Ch 3. Management Flashcards

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1
Q

_____ is the glue that holds an organization together on a day-to-day basis. It is what enables an organization to achieve its goals, efficiently and effectively, with the necessary staff, equipment, and resources. (29)

A

Management

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2
Q

_____ provide vision and are change agents for an organization, whereas _____ supervise and facilitate the work of others within the organization. (29)

A

Leaders; Managers

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3
Q

4 main responsibilities of management: (29)

A

a) planning
b) organizing
c) directing
d) controlling

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4
Q

_____ includes creating and defining goals, and making important decisions and establishing strategic plans to achieve these goals. (29)

A

Planning

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5
Q

without proper _____ and implementation, the change required to meet new goals can be painful for the organization, its members and its customers. (29)

A

planning

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6
Q

_____ is the process of determining what tasks need to be done and who is to perform these tasks. (29)

A

Organizing

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7
Q

The _____ determines the organizational structure (who reports to whom) and which parts of the organization responds to day-to-day problems. (29)

A

manager

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8
Q

A good organizational chart indicates ____ and ____. (29)

A

the major groups and who they report to for direction

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9
Q

_____ the organization involves many tasks such as motivating staff, supervising staff, communicating with members, spotting noncompliance, administering appropriate disciplinary action and resolving conflicts. These actions are what most people think of when they picture a manager. (29)

A

Directing

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10
Q

_____ refers to monitoring performance, measuring outcomes and progress toward goals, and making any adjustments necessary to keep the agency moving toward those goals. As part of this process, managers also provide feedback for future planning. (29)

A

Controlling

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11
Q

Many experts believe that a person’s _____ holds all of the acquired knowledge, ethical values, past experiences, training, and skills that are used for complex problem solving. (29)

A

subconscious mind

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12
Q

It is always better when making an important decision to “_____” if possible and allow the subconscious mind to process the information. (29)

A

sleep on it

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13
Q

The _____ is the initial model of command used at local emergency incidents. (29)

A

Incident Command System

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14
Q

With the exception of large disasters, all emergencies start as _____. (29)

A

local emergencies

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15
Q

_____ provides the template for incident management. (29)

A

NIMS

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16
Q

The _____ provides structure and mechanisms for national-level policies. (29)

A

National Response Framesork

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17
Q

A NIMS-compliant Incident Command System should be used _____. (29)

A

on every incident involving more than one resource.

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18
Q

Initial command is initiated by _____. (29)

A

the first arriving unit

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19
Q

_____ comes from experiences and acquired knowledge. (30)

A

intuition

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20
Q

The key to success in any field is, to a large extent, a matter of training, education, and about _____ hours of professional experience. (30)

A

10,000

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21
Q

_____ can be acquired from others through the review of case studies and writings of those with years of experience. (30)

A

Experience

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22
Q

_____ allows managers to gain knowledge of difficult situations without having to put themselves or their staff in danger. (30)

A

Learning from others

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23
Q

_____ occurs when individuals collectively study and make a choice from the potential realistic options. (30)

A

Group decision-making

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24
Q

The _____ provides a definition of the problem, some background information, and any limitations on the group’s decisions. (30)

A

chief manager

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25
Q

When the final decision directly impacts organizational activities, members’ benefits, or performance benchmarks, _____ may make acceptance easier, especially when sacrifice is required. (30)

A

group decision-making

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26
Q

One of the major reasons noted for bad decisions made by management is _____. (30)

A

lack of information

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27
Q

Group members need to be selected carefully based on their openness to discussion, absence of bias, and _____. (30)

A

ability to come up with rational solutions

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28
Q

The advantage of increased acceptance is lost if members believe the decision-making process was _____. (30)

A

manipulated

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29
Q

Groups of _____ members seem to be the most effective size for timely group decision-making. (30)

A

5-15

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30
Q

Ideally, at least _____ meetings should be in person. (30)

A

half of all

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31
Q

_____ are responsible for communicating any limitations of resources or other relevant limitations to the group members. (30)

A

Managers

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32
Q

In the process of _____, members may suggest any solutions without initial judgments; this is essentially a technique to generate ideas. (31)

A

brainistorming

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33
Q

_____ input should be arranged if possible, to encourage those members who may not want to publicly advocate their ideas for fear of criticism. (31)

A

Anonymous

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34
Q

Only ideas- not _____- should be allowed during brainstorming. (31)

A

criticism

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35
Q

Only through _____ does real change occur in organizations. (32)

A

questioning the status quo

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36
Q

The _____ is someone who thinks outside the box, is a risk taker, and is not afraid of change. He is a true leader who may lead the department through substantial, controversial, or progressive changes. (32)

A

devil’s advocate

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37
Q

To express one’s concerns without angering others, it is best to keep focus on _____ and how alternate solutions may _____. (32)

A

how the customer, member, or department will benefit from the new policy or decision and how alternate solutions may be harmful for the safety of the customer or efficiency of the department.

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38
Q

_____ is a valuable exercise to make other group members justify their support of a new or old idea. (32)

A

Playing devil’s advocate

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39
Q

Consensus may be reached by unanimous decision-making, a simple majority, or a ______ (NFPA requiring 2/3 majority and US Senate requiring a 3/5 majority), with _____ being preferable. (32)

A

specified majority; a majority consensus

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40
Q

Many decisions do not consider the future, and therefore it is common to have ____. (32)

A

unintended consequences

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41
Q

Poor results can be caused by failure to focus on the customer or department goals, or by _____. (33)

A

lack of leadership or preparation

42
Q

Because meetings occur in a nonemergency setting, the group has plenty of time to discuss and analyze all possible actions, often resulting in the tendency to _____. (33)

A

overthink the problem and make it more complicated than necesarry

43
Q

Managers can help avoid this situation, _____, by providing clear direction and limitations. (33)

A

minority domination

44
Q

_____ considerations have led a few organizations to create alternative departmental structures, but this is rare. (33)

A

Budgetary

45
Q

The department is organized by a principle called _____ - the idea that each individual reports to only one manager. (33)

A

unity of command

46
Q

_____ becomes even more critical at large incidents where there are several different departments providing mutual aid. (34)

A

Unity of command

47
Q

In national emergencies, the _____ is used to ensure unity of command at catastrophic emergency incidents. (34)

A

NIMS

48
Q

Making anything a _____ is more likely to result in it being done and done correctly. (34)

A

routine

49
Q

_____ is the process of a manager instructing the members under his authority to accomplish an organizational objective. (34)

A

Directing

50
Q

Directing can occur through _____ or _____ and varies with the objective to be accomplished. (34)

A

direct supervision or voluntary compliance

51
Q

When members are ____ and ____, enforcement methods are seldom needed. (34)

A

motivated and informed

52
Q

_____ are the backbone of directing. They achieve consistency by ensuring that all managers are following the same guidelines. (34)

A

Rules and regulations

53
Q

In creating an agency’s SOPs, a manager should strive to _____ and _____. (34)

A

limit the number of SOPs required and to ensure that they are simple and easy to understand.

54
Q

Ideally, members should be motivated to the point the _____. (34)

A

they no longer need direct supervision

55
Q

_____ members are more inclined to cooperate, complete tasks willingly, and follow departmental rules than dissatisfied or unmotivated members. (34)

A

Motivated

56
Q

If a potential policy would be met with a great deal of opposition, _____ may help smooth its acceptance. (35)

A

incentives

57
Q

Studies show that ___ and ___ have a more lasting impact on output than raises or bonuses. (35)

A

recognition and status

58
Q

It is often ____ who are the most vulnerable to boredom and frustration. Money may not be effective motivation for them; instead they may be looking for __3__. (35)

A

the smartest employees;

1) increased responsibilities
2) challenging work
3) professional growth opportunities

59
Q

_____ can easily lower morale and upset other members of the organization. (35)

A

Promoting the wrong person

60
Q

Promotions should be evaluated base on clearly defined ____ and ____ of the new position. (35)

A

requirements and responsibilities

61
Q

_____ is the management function that ensures completion of all steps to accomplish the organization’s goals and provide feedback on any unintended consequences. (35)

A

Conrolling

62
Q

To be an effective manager, helpful ___ and ___ are necessary. (35)

A

criticism and suggestions for imporvment

63
Q

If managers do not ____, there would be no way to know if policies, plans, and procedures are being achieved correctly and on time. (35)

A

control

64
Q

The control process is made up of 3 steps: (35)

A

1) measuring performance
2) comparing the performance results to a standard
3) taking corrective action

65
Q

Managers must determine the _____ to avoid unintended consequences. (36)

A

correct outcome to measure

66
Q

Outcomes can be measured ____ (a specific number); ____ (yes or no); ____ (no absolute answer but a general measure of several different criteria). (36)

A

quantitatively; categorically; qualitatively

67
Q

When a manager finds it is necessary to take corrective action, the first step may be ____. (36)

A

a feedback session with the employee

68
Q

Feedback can help correct the performance of an individual or _____. (36)

A

identify problems with a policy

69
Q

Regular _____ can be used for managers to get complete and honest information. (36)

A

feedback meetings

70
Q

The goal of feedback meetings is to discuss the concern and ____. (36)

A

possible solutions

71
Q

The feedback session should end with a clear understanding of ___ and ____. (36)

A

the issue and any solutions necessary

72
Q

When feedback sessions ____, disciplinary action may be required. (37)

A

do not provide the desired result

73
Q

For a disciplinary system to be effective, a manager should be appointed as the point person on all disciplinary issues; selection should be based on an exceptional reputation of ____. (37)

A

ethical behavior in the manager’s personal and professional life.

74
Q

Having ____ negates any unfair actions by subordinate officers and ensures consistency. (37)

A

one person ultimately responsible for all discipline

75
Q

Chief officers should watch for violations of the rules and regulations by ____. (37)

A

walking around to visit stations and emergency incidents

76
Q

The manager should aim to be ____ in applying disciplinary action. (37)

A

fair and consistent

77
Q

_____ is a quality improvement tactic that was first extensively used in Japan’s auto industry. It was created under the assumption that customers are more likely to buy products that are high in quality. Therefore, this tactic strives for the goal of 100% perfection. (38)

A

Total Quality Management

78
Q

In selling new ideas, ____ is extremely important. (38)

A

confidence

79
Q

_____ helps managers gain vital knowledge about the support or opposition to their proposals. It also helps define any problems, which is the first step of solving any management difficulties. (38)

A

Listening

80
Q

7 traits associated with leadership: (38)

A

1) Drive
2) Desire to lead
3) Honesty and integrity
4) Self-confidence
5) Intelligence
6) Job-related knowledge
7) Extraversion

81
Q

Managers can be leaders by _____. (39)

A

setting a positive example for others to follow

82
Q

By serving as ____, managers can gain voluntary compliance of members. (39)

A

a role model

83
Q

_____ can help managers create a positive reputation and gain the trust of their staff. (39)

A

Leading by example

84
Q

_____ is not appropriate for FES organizations, which require direct supervision and adherence to rules and regulations for efficiency and consistency of the overall emergency response. (39)

A

Broad-based empowerment

85
Q

People who believe they are a part of the decision-making process tend to be ____. (39)

A

more productive and content

86
Q

The individuals within a fire or emergency service often do not have _____ to be able to make appropriate decisions. (39)

A

a sufficient understanding of the larger picture

87
Q

_____ is a management strategy in which managers physically visit all areas of the organization. It allows for direct supervision and increased communication, because managers can spend up to 60% of their time out in the field. (39)

A

Managing by Walking Around

88
Q

Managers can use their senior position to _____ to enable members to accomplish their goals. (39)

A

remove any roadbocks

89
Q

_____ sends a powerful message to members that the manager believes that the work that members are doing is important to the mission of the organization. (39)

A

Managing by Walking Around

90
Q

The manager’s performance should be measured by the two key criteria of: (39)

A

efficiency and effectiveness

91
Q

____ is measured by the ability to perform well using limited funds or resources. (39)

A

Efficiency

92
Q

_____ is measured by the manager’s success in attaining goals. (39)

A

Effectiveness

93
Q

_____ is the most obvious sign of power. (40)

A

Formal rank

94
Q

Power and relationships are codependent and rely on the manager’s ability to _____ (40)

A

create and effective power base

95
Q

One of the most valuable assets a manager possesses is _____. (40)

A

his staff

96
Q

Delegation is a key to increasing ____. (40)

A

efficiency

97
Q

To delegate effectively, you must ____ for your subordinates, state _____ the task should be completed, and _____ to ensure that the task was completed in a satisfactory manner. (40)

A

clearly define the task
the time frame in which
follow up

98
Q

_____ is absolutely necessary in all cases and it should be done as inconspicuously as possible so that the members do not think they are viewed as untrustworthy. (40)

A

Follow-up

99
Q

If you want to make someone feel important, give him or her ____. (40)

A

your complete attention

100
Q

A _____ may be useful to obtain feedback from employees. This type of evaluation uses surveys sent to employees in all directions. (40)

A

360-degree performance review

101
Q

Techniques to aid group discussions (in order): 8 (30-32)

A

1) Understanding limitation
2) Gathering Information
3) Reviewing National Consensus Standards
4) Brainstorming
5) Discussion
6) Voting
7) Delayed Implementation
8) Forward Thinking

102
Q

The process of determining
what tasks need to be done and who is to perform these tasks falls under which
responsibility of management? (29)

A

Organizing