case 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a fistula?

A

an abnormal connection or passageway that connects two organs or vessels that do not usually connect

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2
Q

what is the name for swelling in the hands or feet?

A

dactylitis

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3
Q

what is the most common clinical manifestation of SCD?

A

vaso-occlusive crisis

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4
Q

what happens in a vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

microcirculation obstructed by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemic injury to the organ supplied and resultant pain.

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5
Q

what is the leading cause of aplastic crises?

A

parvovirus B19

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6
Q

what is parvovirus b19?

A

infectious virus spread from droplets

standard symptoms-flu like. runny nose, fever, headache, rash on face.

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7
Q

what might induce vaso-occlusive crises?

A
A CHEAP ID:
Alcohol intoxication
Cold weather (leading to vasospasm)
Hypoxia eg flying in unpressurized aircraft
Emotional stress
Acidosis 
Pregnancy
Infection
Dehydration (especially from exertion or during warm weather)
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8
Q

what should you not forget to always ask someone who’s bleeding somewhere?

A

if they have any other bleeding or bruising elsewhere

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9
Q

what is chloramphenicol?

A

OTC antibiotics mainly used to treat eye infections as eye drops.

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10
Q

how does heartburn happen?

A

our stomach acid is pH1-we have a very thick mucous layer lining the stomach. if the mucous layer starts to thin down you will start to feel the acid and that causes the pain and also gut inflammation.

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11
Q

what is aplastic anaemia?

A

anaemia caused by a failure of blood cell production.

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12
Q

what is pancytopenia?

A

a reduction in conc of all types of blood cell.

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13
Q

what does Hct mean in a FBC?

A

aka mean corpuscular volume-measurement of the average size of RBCs.

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14
Q

what does corpuscle refer to?

A

a minute body or cell in an organism, especially a red or white cell in the blood.

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15
Q

what can lymphocytes indicate?

A

viral infection, lymphocytic anaemia

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16
Q

what are reticulocytes?

A

immature RBCs

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17
Q

what is the effect of nephrotic syndrome?

A

more protein is lost-causing oedema and less plasma proteins.

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18
Q

what is thought to be the most common cause of anaemia globally?

A

iron deficiency

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19
Q

what are the causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • chronic blood loss
  • increased demand
  • inadequate dietary intake
  • Inadequate absorption.
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20
Q

where does iron absorption take place?

A

duodenum and jejenum

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21
Q

what would the Hb increase be expected to be during treatment on iron tablets?

A

1g/dL per week.

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22
Q

how long might it take of treatment to replenish iron stores?

A

6 months.

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23
Q

what does desferrioxamine do?

A

iron chelator: binds with ferric acid and excreted together in urine. antidote for iron poisoning.

24
Q

what are the 2 presentations of indigestion?

A

1) dyspepsia-pain in upper abdomen

2) heartburn-burning pain behind the breastbone.

25
Q

what is methotrexate an example of?

A

a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor.

26
Q

how much B12 can the liver store and therefore how long before pernicious anaemia manifests?

A

up to 4mg-takes 2-4 years to manifest.

27
Q

what is hydroxocobalamin?

A

injectable form of vitamin B 12 that has been used therapeutically to treat vitamin B 12 deficiency.

28
Q

where are granulocyte factors used?

A

only specialist centres.

29
Q

what is the main platelet factor drug?

A

oprelvekin

30
Q

when may prophalaxis with an iron preparation be appropriate?

A
malabsorption
menorrhagia
pregnancy
post gastrectomy
in haemodialysis 
low birth weight infants
31
Q

what is the choice of iron salt usually dependent on?

A

side effects and cost

32
Q

what should the oral dose of elemental iron for iron deficiency anaemia be?

A

100 to 200mg

33
Q

when is parenteral iron used?

A
  • when oral therapy is unsuccesful (patient can’t tolerate it orally or don’t reliably take it)
  • continuing blood loss
  • malabsorption
  • sometimes in chemo-induced anaemia
  • chronic renal failure
34
Q

what is tenesmus?

A

cramping rectal pain. Tenesmus gives you the feeling that you need to poo urgently, even if you’ve just had one.

35
Q

what is a mitogen?

A

peptide or small protein that induces a cell to begin cell division. (genesis of mitosis-duh)

36
Q

what is a PDGF?

A

platelet derived growth factor

37
Q

what is an FGF?

A

fibroblast growth factor

38
Q

what pathway is p21 important in?

A

the p53 pathway.

39
Q

what is really important in the testing of tumours?

A

seeing the mutation profile.

40
Q

what does latency mean?

A

the state of existing but not yet being developed or manifesting.

41
Q

what is the latency of HPV?

A

5-15 years

42
Q

what is a tumour suppressor gene?

A

gene which normally functions in a manner which inhibits neoplasia, usually by suppressing cell proliferation.

43
Q

what is an example of a pre cancerous growth?

A

polyp.

44
Q

what can happen if a polyp is left untreated?

A

can acquire more mutations, proliferate at a faster rate, and can become cancerous.

45
Q

what does b12 deficiency classically cause?

A

sensory and motor damage to the spinal cord- damages the myelin sheath that surrounds and protects the nerves.

46
Q

what is pernicious anaemia characterised by?

A

the presence of large nucleated red blood cells in the bone marrow.

47
Q

what is menorrhagia?

A

menstrual bleeding that lasts more than 7 days.

48
Q

what is the most common histopathological type of colonic carcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinoma

49
Q

what does RCC actually mean in a blood test?

A

red cell count-total red cells per volume of blood.

50
Q

what does ferritin measure in a FBC?

A

how much iron is stored in the body

51
Q

what is extramedullary erythropoiesis?

A

erythropoiesis occurring outside the bone marrow (medulla of the bone)- ie in the spleen or liver.

52
Q

what are the forms in which iron can be administered parenterally?

A

iron dextran
iron sucrose
ferric carboxylmaltose
iron isomaltoside

53
Q

what is dysgeusia?

A

distortion in ur sense of taste

54
Q

what is polycythaemia?

A

increased concentration of RBCs in ur blood

55
Q

what type of blood cell increases during a parasitic infection?

A

eosinophils

56
Q

what are the characteristics of the RBCs in the bone marrow in pernicious anaemia?

A

large

nucleated