer of tissue lying just deep to the skin, consisting mostly of adipose tissue with some areolar connective tissue, and serving protective functions

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34
Q

What type of tissue composes the epidermis?

A

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

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35
Q

Which cell type in the epidermis produces keratin?

A

Keratinocytes

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36
Q

What is the primary function of melanocytes in the epidermis?

A

To synthesize the pigment melanin

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37
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is the deepest?

A

Stratum basale

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38
Q

Which cell type found in the epidermis is associated with immune system defenses?

A

Dendritic cells

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39
Q

What is the function of tactile epithelial cells in the epidermis?

A

To act as sensory receptors for touch

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40
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains several layers of keratinocytes unified by desmosomes?

A

Stratum spinosum

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41
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is only found in thick skin?

A

Stratum lucidum

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42
Q

What is the primary function of the stratum corneum?

A

To protect the skin against abrasion and penetration

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43
Q

What is the primary function of keratinocytes?

A

To produce keratin, a fibrous protein that gives the epidermis its protective properties

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44
Q

What is the role of melanocytes in the epidermis?

A

To synthesize the pigment melanin, which protects the nucleus from UV radiation

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45
Q

Which cell type in the epidermis is associated with the immune system?

A

Dendritic cells (Langerhans cells)

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46
Q

What is the function of tactile epithelial cells?

A

They function as sensory receptors for touch

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47
Q

How many layers are present in thick skin?

A

Five layers: stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum

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48
Q

Stratum corneum

A

The outermost layer of the epidermis, consisting of 20 to 30 layers of dead, keratin-filled cells

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49
Q

Stratum granulosum

A

A layer of the epidermis consisting of one to five layers of flattened cells where keratinization begins

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50
Q

Stratum spinosum

A

A layer of the epidermis several cells thick, containing keratinocytes unified by desmosomes and dendritic cells

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51
Q

Stratum basale

A

The deepest layer of the epidermis, consisting of a single row of stem cells that are actively mitotic

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52
Q

Melanocytes

A

Spider-shaped epithelial cells in the deepest layer of the epidermis that synthesize the pigment melanin

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53
Q

Dendritic cells

A

Star-shaped cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis, playing a key role in immune defense

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54
Q

Tactile epithelial cells

A

Cells present at the epidermal-dermal junction that function as sensory receptors for touch

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55
Q

What type of tissue composes the dermis?

A

Connective tissue

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56
Q

Which cells are typically found in the dermis?

A

Fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and white blood cells

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57
Q

What is the primary function of the papillary dermis?

A

Allows phagocytes and other defensive cells to patrol for bacteria

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58
Q

What structures are found in the dermal papillae?

A

Capillary loops, free nerve endings, and tactile corpuscles

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59
Q

What is the primary function of friction ridges on the skin?

A

Enhance our ability to grip surfaces and contribute to our sense of touch

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60
Q

What type of connective tissue is the reticular dermis primarily composed of?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

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61
Q

What is the significance of cleavage lines in the reticular dermis?

A

Surgical incisions parallel to cleavage lines heal better

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62
Q

What causes the formation of flexure lines on the skin?

A

Dermal folds that occur at or near joints

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63
Q

What are the two major layers of the dermis?

A

Papillary dermis and reticular dermis

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64
Q

What type of tissue composes the papillary dermis?

A

Areolar connective tissue

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65
Q

What is the main function of the reticular dermis?

A

Providing strength and resiliency to the skin

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66
Q

What type of connective tissue is found in the reticular dermis?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

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67
Q

What are cleavage lines and why are they important in surgery?

A

Cleavage lines are separations between collagen fiber bundles in the reticular dermis. Surgical incisions parallel to these lines heal better.

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68
Q

What causes the formation of flexure lines?

A

The dermis is tightly secured to deeper structures, causing folds where the skin cannot slide easily.

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69
Q

Dermal Papillae

A

Peglike projections from the surface of the papillary dermis that indent the overlying epidermis.

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70
Q

Friction Ridges

A

Skin ridges formed by dermal ridges, enhancing grip and contributing to the sense of touch.

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71
Q

Striae

A

Silvery white scars caused by extreme stretching of the skin, commonly known as stretch marks.

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72
Q

What amino acid is melanin made from?

A

Tyrosine

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73
Q

Which enzyme is essential for melanin synthesis?

A

Tyrosinase

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74
Q

What pigment is responsible for the pinkish hue of fair skin?

A

Hemoglobin

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75
Q

Where does carotene tend to accumulate in the body?

A

Stratum corneum and subcutaneous fat

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76
Q

What skin condition is characterized by a yellow discoloration due to liver dysfunction?

A

Jaundice

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77
Q

What causes the skin to darken visibly when exposed to sunlight?

A

Melanin buildup

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78
Q

What is the main function of melanin in the skin?

A

Protecting DNA from UV radiation

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79
Q

What skin condition can indicate respiratory or cardiovascular problems?

A

Cyanosis

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80
Q

What pigment can be converted to vitamin A in the body?

A

Carotene

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81
Q

What are the three main pigments that determine skin color?

A

Melanin, carotene, and hemoglobin

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82
Q

Where is melanin pigment found in the skin?

A

In the deeper layers of the epidermis

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83
Q

Why do populations near the equator tend to have darker skin?

A

Greater protection from the sun is needed

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84
Q

What causes freckles and pigmented moles?

A

Local accumulations of melanin

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85
Q

What happens to melanin production when skin is exposed to sunlight?

A

Keratinocytes secrete chemicals that stimulate melanocytes, causing melanin buildup

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86
Q

What pigment gives fair skin its pinkish hue?

A

Hemoglobin

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87
Q

What is cyanosis and what can it indicate?

A

A bluish-gray tint of the skin indicating poorly oxygenated hemoglobin, possibly due to respiratory or cardiovascular problems

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88
Q

What skin color change can indicate liver dysfunction?

A

Yellowness or jaundice

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89
Q

What are ecchymoses and why are they significant in forensic medicine?

A

Bruises caused by damaged blood vessels leaking blood, significant due to their size, color, and shape

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90
Q

Melanin

A

A polymer made of tyrosine that ranges in color from reddish yellow to brownish black and determines skin color

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91
Q

Carotene

A

A yellow to orange pigment found in certain plant products that accumulates in the stratum corneum and subcutaneous fat

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92
Q

Hemoglobin

A

A crimson-colored oxygenated pigment in red blood cells that gives fair skin its pinkish hue

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93
Q

Cyanosis

A

A bluish-gray tint of the skin due to poorly oxygenated hemoglobin, indicating possible respiratory or cardiovascular issues

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94
Q

Jaundice

A

A yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to the accumulation of bilirubin, indicating liver dysfunction

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95
Q

What are the three main regions of a hair?

A

Root, shaft, and bulb

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96
Q

What type of keratin is found in hair?

A

Hard keratin

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97
Q

Which part of the hair contains soft keratin?

A

Medulla

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98
Q

What is the function of the arrector pili muscle?

A

Pulls the hair follicle upright and produces goose bumps

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99
Q

What pigment is responsible for red hair color?

A

Pheomelanin

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100
Q

What is the main function of hair in humans?

A

To sense insects on the skin before they bite or sting

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101
Q

What happens to hair when melanin production decreases?

A

Hair turns gray or white

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102
Q

What is the role of the hair papilla?

A

Supplies nutrients to the growing hair and signals it to grow

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103
Q

Which layer of the hair follicle is derived from the dermis?

A

Peripheral connective tissue sheath

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104
Q

What type of hair is found on the scalp?

A

Terminal hair

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105
Q

What are the main parts of a hair follicle?

A

Peripheral connective tissue sheath, glassy membrane, and epithelial root sheath

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106
Q

What is the function of the arrector pili muscle?

A

It pulls the hair follicle upright and produces goose bumps in response to cold or fear.

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107
Q

What are the three concentric layers of a hair?

A

Medulla, cortex, and cuticle

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108
Q

What determines the texture of hair (kinky, wavy, straight)?

A

The shape of the hair shaft: flat and ribbonlike for kinky, oval for wavy, and round for straight.

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109
Q

Medulla (Hair)

A

The central core of a hair, consisting of large cells and air spaces, and containing soft keratin.

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110
Q

Cortex (Hair)

A

A bulky layer surrounding the medulla, consisting of several layers of flattened cells.

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111
Q

Cuticle (Hair)

A

The outermost layer of a hair, formed from a single layer of cells overlapping one another like shingles on a roof.

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112
Q

What causes hair to turn gray or white?

A

Decreased melanin production and the replacement of melanin by air bubbles in the hair shaft.

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113
Q

What are the two types of hair found on the human body?

A

Vellus hair and terminal hair

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114
Q

Hair papilla

A

A dermal papilla that protrudes into the hair bulb, containing capillaries that supply nutrients to the growing hair.

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115
Q

What is the main function of hair on the human scalp?

A

To guard the head against physical trauma, heat loss, and sunlight.

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116
Q

What is the role of melanocytes in hair follicles?

A

They produce hair pigment and transfer it to the cortical cells.

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117
Q

What is the main visible component of the nail that ends in the free edge?

A

Nail plate

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118
Q

What is the thickened proximal portion of the nail bed responsible for nail growth?

A

Nail matrix

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119
Q

What is the white crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail called?

A

Lunule

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120
Q

What substance hardens both hair and nails?

A

Keratin

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121
Q

What is the name of the skin fold that projects onto the nail body as the cuticle?

A

Proximal nail fold

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122
Q

What condition might yellow-tinged nails indicate?

A

Respiratory or thyroid gland disorder

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123
Q

What is the term for an outward concavity of the nail that may signal an iron deficiency?

A

Koilonychia

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124
Q

What is the primary function of nails?

A

To form a clear protective covering on the dorsal surface of the distal part of a finger or toe.

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125
Q

What are the main visible components of the nail?

A

The nail plate, free edge, nail bed, cuticle, proximal nail fold, nail root, and nail matrix.

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126
Q

What substance hardens both hair and nails?

A

Keratin.

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127
Q

What is the lunule?

A

The white crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail, lying over the thick nail matrix.

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128
Q

What is the hyponychium?

A

The thickened region beneath the free edge of the nail where dirt and debris tend to accumulate.

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129
Q

What might yellow-tinged nails indicate?

A

A respiratory or thyroid gland disorder, or a fungal infection.

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130
Q

What is koilonychia and what might it indicate?

A

Koilonychia, or ‘spoon nail,’ is an outward concavity of the nail that may signal an iron deficiency.

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131
Q

What are Beau’s lines and what might they indicate?

A

Horizontal lines across the nails that can be a sign of severe illness affecting the whole body, such as uncontrolled diabetes, a heart attack, or cancer chemotherapy.

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132
Q

Nail Matrix

A

The thickened proximal portion of the nail bed responsible for nail growth.

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133
Q

Cuticle (Eponychium)

A

The proximal nail fold that projects onto the nail body.

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134
Q

Nail Bed

A

The bed of epidermis on which the nail rests, containing only the deeper layers of the epidermis.

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135
Q

Lunule

A

The white crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail, lying over the thick nail matrix.

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136
Q

What is the primary function of eccrine sweat glands?

A

Evaporative cooling

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137
Q

Where are eccrine sweat glands most abundant?

A

Palms, soles of the feet, and forehead

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138
Q

What substance do sebaceous glands secrete?

A

Sebum

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139
Q

Which glands are responsible for body odor?

A

Apocrine sweat glands

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140
Q

What is the primary component of eccrine sweat?

A

Water

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141
Q

What is the function of ceruminous glands?

A

Produce earwax

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142
Q

What is the pH range of normal sweat?

A

4 to 6

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143
Q

What triggers the activity of apocrine sweat glands?

A

Male sex hormones (androgens)

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144
Q

What is the role of sebum?

A

Lubricate skin and hair

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145
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands found in the human body?

A

Eccrine and apocrine glands

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146
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands primarily located?

A

Axillary and anogenital areas

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147
Q

What is the main role of sebum?

A

To lubricate skin and hair, prevent water loss, and provide antibacterial properties

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148
Q

What triggers the contraction of myoepithelial cells in sweat glands?

A

Stimulation by the nervous system

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149
Q

What is the composition of eccrine sweat?

A

99% water, salts, metabolic wastes, and dermcidin

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150
Q

What is the pH range of normal sweat?

A

Between 4 and 6

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151
Q

What are ceruminous glands and what do they produce?

A

Modified apocrine glands that produce earwax (cerumen)

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152
Q

What is the function of mammary glands?

A

To secrete milk

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153
Q

Eccrine sweat glands

A

Sweat glands that are abundant on the palms, soles of the feet, and forehead, and primarily function in evaporative cooling

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154
Q

Apocrine sweat glands

A

Sweat glands located in the axillary and anogenital areas that secrete a viscous fluid into hair follicles

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155
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Oil glands that secrete sebum to lubricate skin and hair, and provide antibacterial properties

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156
Q

Sebum

A

An oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands that lubricates skin and hair, and has antibacterial properties

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157
Q

Myoepithelial cells

A

Specialized cells that contract when stimulated by the nervous system to expel sweat from sweat glands

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158
Q

What are the three types of barriers that the skin constitutes?

A

Chemical, physical, and biological

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159
Q

What substance in sweat helps kill bacteria?

A

Dermcidin

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160
Q

What is the role of melanin in the skin?

A

Provides a chemical pigment shield to prevent UV damage

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161
Q

Which cells in the skin secrete natural antibiotics called defensins?

A

Skin cells

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162
Q

What is the primary function of the stratum corneum in the skin?

A

Acts as a physical barrier

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163
Q

What type of substances can penetrate the skin in limited amounts?

A

Lipid-soluble substances

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164
Q

What happens to dermal blood vessels when the body is exposed to cold temperatures?

A

They constrict

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165
Q

Which cutaneous receptor is responsible for sensing deep pressure?

A

Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles

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166
Q

What vitamin is synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight?

A

Vitamin D

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167
Q

What percentage of the body’s blood volume can the dermal vascular supply hold?

A

5%

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168
Q

What are the three types of barriers provided by the skin?

A

Chemical, physical, and biological barriers

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169
Q

How does the skin contribute to body temperature regulation when the external environment is cold?

A

By constricting dermal blood vessels

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170
Q

What is insensible perspiration?

A

The routine and unnoticeable sweating of about 500 ml per day under normal conditions

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171
Q

What triggers the immune response in the skin?

A

Dendritic cells capturing foreign invaders and presenting them to other immune cells

172
Q

What role does melanin play in protecting the skin?

A

It provides a chemical pigment shield to prevent UV damage to skin cells

173
Q

What is the function of keratin in the skin?

A

Keratinized cells harden and waterproof the skin, providing a physical barrier

174
Q

Insensible perspiration

A

The routine and unnoticeable sweating of about 500 ml per day under normal conditions

175
Q

Dendritic cells

A

Immune cells in the epidermis that capture foreign invaders and trigger an immune response

176
Q

Cathelicidins

A

Protective peptides released by wounded skin to prevent infection by group A streptococcus bacteria

177
Q

Sensible perspiration

A

Noticeable sweating that occurs when body temperature rises, potentially up to 12 liters per day

178
Q

Exteroceptors

A

Cutaneous sensory receptors that respond to stimuli arising outside the body

179
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

180
Q

Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous due to its high metastatic potential?

A

Melanoma

181
Q

What is the primary risk factor for developing skin cancer?

A

Exposure to UV radiation

182
Q

Which layer of the skin does basal cell carcinoma originate from?

A

Stratum basale

183
Q

What is a common appearance of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Scaly reddened papule

184
Q

What does the ‘A’ stand for in the ABCD rule for recognizing melanoma?

A

Asymmetry

185
Q

What is the immediate threat to life from severe burns?

A

Loss of body fluids

186
Q

Which degree of burn involves the entire thickness of the skin?

A

Third-degree burn

187
Q

What is the main treatment for third-degree burns?

A

Skin grafting

188
Q

What is the ‘rule of nines’ used for?

A

Estimating the extent of burns

189
Q

Which type of skin cancer is the most dangerous and why?

A

Melanoma, because it is highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy

190
Q

What is the main risk factor for developing skin cancer?

A

Exposure to UV radiation in sunlight and tanning beds

191
Q

What are the characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?

A

Shiny, dome-shaped nodules that later develop a central ulcer with a pearly, beaded edge

192
Q

What are the ABCD rules for recognizing melanoma?

A

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color, Diameter

193
Q

What immediate threat do severe burns pose to the body?

A

Catastrophic loss of body fluids leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, renal failure, and circulatory shock

194
Q

How are burns classified?

A

As first-degree, second-degree, or third-degree based on their severity (depth)

195
Q

What is the rule of nines used for?

A

Estimating the percentage of body surface area affected by burns

196
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

The least malignant and most common type of skin cancer, arising from stratum basale cells

197
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

A type of skin cancer arising from the keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum

198
Q

Melanoma

A

A dangerous type of skin cancer originating from melanocytes, known for being highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy

199
Q

First-degree burn

A

A burn that only damages the epidermis, causing localized redness, swelling, and pain

200
Q

Second-degree burn

A

A burn that injures the epidermis and the upper region of the dermis, characterized by blisters, redness, and pain

201
Q

Third-degree burn

A

A full-thickness burn involving the entire thickness of the skin, often requiring skin grafting

202
Q

From which embryonic layer does the epidermis develop?

A

Ectoderm

203
Q

By which month of development is the skin fairly well formed?

A

Fourth month

204
Q

What is the name of the downy coat of delicate colorless hairs that covers the fetus during the fifth and sixth months?

A

Lanugo coat

205
Q

What substance covers a newborn’s skin and protects it within the amnion?

A

Vernix caseosa

206
Q

What are the small white spots on a newborn’s forehead and nose called?

A

Milia

207
Q

Why do people who grow up in hot climates have more active sweat glands?

A

Because the number of functioning sweat glands increases in the first two years after birth and is determined by climate

208
Q

What skin condition commonly appears during adolescence due to increased activity of sebaceous glands?

A

Acne

209
Q

What happens to the skin as old age approaches?

A

The rate of epidermal cell replacement slows, the skin thins, and susceptibility to bruises and injuries increases

210
Q

What leads to the intolerance to cold commonly seen in elderly people?

A

Diminished subcutaneous fat layer

211
Q

What is one of the best ways to slow the process of skin aging?

A

Shielding your skin from the sun’s rays of both UVA and UVB light

212
Q

By what month of development is the skin fairly well formed?

A

By the end of the fourth month

213
Q

What substance covers a newborn’s skin at birth?

A

Vernix caseosa

214
Q

What skin condition often appears during adolescence due to increased activity of sebaceous glands?

A

Acne

215
Q

What happens to the skin as old age approaches?

A

The rate of epidermal cell replacement slows, the skin thins, and its susceptibility to bruises and other injuries increases

216
Q

What are the effects of declining levels of sex hormones on elderly skin?

A

Similar fat distribution in elderly men and women, leading to wrinkling

217
Q

What is one of the best ways to slow the process of skin aging?

A

Shield your skin from the sun’s rays of both UVA and UVB light

218
Q

Lanugo coat

A

A downy coat of delicate colorless hairs that covers the fetus during the fifth and sixth months of development

219
Q

Vernix caseosa

A

A white, cheesy-looking substance produced by the sebaceous glands that protects the fetus’s skin within the water-filled amnion

220
Q

Milia

A

Small white spots on a newborn’s forehead and nose caused by accumulations in the sebaceous glands

221
Q

Dermatitis

A

Various kinds of skin inflammation that become more common as the skin ages

222
Q

Ectoderm

A

The embryonic layer from which the epidermis develops

223
Q

Which body system provides support for the skin?

A

Skeletal system

224
Q

What effect do active muscles have on the skin?

A

Increase blood flow to the skin and may activate sweat glands

225
Q

Which system regulates the diameter of blood vessels in the skin?

A

Nervous system

226
Q

What do androgens produced by the endocrine system activate?

A

Apocrine and sebaceous glands

227
Q

How does the cardiovascular system support the skin?

A

Transports oxygen and nutrients to the skin and removes wastes

228
Q

What role do dendritic cells and macrophages in the skin play?

A

Help activate the immune system

229
Q

What does the respiratory system provide to skin cells?

A

Oxygen

230
Q

What does the digestive system provide to the skin?

A

Needed nutrients

231
Q

What role does the muscular system play in relation to the skin?

A

Active muscles generate large amounts of heat, which increases blood flow to the skin and may activate sweat glands.

232
Q

How does the nervous system contribute to thermoregulation?

A

The nervous system regulates the diameter of blood vessels in the skin and activates sweat glands.

233
Q

Cutaneous sensory receptors

A

Receptors located in the skin that detect touch, pressure, pain, and temperature.

234
Q

What is the primary function of sebaceous glands?

A

Secrete sebum

235
Q

What type of cells are most abundant in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes

236
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for new cell production?

A

Stratum basale

237
Q

What pigment is primarily responsible for protecting the skin from UV radiation?

A

Melanin

238
Q

What is the main function of eccrine sweat glands?

A

Thermoregulation

239
Q

What type of burn requires grafting for successful recovery?

A

Third-degree burn

240
Q

What is the actively growing region of a nail called?

A

Nail matrix

241
Q

Epidermis

A

The outer layer of the skin, composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

242
Q

What is the primary function of sebaceous glands?

A

To secrete sebum, which lubricates the skin and hair

243
Q

Melanin

A

A pigment produced by melanocytes that protects the skin from UV radiation

244
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

Eccrine and apocrine sweat glands

245
Q

What causes the formation of fingerprints?

A

The friction ridges formed by dermal and epidermal ridges

246
Q

What is the main threat in severe burns after the initial injury?

A

Overwhelming bacterial infection

247
Q

Which layer of the dermis is responsible for forming tension lines?

A

The reticular dermis

248
Q

Vernix Caseosa

A

A protective, waxy substance produced by fetal sebaceous glands

249
Q

What are the main pigments that determine skin color?

A

Melanin and carotene

250
Q

Liliana’s epidermal layer has been damaged. Which statement best explains the significance of this damage?

A

It’s significant because the cells of the epidermis protect against evaporative water loss, UV radiation, and infection.

251
Q

Liliana’s cyanosis is clinically significant because:

A

It indicates that her blood is low in oxygen.

252
Q

Why might the cut extending along Liliana’s temple heal with little scarring compared to the one on her cheek?

A

The orientation of the cut along natural skin lines reduces scarring.

253
Q

What is the significance of damage to the epidermal layer?

A

The cells of the epidermis protect against evaporative water loss, UV radiation, and infection.

254
Q

What might act to prevent further bacterial invasion if bacteria have penetrated the dermis?

A

Remaining skin defenses such as immune cells and antimicrobial peptides might act to prevent further bacterial invasion.

255
Q

Why might the cut on Liliana’s cheek be more likely to scar than the one on her temple?

A

The cut on her cheek is more likely to scar because it is deeper and vertical, which affects the natural alignment of skin fibers and healing process.

256
Q

What does Liliana’s cyanosis indicate?

A

It indicates that her blood is low in oxygen.

257
Q

Cyanosis

A

A bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood.

258
Q

Epidermis

A

The outermost layer of skin that provides a barrier to infection, UV radiation, and water loss.

259
Q

Why might skin secretions be important for wound healing?

A

Skin secretions contain antimicrobial properties and help maintain a moist environment, which can facilitate wound healing.

260
Q

Burn

A

Tissue damage inflicted by intense heat, electricity, radiation, or certain chemicals, all of which denature cell proteins and kill cells in the affected areas.

261
Q

Second-degree burns

A

A burn in which the epidermis and the upper region of the dermis are damaged.

262
Q

Cutaneous sensory receptors

A

Receptors located throughout the skin that respond to stimuli arising outside the body; part of the nervous system.

263
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Epidermal glands that produce an oily secretion called sebum.

264
Q

First-degree burns

A

A burn in which only the epidermis is damaged.

265
Q

Rule of nines

A

Method of computing the extent of burns by dividing the body into a number of areas, each accounting for 9% (or a multiple thereof) of the total body area.

266
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Oxygen-transporting protein of erythrocytes.

267
Q

Cardiovascular System

A

Organ system that distributes the blood to deliver nutrients and remove wastes.

268
Q

Hair follicles

A

Structure with outer and inner root sheaths extending from the epidermal surface into the dermis and from which new hair develops.

269
Q

Third-degree burns

A

A burn that involves the entire thickness of the skin; also called a full-thickness burn. Usually requires skin grafting.

270
Q

Keratin

A

Fibrous protein found in the epidermis, hair, and nails that makes those structures hard and water resistant; precursor is keratohyaline.

271
Q

Apocrine sweat glands

A

The less numerous type of sweat gland; produces a secretion containing water, salts, proteins, and fatty acids.

272
Q

Melanin

A

Dark pigment formed by cells called melanocytes; imparts color to skin and hair.

273
Q

Vascular

A

Pertaining to blood vessels or richly supplied with blood vessels.

274
Q

Ulcer

A

Lesion or erosion of the mucous or cutaneous membrane, such as a gastric ulcer of the stomach.

275
Q

Mammary glands

A

Milk-producing glands of the breast.

276
Q

Melanoma

A

Cancer of the melanocytes; can begin wherever there is pigment.

277
Q

Arrector pili

A

Tiny, smooth muscles attached to hair follicles; contraction causes the hair to stand upright.

278
Q

Subcutaneous tissue

A

Tissue just deep to the skin; consists of adipose plus some areolar connective tissue. Also called hypodermis or superficial fascia.

279
Q

Tumor

A

An abnormal growth of cells; a swelling; may be cancerous.

280
Q

Alopecia

A

Baldness.

281
Q

Epidermis

A

Superficial layer of the skin; composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

282
Q

Muscular System

A

The organ system consisting of the skeletal muscles of the body and their connective tissue attachments.

283
Q

Carotene

A

Yellow to orange pigment that accumulates in the stratum corneum epidermal layer and in fatty tissue of the subcutaneous tissue.

284
Q

Dermis

A

Layer of skin deep to the epidermis; composed mostly of dense irregular connective tissue.

285
Q

Sweat glands

A

Epidermal gland that produces sweat. Also called sudoriferous gland.

286
Q

Dendritic cells

A

Protective cells that engulf antigens, migrate to lymph nodes, and present the antigen to T cells, causing them to activate and mount an immune response; those in the skin are sometimes called Langerhans cells.

287
Q

Eccrine sweat glands

A

Sweat glands abundant on the palms, soles of feet, and the forehead. Also called merocrine sweat glands.

288
Q

Sebum

A

Oily secretion of sebaceous glands.

289
Q

Fascia

A

Layers of fibrous tissue covering and separating muscle.

290
Q

Proximal

A

Toward the attached end of a limb or the origin of a structure.

291
Q

Anucleate cell

A

A cell without a nucleus.

292
Q

What are the two primary layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

293
Q

Which layer of the skin is primarily composed of epithelial cells and serves as the outermost protective shield?

A

Epidermis

294
Q

The dermis is known for being:

A

A tough, leathery layer composed mostly of dense connective tissue.

295
Q

How do nutrients reach the epidermis?

A

By diffusing through tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis.

296
Q

Which layer of the skin is vascularized, allowing for nutrient diffusion to the epidermis?

A

Dermis

297
Q

What is the primary function of the subcutaneous tissue?

A

To act as a shock absorber and an insulator that reduces heat loss.

298
Q

The subcutaneous tissue is also known as:

A

Hypodermis

299
Q

How does the subcutaneous tissue contribute to the skin’s protective functions?

A

By anchoring the skin to underlying structures, allowing it to slide over them.

300
Q

Why is the skin considered an architectural marvel?

A

Because it covers the entire body and serves as a protective barrier.

301
Q

What would likely happen without our skin’s protective barrier?

A

We would quickly fall prey to harmful bacteria and perish from water and heat loss.

302
Q

Which cell type is primarily responsible for producing keratin in the epidermis?

A

Keratinocytes

303
Q

What is the main function of melanocytes in the epidermis?

A

To synthesize the pigment melanin, which protects against UV radiation

304
Q

Dendritic cells in the epidermis are primarily involved in which of the following processes?

A

Activating the immune system by ingesting foreign substances

305
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is directly responsible for the generation of new keratinocytes through mitosis?

A

Stratum basale

306
Q

In which layer of the epidermis does keratinization begin, characterized by the accumulation of keratohyaline granules?

A

Stratum granulosum

307
Q

The stratum lucidum is found exclusively in which type of skin?

A

Thick skin covering areas subject to abrasion

308
Q

What is the primary function of the glycolipids secreted by cells in the stratum granulosum?

A

To slow water loss across the epidermis

309
Q

The stratum corneum is characterized by which of the following features?

A

A broad zone of flattened, anucleate cells thick with keratin

310
Q

What triggers the accelerated production of cells and keratin formation in the epidermis?

A

Persistent friction, such as from a poorly fitting shoe

311
Q

Approximately how often is the epidermis completely renewed?

A

Every 25 to 45 days

312
Q

The process by which tactile epithelial cells function as sensory receptors for touch involves their association with what type of nerve ending?

A

A disclike sensory nerve ending

313
Q

What types of cells are typically found in the dermis?

A

Fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, and white blood cells

314
Q

Which of the following best describes the matrix of the dermis?

A

A semifluid matrix embedded with fibers that binds the body together

315
Q

The dermis is primarily made up of which type of tissue?

A

Connective tissue

316
Q

What is the primary type of connective tissue found in the papillary dermis?

A

Areolar connective tissue

317
Q

The papillary dermis is characterized by which of the following features?

A

Fine interlacing collagen and elastic fibers forming a loosely woven mat

318
Q

What function do the dermal papillae serve?

A

They indent the overlying epidermis and contain capillary loops and nerve endings

319
Q

What percentage of the dermis thickness is accounted for by the reticular dermis?

A

About 80%

320
Q

The reticular dermis is mainly composed of which type of connective tissue?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

321
Q

What is the significance of cleavage lines in the reticular dermis for surgical procedures?

A

Incisions made parallel to these lines heal more readily

322
Q

What role do collagen fibers in the dermis play?

A

They give skin strength and resiliency to prevent minor injuries

323
Q

How do elastic fibers contribute to the skin’s properties?

A

They provide the stretch-recoil properties of skin

324
Q

What causes the formation of flexure lines in the skin?

A

Dermal folds occurring at or near joints due to the skin being tightly secured to deeper structures

325
Q

Which enzyme is crucial for the synthesis of melanin?

A

Tyrosinase

326
Q

Why do populations closer to the equator generally have darker skin?

A

They produce and retain more and darker melanosomes

327
Q

What is the significance of carotene in the skin?

A

It can be converted to vitamin A, essential for epidermal health

328
Q

Where does carotene tend to accumulate in the body?

A

In the stratum corneum and subcutaneous fat

329
Q

What contributes to the pinkish hue of fair skin?

A

The color of oxygenated hemoglobin showing through the skin

330
Q

Why is the epidermis of light-skinned individuals nearly transparent?

A

Because it has only small amounts of melanin

331
Q

How can changes in skin color serve as clinical signs of certain diseases?

A

By reflecting abnormalities in melanin, carotene, or hemoglobin levels

332
Q

What might a substantial buildup of melanin in the skin indicate?

A

Prolonged exposure to sunlight

333
Q

Freckles and pigmented nevi (moles) are primarily caused by:

A

Local accumulations of melanin

334
Q

What are the chief regions of a hair?

A

Root and shaft

335
Q

What is the primary function of the arrector pili muscle in humans?

A

To make the hair stand upright and produce goosebumps

336
Q

What determines the color of the hair?

A

The concentration of melanin

337
Q

Which type of hair is described as pale and fine?

A

Vellus hair

338
Q

During which phase does a hair follicle shrink and the hair matrix becomes inactive?

A

Resting phase

339
Q

What is the role of the hair papilla?

A

To supply nutrients to the growing hair

340
Q

Which layer of the hair follicle is a direct continuation of the epidermis?

A

Epithelial root sheath

341
Q

What happens when the hair cuticle wears away at the tip of the hair shaft?

A

Keratin fibrils in the cortex and medulla frizz, creating “split ends”

342
Q

What is the most common type of baldness characterized by a response to androgens?

A

Male pattern baldness

343
Q

What is a key factor in the development of male pattern baldness?

A

Shorter hair growth cycles in response to androgens

344
Q

How do treatments for male pattern baldness primarily function?

A

By inhibiting the production of androgens or increasing blood flow to hair follicles

345
Q

What is the primary function of nails on the fingers or toes?

A

To provide a clear protective covering on the dorsal surface of the distal part of a finger or toe

346
Q

Nails are made of what type of keratin?

A

Hard keratin

347
Q

Which part of the nail is responsible for its growth?

A

The nail matrix

348
Q

What is the term for the white crescent visible at the base of the nail?

A

Lunule

349
Q

The nail rests on a bed of epidermis called the:

A

Nail bed

350
Q

The thickened region beneath the free edge of the nail where dirt and debris tend to accumulate is called the:

A

Hyponychium

351
Q

What is the visible attached portion of the nail called?

A

Nail plate or body

352
Q

The proximal nail fold projects onto the nail body as the:

A

Cuticle or eponychium

353
Q

Nails normally appear pink because of:

A

The rich bed of capillaries in the underlying dermis

354
Q

The proximal and lateral borders of the nail are overlapped by skin folds called:

A

Nail folds

355
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary function of eccrine sweat glands?

A

To prevent the body from overheating by producing sweat

356
Q

Sebaceous glands are primarily responsible for:

A

Secreting sebum, an oily substance that lubricates the skin and hair

357
Q

What is the main difference between the secretions of eccrine and apocrine sweat glands?

A

Eccrine secretions are mostly water, while apocrine secretions include fatty substances and proteins

358
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are characterized by:

A

The secretion of a hypotonic filtrate of the blood

359
Q

Apocrine sweat glands begin to function:

A

Under the influence of male sex hormones at puberty

360
Q

Which statement accurately contrasts eccrine and apocrine sweat glands?

A

Apocrine glands secrete a milky or yellowish color secretion, while eccrine glands do not

361
Q

The primary function of sebaceous glands is to:

A

Secrete sebum, which lubricates and protects the skin and hair

362
Q

Sebaceous glands are not found in which of the following areas?

A

The thick skin of the palms and soles

363
Q

How do sebaceous glands release their product?

A

By bursting of engorged central cells, releasing sebum

364
Q

Ceruminous glands are specialized sweat glands that:

A

Produce cerumen, or earwax, in the external ear canal

365
Q

The primary role of mammary glands is to:

A

Produce milk

366
Q

Which of the following is a function of the secretion produced by ceruminous glands?

A

Deterring insects and blocking foreign material in the ear

367
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

A

Nutrient storage

368
Q

How does the skin contribute to body temperature regulation?

A

By dilating dermal blood vessels to release heat

369
Q

What role does the skin play in metabolic functions?

A

Converts cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor when exposed to sunlight

370
Q

What type of barrier do skin secretions and melanin provide?

A

Chemical barrier

371
Q

Which of the following best describes the physical barrier function of the skin?

A

Blocks most diffusion of water and water-soluble substances between cells

372
Q

Dendritic cells and macrophages are part of which type of skin barrier?

A

Biological barrier

373
Q

Which type of cutaneous receptor is primarily responsible for detecting deep pressure?

A

Lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles

374
Q

Free nerve endings in the skin are sensitive to:

A

Painful stimuli such as extreme heat or cold

375
Q

Tactile epithelial cells are involved in:

A

Detecting caresses or the feel of clothing against the skin

376
Q

The skin assists in the excretion of:

A

Nitrogen-containing wastes such as urea

377
Q

How does the skin act as a blood reservoir?

A

By holding about 5% of the body’s entire blood volume

378
Q

What is the most important risk factor for developing skin cancer?

A

Exposure to UV radiation

379
Q

Which type of skin cancer is known for being the least malignant but most common?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

380
Q

Melanoma is particularly dangerous because it is:

A

Highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy

381
Q

The ABCD rule is used to:

A

Recognize signs of melanoma

382
Q

Why are serious burns considered life-threatening?

A

They lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

383
Q

A burn that damages only the epidermis is classified as a:

A

First-degree burn

384
Q

Third-degree burns are characterized by:

A

Destruction of the entire thickness of the skin

385
Q

The “rule of nines” is used to:

A

Estimate the percentage of body surface burned

386
Q

Which condition makes burns critical and requires immediate medical attention?

A

Over 25% of the body has second-degree burns

387
Q

In the treatment of burns, what is the primary reason for administering intravenous (IV) fluids?

A

To replace lost body fluids and prevent renal failure

388
Q

The leading cause of death in burn victims, after the initial crisis, is:

A

Sepsis

389
Q

Skin grafting is advised for:

A

Third-degree burns

390
Q

By the end of which month of development is the skin fairly well formed, including the development of fingerprints and dermal papillae?

A

Fourth month

391
Q

What substance covers a newborn’s skin, providing protection within the amniotic sac?

A

Vernix caseosa

392
Q

Small white spots on the forehead and nose of newborns, which normally disappear by the third week, are called:

A

Milia

393
Q

During adolescence, an increase in the activity of which glands contributes to oilier skin and the appearance of acne?

A

Sebaceous glands

394
Q

What is a common skin condition in old age due to the clumping of elastic fibers and reduction in collagen fibers?

A

Wrinkling

395
Q

Which factor contributes to the increased risk and incidence of skin cancer in elderly individuals?

A

Decreasing numbers of melanocytes and dendritic cells

396
Q

How can the aging process of the skin be slowed down, according to the text?

A

Shielding the skin from the sun’s rays

397
Q

What change in hair is noted by the age of 50 according to the passage?

A

Marked decline in the number of active hair follicles

398
Q

What is the primary cause of albinism?

A

A lack of tyrosinase, leading to an inability to synthesize melanin

399
Q

Alopecia areata is characterized by which of the following?

A

The immune system attacking the hair follicles, leading to hair loss

400
Q

What common factor contributes to the development of boils and carbuncles?

A

Bacterial infection in hair follicles and sebaceous glands

401
Q

Cold sores are primarily caused by which of the following?

A

A herpes simplex virus infection

402
Q

Contact dermatitis results from exposure to:

A

Chemicals that provoke an allergic response

403
Q

Decubitus ulcers, also known as bedsores, are caused by:

A

Continuous pressure leading to interference with blood supply

404
Q

Eczema is commonly treated by:

A

Methods used for other allergic disorders

405
Q

Epidermolysis bullosa is characterized by:

A

Lack of cohesion between skin layers due to faulty synthesis of skin components

406
Q

Impetigo, a contagious skin condition, is caused by:

A

A staphylococcus bacterial infection

407
Q

The primary symptom of porphyria related to skin is:

A

Skin sensitivity to sunlight leading to lesions and scarring

408
Q

Psoriasis is an autoimmune condition that can be triggered by:

A

Emotional upset and stress

409
Q

Rosacea is aggravated by all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Hot beverages and alcohol

410
Q

Vitiligo is characterized by:

A

Unpigmented skin regions surrounded by normally pigmented areas

411
Q

Scleroderma affects the skin by:

A

Producing stiff, hardened skin due to abnormal collagen amounts

412
Q

The branch of medicine that deals with disorders of the skin is called:

A

Dermatology

413
Q

Which two primary layers constitute the skin?

A

Epidermis and dermis

414
Q

What is the primary function of melanin in the skin?

A

To protect keratinocyte nuclei from UV radiation

415
Q

Which layer of the epidermis is absent in thin skin?

A

Stratum lucidum

416
Q

What type of tissue primarily composes the dermis?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

417
Q

Which pigment is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of the skin?

A

Carotene

418
Q

Emotional states can affect skin color. Which of the following is not a color change associated with emotional states or disease?

A

Albinism

419
Q

What is the primary component of hair?

A

Keratinized cells

420
Q

At what stage of life do coarser, darker terminal hairs replace fine vellus hairs in certain body regions?

A

Puberty

421
Q

What part of the nail is responsible for its growth?

A

Nail matrix

422
Q

Which type of sweat gland plays a key role in thermoregulation?

A

Eccrine

423
Q

What is the primary secretion of sebaceous glands?

A

Sebum

424
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the skin?

A

Vitamin C synthesis

425
Q

What is the most common cause of skin cancer?

A

Exposure to ultraviolet radiation

426
Q

Which degree of burn requires grafting for successful recovery?

A

Third degree

427
Q

What significant change occurs in the skin at puberty?

A

Increase in sebaceous gland activity