Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO 181-171 > CH 15-18 Packets (BIO 181) > Flashcards

CH 15-18 Packets (BIO 181) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what are the two properties of sound and how are they measured?

A

loudness: amplitude dB
pitch: frequency Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where does the external ear end?

A

tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where do we see the first and second level of amplfication of sound

A

1st: ossicles
2nd: oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where does transduction of sound energy occur?

A

cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the three fluid filled compartments of the cochlea

A

scala vestibuli
scala media
scala tympani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in which compartments are perilymph and endolymph found?

A

perilymph: scala vestibuli; scala tympani
endolymph: scala media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the receptor cells

A

hair cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what types of ion channels are located at the tips of the stereocillia of hair cells

A

mechanically gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what happens when the steriocillia bend towards the tall stereocillia

A

channels open (depolarization) potassium enters cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what happens when the steriocillia bend towards the short steriocillia

A

channels close (hyperpolarization) potassium doesnt enter cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describes the neural pathway for sound

A

hair cells synapse on afferent axons of CN VIII, cochlear enters brainstem, synapse with 2nd order neuron to 3rd order neuron and travels to auditory cortex to cranial nerve 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the two branches of the vestibylocochlear nerve and what is their function

A
  1. vestiular—-> equilibrium

2. cochlear—> hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the three types of cells in the olfactory epithelium and what is their function

A
  1. supporting cell—> secrete mucous
  2. receptor cells—>neurons that respond to odorants
  3. basal cells—> regeneration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what important proteins are found in mucus and what is their function

A

olfactory binding protiens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the steps involved in olfactory signal transduction

A

chemicals dissolve in mucus, travel to receptor cells, trigger production of cAMP—> depolarization of receptor cells, then receptors send axons through cribiform plate to brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what happens to the axons of the receptor cells of olfaction once they have depolarized

A

receptors send their axons through cribriform plate towards brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

map out the neural pathway for olfaction

A

olfactory nerve—> olfactory bulb—>olfactory tract to olfactory cortex (NO THALAMUS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the three types of lingual papillae

A

curcumvallate, fungiform, filiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how many taste buds would be found in the circumvallate papillae

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how many tast buds would be found in the fungiform papillae

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the only function of th filiform papillae

A

only to provide friction (NO TASTE BUDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what two types of cells are found in the taste buds

A

basal and gustatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe the four primary tastes and what rimary transduction mechanism is used by each

A
  1. sour: H+ binding with K+ (depolarize)
  2. salty: Na+(depolarize)
  3. bitter: nitrogen (ligands) (depolarize)
  4. sweet: ligands (depolarize)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

describe the neural pathway for taste

A

receptor cells to afferent neurons via CN VII, IX, X –> CNs synapse to 2nd order neurons that project to thalamus, 3rd order neurons terminate in gustatory cortex in parietal lobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what does the somatic nervous system control?

A

voluntary control of skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does the autonmic nervous system control

A

visceral effectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the two divisions of the automonic nervous system

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe the meaning of duel innervation

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic innrcate all body systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what part of the spinal cord do the sympathetic nerves originate

A

thoracolumbar (t1-L2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what regions of the spinal cord do the parasympathetic nerves originate?

A

sacral region and brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe the anatomy of the sympathetic nervous system

A

short preganglionic–> ganglia–> ling postganglionic –> effector organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

waht are the two exceptions for the general rule of anatomy of the sympathetic nervous system

A

collateral ganglia

suprarneal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe the anatomy of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

long preganglionic–> short postganglionic–> ganglia–> effector organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where do preganglionic nerves originate in the parasympathetic nervous system

A

brain stem or sacral spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what cranial nerves are involved in the parasympathetic nervous system

A

III, VII, IX, and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

with respect to the sacral spinal nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system, what do the postganglionic nerve fibers innervate

A

visceral organs in the ingerior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the primary neurotransmitters involved in the automonic nervous system

A

acetylcholine, norpinephrine and epinephrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe which brances release acetylcholine versus corepinephrine in the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

A

1.acetylcholine–>
SYMPATHETIC: preganglionic & PARASYMPATHETIC: preganglionic and postganglionic
2.norepinephrine–>
SYMPATHETIC: postganglionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what areas of the brain regulate autonomic function

A

hypothalamus, pons, medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

give a summary of the characteristics of parasympathetic activity

A

rest & digest, decreased HR, BP, and metabolic rate; increased digestion and gastrointestinal activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

characteristics of sympathetic activity

A

fight or flight, increased HR, BP, and alertness; decreased gastrointestinal and urinary function; pupils dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe what is means by tonic activity at rest

A

both branches are active, but at rest, parasympathetic nervous system dominates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the four ways in which cells can communicate

A

direct communication
paracrine communication
synaptic communication
endocrine communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe the direct communication between cells

A
  • Exchange of ions and molecules between adjacent cells across gap junctions (cell to cell adhesion molecules)
  • Occurs between two cells that are the same type
  • Highly specialized and extremely fast
  • Found a lot in brain and heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

describe the communication that occurs when paracrines are involved

A
  • Chemical signals are secreted and travel a short distance to a nearby cell
  • Information is transferred between different cells of a single tissue type
  • Most common form of intercellular communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe synaptic communication

A
  • Chemical signals (neurotransmitters) are released by a neuron into a synapse
  • Target cell (postsynaptic cell) can be any type of cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe endocrine communication

A
  • Endocrine cells release chemicals (hormones) into bloodstream
  • Alters metabolic activities of multiple tissues and organs simultaneously
  • Endocrine communication involves a hormone and it’s target cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the three ways in which hormones can alter the activity of a target cell

A
  • Stimulate synthesis of enzymes or structural proteins that are not already in the target cell
  • Increase or decrease the rate of synthesis of certain enzymes or proteins
  • Can turn an existing enzyme or membrane channel “on” or “off”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are the three types of hormones based on structure alone

A

amino acid

peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the two ways in which hormones are transported through the body

A

freely

bound to transport proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

describe the characteristics of free hormones

A

short lived, broken down by enzymes, taken in by liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

describe the characteristics of hormones that are bound to transport proteins

A

stay in blood longer (are on reserve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the two types of responses that mediate the transport of chemicals in the body

A

intracellular

membrane bound receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

describe the characteristics of intracellular mediated responses

A

used by lipid soluble hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what type of hormones use membrane bound receptors

A

not lipid soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are G proteins

A

regulatory protein associated with plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

map out the second messenger system involving cAMP

A

messenger->activates G protein->alpha G protein activates adenylate cyclase->produces conversion of ATP to cAMP->activates protein cynase->phosphorlate protein-> cell response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Map out the second messenger system that uses PLC as its amplifier enzyme

A

messenger attachs to membrance->activates G protein->alpha G protein detaches and acivates PLC-> generates DAG and IP3->

  1. DAG activates protein kinase C-> phosphoralate proteins to make response in target cell
  2. IP3 moves into cytosol->binds to receptor on the ER-> opens channels and allows Ca into cytosol to cause a response (contraction, secretion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

five types of second messengers

A 
cAMP
IP3
cGMP
DAG
calcium ions (only ions that can be)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the two types of endocrine organs in the body and what is the difference between the two

A
  • primary: only hormone secretion

- secondary: secrete hormones but are known for different function (eg heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what second messenger does the pituitary glad use

A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland

A

infindibulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary galnd and what is their function

A
  1. antidiuretic hormone: water balance and osmolarity of kidney
  2. oxytocin: uterine contraction and milk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are tropic hormones

A

alters secretion of another hormone

65
Q

describe a common tropic hormone pathway

A

hypothalamus–>pitutary gland–>specific endocrine gland

66
Q

describe the events that occur which ultimately lead to the release of thyroid hormones, beginning with the hypothalamus

A

Hypothalamus releases TRH (Thyrotropin-releasing hormone)–> Anterior pituitary releases TSH (Thyroid Stimulating Hormone)–>Thyroid Gland releases Thyroid Hormone

67
Q

Describe the events that occur which ultimately leads to the release of glucocoticoids, beginning with the hypothalamus

A

hypothalamus releases CRH–> anterior pituitary releases ACTH–> super arenal cortex releases CORTISOL

68
Q

what causes the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland

A

-Hypothalamus releases GnRH (Gonadotropin-releasing hormone)–>Anterior pituitary releases FSH or LH–> to Ovaries
(Estrogen, Progesterone) or Testes (Testosterone)

69
Q

what causes the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland

A

Hypothalamus releases PRF (Prolactin-releasing factors)–>Anterior pituitary releases PRL (Prolactin)–> Mammary Glands (Milk production)

70
Q

describe the events that occur which ultimately leas to the release of somatomedins

A

Hypothalamus releases GH-RH (Growth hormone-releasing hormone)—>Anterior pituitary releases GH (Growth Hormone) –> Liver releases Somatomedins (insulin-like growth factors)

71
Q

what are the three mechanisms that control tropic hormone release

A

neural input, hormonal input, and circadian rhythm

72
Q

what two types of thyroid hormones and give their function

A

T3 and T4 both regulate metabolism

73
Q

what is the funciton of calcitonin

A

to regulate calcium

74
Q

what is the precursor to the thyroid hormones and where is it found

A

thyroid globulin molecule

75
Q

describe the chain of events that occur with the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones

A
  • Thyroglobulin (TG) = protein located in colloid
  • Precursor for thyroid hormones
  • Contains tyrosine residues
  • Iodide ions = I- = absorbed from the diet
  • Actively transported from blood into colloid
  • Added to thyroglobulin to form T3 and T4 thyroid hormones
  • Once T3 and T4 hormones are made, they can remain in the colloid (bound to TG molecule) for up to three months
  • When TSH arrives via the bloodstream, it binds to it’s receptor on the membrane to activate cAMP (step 4)
  • The cascade of events of this second messenger system ultimately phosphorylates a follicular protein (step 4)
  • This triggers Follicular cell to take in the TG (with T3 and T4 attached to it) via phagocytosis (step 5)
  • Phagosome containing TG fuses with a lysosome and allows the separation and breakdown of TG and the diffusion of T3 and T4 into the bloodstream (step 6 and 7)
76
Q

how long can T3 and T4 remain in the colloid

A

up to three months

77
Q

what are the functions of thyroid hormones

A

regulate metabolism

78
Q

what hormones is secreted by the parathyroid gland and what is its function

A

parathyroid hormone: regulates calcium levels

79
Q

all hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex are referred to as what

A

adrenocorticoids

80
Q

what are the three hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex

A

mineralocorticoids, glucocortocoids, sex hormone

81
Q

what is the function of mineralocorticoids

A

regulates Na and K levels

82
Q

what is the function of glucocorticoids

A

regulates metabolism and mediates stress response

83
Q

all hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are known as what

A

catecholamines

84
Q

name the three types of catecholamines and what cells secrete them in the adrenal medulla

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine

85
Q

what hormone is secretes by the pineal gland and what is its function

A

melatonin–> circadian rhythm

86
Q

what are the four types of cells in the endocrine pancreas and what hormones do they secrete

A
  • Delta cells produce somatostatin
  • F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide (PP)
  • Alpha cells produce glucagon
  • Beta cells produce insulin
87
Q

what is the function of pancreatic polypeptide

A

Functions in regulating production of pancreatic enzyme and the rate of food absorption

88
Q

what is the function of somatostatin

A

similar to GH-IH (growth hormone-inhibiting hormone) regulates digestion & absorption as well as suppresses insulin and glucagon release

89
Q

what are the funcitons of insulin and glucogon

A

regulate metabolism and blood glucose levels

90
Q

what happens when blood glocose levels rise above normal?

A
  • Beta cells secrete insulin
  • Increases glucose uptake by cells
  • Promotes glucose use for energy
91
Q

what happens when blood glocose levels fall blow normal?

A
  • Alpha cells secrete glucagon
  • Stimulates glycogen breakdown
  • Stimulates glucose release by liver
92
Q

name five types of secondary endocrine gland

A
  • Intestines (digestive system)
  • Kidneys (urinary system)
  • Heart (cardiovascular system)
  • Thymus (lymphoid system and immunity)
  • Gonads (reproductive system)
93
Q

what is the function of the hormones secreted by the intestines

A

aid in digestion

94
Q

what hormones are secreted by the kidney and what is their function

A
  1. erythroprotien: stimulates red blood cell production

2. calcitriol : regulate blood calcium level

95
Q

what hormones are secreted by the heard and what is their function

A

ANP and BNP

both reduce the blood volume and pressure

96
Q

what hormone is secreted by the thymus gland and what is its function

A

thymosin: maintain normal immune defense by regulating T cell function

97
Q

what hormones are secreted by the gonads in males and females

A
  • males: androgens

- females: estrogens

98
Q

what are the four ways in which two or more hormones can have an affect when they are released simultaneously

A
  • Antagonistic (opposing) effects
  • Synergistic (additive) effects
  • Permissive effects: one hormone is necessary for another to produce effect
  • Integrative effects: hormones produce different but complementary results
99
Q

name the hormones that are important for growth

A

growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, parathyroid hormone

100
Q

describe the effects of growth hormone in children and adults

A
  • In children it Supports muscular and skeletal development

* In adults it Maintains normal blood glucose concentrations and Mobilizes lipid reserves

101
Q

what is the affect of thyroid hormones during fetal development

A

develops nervous system

102
Q

what is the alarm phase and what hormones dominate this phase of stress?

A

immediate response to stress; epinephrine and norepinephrine

103
Q

what is the resistance phase and what is the primary hormone mediating this phase of stress

A

Occurs when stress lasts for more than a few hours

•Glucocorticoids (Cortisol)

104
Q

what is the exhaustion phase and what can happen if the stress is not corrected

A

multiple organ failure and death if its not corrected

105
Q

draw a concept map of the nervous system showing all components

A

CNS
PNS–>
afferent
efferent

106
Q

what are the two subdivisions of the PNS

A

afferent and efferent

107
Q

what are the functions of sensory receptors

A

sensory, interpretation, processing, transduction

108
Q

define sensory receptors

A

specialized nerve ending or cells that detect a sensory stimulus

109
Q

define transduction

A

the process by which the stimulus energy is converted into electrical energy

110
Q

what is adaptation

A

reduction in sensitivity to a constant stimulus

111
Q

what are slow and fast adapting receptors

A
  • slow: active for duration of stimulus (eg root hair plexus, meisner corpuscles,laminated corpuscles)
  • fast: only active at the onset and offset of stimulus (riffini corpusles, merkles discs, free nerve endings)
112
Q

how does the brain code for stimulus type

A

specific pathway

113
Q

how does the brain code for stimulus intensity and define each mechanism

A
  • frequency coding: more action potentials

- recruitment: more receptors activated

114
Q

how does the brain code for stimulus location and acuity

A

size and overlap

115
Q

define receptive field

A

area of the body that is monitored or innervated yt a receptor

116
Q

what body part(s) have the greatest tactile acuity

A

lips

117
Q

what is the difference between the general and special senses

A
  • general: somastetic sensation involving touch, pain, propriception
  • special: vision, taste, smell, auditory, equilibrium
118
Q

what are the four types of somatosensory receptors

A

nocieceptors
thermoreceptors
chemoreceptors
mechanoreceptors

119
Q

what are nociceptors

A

pain receptors

120
Q

what two types of pain do we perceive

A
  • fast prickling (we can localize)

- slow, burning, aching (we can can’t localize)

121
Q

what type of pain is carried by myelinated type A fibers

A

fast, pricking pain

122
Q

what type of pain is carried by unmyelinated type C fibers

A

slow, aching, burning pain

123
Q

where are thermoreceptors found

A

dermis, skeletal muscles, liver, hypothalamus

124
Q

what are mechanoreceptors and what type of ion channels do they possess

A
  • sensitive to stimuli that distort their plasma

- mechanically gated ion channels

125
Q

what are the three types of mechanoreceptors

A

baroreceptors
proprioceptors
tactile receptor

126
Q

what do baroreceptors detect

A

pressure changes in walls of blood vessels and in portions of the digestive, reproductive, and urinary tracts

127
Q

what do proprioceptors monitor

A

position of joints, tension in tendons and ligaments, and state of muscle contraction

128
Q

what are the characteristics of the tactile receptors that detect fine touch and pressure

A

extremely sensitive, small receptive fields, give detailed information on source of stimulation

129
Q

what are the characteristics of the tactile receptors that detect CRUDE touch and pressure

A

lare receptor fields, poor localization, give little information on stimulation

130
Q

what are the characteristics of free nerve endings

A

detect pain, located between epidermal cells, tonic receptors, have small receptive fields, slow adapting

131
Q

what are the characteristics of Merkel discs

A

detect fine touch and pressure, extremely sensitive tonic receptors, have small receptive fields, slow adapting

132
Q

what are the characteristics of Ruffini Corpuscles

A

detect crude pressure and distortion, deep in dermis, slow adapting

133
Q

what are the characteristics of Root hair plexus

A

detect hair movement across body surfaces; rapidly adapting

134
Q

what are the characteristics of Meissner corpuscles

A

detect fine touch, pressure, and low frequency vibrations, fairly large, rapidly adapting, in eyelids, lips and fingertips

135
Q

what are the characteristics of Pacinian corpuscles

A

detect seep pressure, most sensitive to pulsing or high frequency stimuli, rapidly adapting

136
Q

describe the sensory pathway from the receptors to the cortex

A

first, second, and third

137
Q

what sensations are carried by the posterior column pathway and where does that information cross over

A 
highly localized (fine) touch, pressure, vibration, and proprioception
crosses over at the brainstem
138
Q

what sensations are carried by the spinothalamic pathway and where does that information cross over

A

conscious sensations of poorly localized (crude) touch, pressure, pain, and temperature.
crosses over immediately at the spinal cord

139
Q

what type of information is carried by the spinocerrebellar pathway and where does this information terminate

A

carries proprioceptive information about position of skeletal muscles, tendons and joints
terminates in the cerebellum

140
Q

what three pathways are included in the descending Pyramidal system

A

anterior corticospinal pathway
lateral corticospinal pathway
corticobulbar pathway

141
Q

what type of information is carried by the pyramidal system and where does this information terminate

A

voluntary movement of skeletal muscles

142
Q

what type of information is carried by the descending extrapyramindal tracts

A

involuntary

143
Q

what are the three layers that make up the eye

A

fibrous tunic
vascular tunic
neural tunic

144
Q

waht makes up the fibrous tunic

A

sclera and cornea

145
Q

what makes up the vascular tunic

A

choriod
ciliary body
iris

146
Q

define refraction

A

bending of light as it passes through

147
Q

define accommodation

A

curvature of lens can change as needed

148
Q

describe how we focus on near objects

A

lens increases curvature, lens becomes more curved, and refractive index increases

149
Q

describe how we focus on distant objects

A

lens decreases curvature, lens becomes more flattened and refractive index decreases

150
Q

discuss the parasympathetic innervation of the eye and how it affects the shape of the lens

A

constrict inner circular muscles (less light enters the eye)

151
Q

what are the characteristics of myopia and how is it corrected

A

lens is too strong and converges light too much, mage focused in front of retina
concave lens diverges more light

152
Q

what are the characteristics of hyperopia and how is it corrected

A

lens is too wear and doesn’t converge light enough, image is focused behind retina
convex lins converges more light

153
Q

describe how the nervous system control the amount of light entering the eye

A
  • parasympathetic–> less light enter d(inner muscles)

- sympathetic–> more light enter eye (radial, outer muscle)

154
Q

what is the pathway of information within the retina

A

pigmented epithelium–>photo receptor layer–>bipolar cell layer–> ganglion cell layer

155
Q

define fovea

A

central point of the retina; packed with cones (NO RODS), point of highest visual acuity

156
Q

define optic disc

A

circular region just medial to fovea where optic dic originates

157
Q

describe the process of phototransduction in the darkness and in the presence of light

A
  • dark=photoreceptor depolarization–> increase in neurotransmitter release
  • light= photoreceptor hyper polarization–> decrease in neurotransmitter release
158
Q

what are the first cells in the visual pathway that generate action potentials

A

ganglion cells

159
Q

describe the neural pathway of visual information from the retina to the primary visual cortex

A

retina–> lateral geniculate nucleus—> primary visual cortex

BIO 181-171 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions