Ch. 19 & 20

Question 1

Proteins that are normally only found in the blood are called plasma proteins. Which organ is responsible for producing most plasma proteins?

Answer 1

The Liver.

Question 2

What is the “hematocrit”?

Answer 2

% of blood volume occupied by RBC’s.

Question 3

What are the average hematocrit values for Men and Women?

Answer 3

Men = 40-50%
Women = 38-46%

Question 4

What hormone, responsive to the influence of testosterone, is thought to explain why men normally have higher average hematocrit than women?

Answer 4

Erythropoieten (EPO).

Question 5

What is hemopoiesis, or hematopoiesis?

Answer 5

Process by which the formed elements of blood develop.

Question 6

What is the name of the cell type that can form everything from red blood cells to osteoblasts to muscle cells and may someday be used as the starting point for growing new bone, cartilage and muscle tissue for tissue and organ replacements?

Answer 6

Pluripotent stem cells.

Question 7

What is a physiologic reason the RBCs would sacrifice having the normal nucleus and its DNA and resulting cellular complexity that most other cells possess?

Answer 7

No Nucleus = Allows RBC to maximize Amt. of O2

No Mitochondria = RBC doesn’t consume any O2

Question 8

Why do premature babies often exhibit anemia and why is the anemia more serious for them than it would be an adult?

Answer 8

Anemia = Inadequate EPO production (which, in turn) = Loss of Fetal Hemoglobin (which carries 30% more O2 for babies) = Premature babies don’t get adequate O2.

Question 9

A world-class Tour de France bicyclist is placed on probation after a random blood test indicates he had a “high retic” (high reticulocyte ) count. What is the reason the athlete is under suspicion?

Answer 9

High Retic count = more Oxygenated RBC’s available for him.

Question 10

What is the name of the agranular leukocytes that engulf and digest microorganisms such as bacteria, or damaged cells, but start off in the bloodstream as monocytes?

Answer 10

Macrophages (Macro = Big, Phage = Eater)

Question 11

Scenario: Physician orders differential WBC count for patient, mid-aged female who’s had a fever and feeling weak. Blood work comes back to show high Eosinophil count and low blood count of Monocytes/Lymphocytes. Patient has no history of allergies but just returned from Africe 5 days prior, and just before return had an old back injury flare up that required Prednisone injection.
The doctor isn’t concerned about low Monocyte/Lymphocyte counts, but orders a blood microscopic analysis. Why? (Hint: suspects something may be wrong with WBC differential results)

Answer 11

Eosinophil is high. Eosinophil count increases to fight off infections.
This tells doctor that the patient may have gathered a parasite from Africa.

Question 12

What are some of the specific results that will be reported when a doctor orders a CBC, complete blood count?

Answer 12

WBC’s, RBC’s, Platelets (per mL of whole blood), Hematocrit, and Differential WBC count.

Question 13

What is the major difference between blood plasma and blood serum?

Answer 13

Blood Plasma: Straw-colored liquid when blood settles.

Blood Serum: Blood Plasma minus clotting proteins.

Question 14

Differentiate between a thrombus and an embolus.

Answer 14

Thrombus: Blood clot formed within cardiovascular system.
Embolus: Clot that has broken free/moving within bloodstream.

Question 15

How does heparin, an anticoagulant, work in preventing clotting?

Answer 15

Heparin: Prevents web-proteins from creating clots.

Question 16

What is the chemical mechanism by which warfarin ( brand name, Coumadin), another commonly used anticoagulant agent, works?

Answer 16

It acts as Vitamin K antagonist and blocks synthesis of four clotting factors.

Question 17

What are the anticoagulation actions believed to be of aspirin at the molecular level?

Answer 17

Inhibits vasoconstriction/platelet aggregation by blocking synthesis of thromboxane A2.

Question 18

What are the anticoagulation actions believed to be of t-PA at the molecular level?

Answer 18

Dissolves formed blood clots to restore circulation by either directly or indirectly activating plasminogen.

Question 19

The factors that make someone a type O, A. AB or B blood type are inherited __________ on the red blood cell surface.

Answer 19

Antigens.

Question 20

A mother who is Rh- does not place any babies after her first born at risk so long as she bears babies that are _______ , or unless she receives the drug _________ before or immediately after delivery, miscarriage, or abortion.

Answer 20

Rh -

RhoGAM

Question 21

(Yes or No) Is a mother who is Rh+ a serious risk to a fetus who is Rh-?

Answer 21

No.

Question 22

If a person is type O, the blood types of those they can receive transfusions from are ______________ (Hint: one type), and the blood types of those they can donate blood to are _________________ (Hint: more than one type) .

Answer 22

Type O

Types A, B, AB, & O.

Question 23

If a person is blood type B, the blood types they can receive blood from as a transfusion are _____________(Hint: two types) and the blood types of those they can donate blood to are _________________(Hint: two types) .

Answer 23

Types B & O

Types B & AB.

Question 24

What is aplastic anemia and why is it potentially deadly?

Answer 24

Aplastic anemia: results from destruction of Red Bone Marrow.
It inhibits enzymes needed for Hemopoiesis.

Question 25

What is the effect SCD has on the red blood cell ion and how does this help against the deadly parasite that causes malaria?

Answer 25

Permeability is altered by SCD of plasma membrane of sickles cells.
K+ to leak out.
Low levels of K+ kill the malaria parasites that may infect sickled cells.

Question 26

What long-held belief about the mature heart’s ability to replace damaged cells was challenged by an Italian study in which male patients received transplanted women’s hearts?

Answer 26

The heart’s showed a limited replacement of damaged cells.

Question 27

Which node, the sinoatrial or SA node, or the atrioventricular, or AV node, is the heart’s natural “pacemaker” and why?

Answer 27

SA Node.

Nerve impulses from ANS & blood-borne hormones modify timing/strength of each heartbeat.

Question 28

Correlate the following ECG events with the corresponding heart activity: the P wave.

Answer 28

Atrial depolarization.

Question 29

Correlate the following ECG events with the corresponding heart activity: the QRS complex.

Answer 29

Rapid ventricular depolarization.

Question 30

Correlate the following ECG events with the corresponding heart activity: the T wave.

Answer 30

Re-polarization of ventricular contractile fibers.

Question 31

Define Ejection Fraction.

Answer 31

Amount of blood leaving heart with each beat.

Question 32

What is considered the normal range for Ejection Fraction?

Answer 32

50-70

Question 33

What do each of these acronyms stand for (Hint: in reference to the heart) and what is the formula associated?
SV, HR, CO

Answer 33

SV  =  Stroke Volume
HR  =  Heart Rate
CO  =  Cardiac Output
CO = SV x HR

Question 34

Using a typical SV of 70ml, what would be the CO in LITERS of a person whose HR is 6o beats/min?

Answer 34

70 X 60 = 4,200 mL (,001L = 1 mL)

CO = 4.2L

Question 35

Using a typical SV of 70ml, what would be the CO in LITERS of a person whose HR during vigorous exercise is HR = 180 beats/min?

Answer 35

70 X 180 = 12,600 mL (,001L = 1 mL)

CO = 12.6L

Question 36

Digitalis, epinephrine and norepinephrine all have positive inotropic effects on the heart while some calcium channel blocking drugs as well as beta-blockers can have negative inotropic effects. What do the terms “positive inotropic” or “negative inotropic” mean regarding a drug’s impact on the heart?

Answer 36

Positive Inotropic: Increases Myocardial Contractility.

Negative Inotropic: Decreases Myocardial Contractility.

Question 37

The SA node’s normal activity should = HR of 100 beats/min, but the average is around 60-70 beats/min. However, in individual’s that have received a heart transplant, several days following surgery their HR is 100 beats/min. What explains the transplanted heart’s higher heart rate?

Answer 37

During heart transplant surgery, the Vagus nerve is severed, so the heart beats 100 times/min until nerve regrowth occurs.

Question 38

Treatments for CAD tend to reflect the relative severity of the disease once detected, ranging from diet and lifestyle changes to drug treatment and /or surgical intervention. What does CAD stand for (Hint: reference to the heart)?

Answer 38

CAD = Coronary Artery Disease.

Question 39

What is the difference between the procedures known as CABG (pronounced “cabbage”) and PTCA?

Answer 39

CABG (coronary artery bypass grafting): blood vessel from another part of the body is grafted to coronary artery to bypass an area of blockage.

PTCA (percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty): Balloon catheter is inserted into an arm/leg artery to the coronary artery, releases dye, finds plaque and inflates to squish plaque against blood vessel wall.

Question 40

What happens during V-fib?

Answer 40

An arrhythmia in which the ventricles quiver rather than contract in a coordinated way.

Question 41

What do AICDs and AEDs do that has dramatically changed the once almost certain fatal outcome of V-fib events?

Answer 41

AICD’s and AED’s monitor heart rhythm and they deliver a small shock when a life-threatening rhythmic disturbance occurs.