BP/Kaplan/AAMC B/B

Question 1

michaelis menten

Answer 1

mm- vmax (s)/ km+(s)

Question 2

orthosteric

Answer 2

only at the active site

Question 3

how do phosphatases remove a phosphate

Answer 3

phosphatases do use water in their removal of a phosphate

Question 4

how does telomerase replicate dna? bc of this, what could u call telomerase?

Answer 4

Telomerase uses an RNA template to replicate DNA at chromosome ends (telomeres). As telomerase reads an RNA template, it is RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

Question 5

non coding transposable elements- what can they do, and what is the effect of this?

Answer 5

Non-coding transposable elements can insert themselves into gene sequences, which is thought to thereby increase genetic diversity and able to accelerate evolution

Question 6

what is differential repro

Answer 6

Differential reproduction is the concept that some phenotypes are more fit than other phenotypes. Individuals with such phenotypes will survive and reproduce more frequently. This is the basis of natural selection, which drives evolution.

Question 7

species def

Answer 7

A species is normally defined as a genetically-similar group of organisms that can breed and produce fertile offspring. A species is reproductively isolated from other groups and cannot produce viable offspring with other species groups.

Question 8

what does HW apply to? what is it used for? is it real or hypothetical and why

Answer 8

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium only applies to populations that are not evolving. It’s used to determine whether or not a population is evolving by comparing it to the predictions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and to calculate genotype and allele frequencies within a population. Hardy-Weinburg is hypothetical, as all populations experience some form of evolution.

Question 9

whats inclusive fitness

Answer 9

Inclusive fitness expands the idea of genetic success beyond the individual to one’s relations. Since all of the wolves within a pack are closely related, they share many of the same genes. One wolf might help another wolf because their mutual survival promotes the survival of their shared alleles.

Question 10

explain p and q in HW eqn

Answer 10

p and q refer to ALLELE FREQUENCY. p^2 and q^2 refer to PHENOTYPE FREQUENCY

Question 11

gene flow

Answer 11

Gene flow is the movement of alleles between populations due to the migration of individuals between those populations.

Question 12

bottleneck effect

Answer 12

The bottleneck effect occurs when population allele frequencies change in response to a random decrease in population size due to external events, such as natural disasters. not related to adaptations that may already be preexisting.

Question 13

what can genetic drift cause and what can happena s a reult

Answer 13

Genetic drift can cause allele fixation, which occurs when one or more alleles of a gene are randomly eliminated from a population over time, resulting in only a single possible genotype at that locus.

Question 14

what is fitness

Answer 14

Fitness is a quantitative measure of natural selection, so it cannot be said to result in natural selection.

Question 15

when are viruses considered positive or negative sense

Answer 15

Positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses contain RNA that can function as mRNA and be directly translated into protein. Viruses are considered negative-sense when their RNA is complementary to mRNA and must be copied into mRNA by the viral enzyme RNA replicase prior to translation.

Question 16

what is a retrovirus

Answer 16

Retroviruses are single strand RNA viruses. As such, their genetic material must first be reverse transcribed into DNA before it can integrate into the host genome.

Question 17

are retroviruses + or - sense? explain what happens to their genome and how they share their genetic info. can they survive on their own without other living things

Answer 17

Retroviruses are positive-sense ssRNA viruses. These pathogens have a single-stranded RNA genome that must be reverse transcribed to form DNA. The DNA is then transcribed into RNA and used to synthesize viral proteins. It should be noted that viruses are not living organisms, as they cannot survive on their own without other living organisms.

Question 18

what is the process for interpreting a figure. what is the order in which things should be read and looked at?

Answer 18

The process of interpreting a figure involves going from the general to the specific, and then back to the general. In other words, one should first read the figure legend to determine what the figure is about in general terms. Then, identifying the independent and dependent variables is a necessary prerequisite for understanding the relationships portrayed in the figure, which are further underscored by the units. Based on an analysis of the details of the figure, one can zoom out to make the figure tell a story.

Question 19

what is penetrance and expressivityt

Answer 19

Penetrance expresses a binary concept that a genotype’s corresponding phenotype will or will not be expressed. Expressivity expresses the degree to which a genotype’s phenotype s expressed, leading to a variable resultant phenotype.

Question 20

what are wild type traits

Answer 20

The term “wild type” refers to the traits an organism typically exhibits when found in nature. These may be dominant traits but not always.

Question 21

do linked genes assort independently and why or why not

Answer 21

Linked genes have a high likelihood of NOT assorting independently. If offspring phenotypes differ significantly from the expected Mendelian ratio of 9:3:3:1, the genes may well be linked.

Question 22

Concentration gradients established by primary active transport do what

Answer 22

This describes a concentration gradient. Concentration gradients established by primary active transport drive secondary active transport.

Question 23

what is primary active transport defined by? what does it not depend on? can both secondary and primary AT move molecules against conc gradient

Answer 23

Primary active transport is defined by energy consumption to move molecules against their concentration gradient. Primary active transport does not depend on whether or not those molecules can diffuse back across the membrane. Both secondary and primary active transport can move molecules against their concentration gradient.

Question 24

what do early endosomes do and not do

Answer 24

Early endosomes are responsible for sorting endocytosed vesicles and identifying what to do with the contents. They are not responsible for the actual degradation themselves.

Question 25

does fac diff need energy and does passive dif? what do both rely on and what does this mean? explain how they are connected

Answer 25

Facilitated diffusion does not require any energy (either directly or indirectly) and nor does passive diffusion. Both rely on diffusion, which is the tendency of molecules to spread out and their concentrations throughout a solution to equilibrate. Facilitated diffusion is passive diffusion through a protein channel, and it helps very polar molecules cross the hydrophobic plasma membrane core.

Question 26

what is a reporter gene

Answer 26

A reporter gene encodes a protein that creates visible phenotypic change. Whether the phenotypic change occurs allows the scientist to determine whether or not the recombination was successful, as successful recombination will include in the expression of the reporter gene.

Question 27

conjugation

Answer 27

Conjugation refers to the transfer of genetic material directly between bacteria via a sex pilus (a bridge-like passage between two bacteria).

Question 28

what doesEngineering plasmids with antibiotic resistance genes enable? When we treat a plate of bacteria with an antibiotic, what happens

Answer 28

Engineering plasmids with antibiotic resistance genes enable them to be separated on the basis of antibiotic resistance. When we treat a plate of bacteria with an antibiotic, only those containing the antibiotic resistance gene will survive. Those that contain this antibiotic resistance gene will also contain the gene of interest.

Question 29

Glycoglycerolipids always have… and what about sphingolipids

Answer 29

Glycoglycerolipids always have a carbohydrate group attached, but only some sphingolipids have an attached carbohydrate group.

Question 30

Sphingomyelin- what is it and what does it cluster with and why

Answer 30

Sphingomyelin is a glycolipid with a sphingosine backbone in place of the glycerol that is found in phospholipids and glycoglycerolipids. Sphingomyelin clusters with cholesterol to make lipid rafts, which modulate membrane fluidity and serve as organized clusters for various signaling processes.

Question 31

what are glyceroglyoclipids and how are they similar to plipids and how are they diff

Answer 31

Glyceroglycolipids are a glycolipid type, which is a major class of membrane lipids. Glyceroglycolipids are similar to phospholipids in that they have a glycerol backbone and two fatty acid tails. However, glyceroglycolipids replace their phosphate group with a carbohydrate group.

Question 32

esterification. also what occurs with esterification in plipids

Answer 32

Fatty acids can be attached to a glycerol molecule through a process known as esterification. In phospholipids, this happens to two out of the three hydroxyl groups. The remaining hydroxyl group is phosphorylated.

Question 32

glycoglycerolipids v spingolipids- compare backbones, and head groups

Answer 32

Glycoglycerolipids and sphingolipids differ from each other in their backbone molecule: Glycoglycerolipids have a glycerol backbone and sphingolipids have a sphingosine backbone. Glycoglycerolipids and sphingolipids can contain the same hydrocarbon head group, but they still belong to their respective glycolipid subclasses because of their backbone.

Question 33

hybridization

Answer 33

Hybridization is the process where single-stranded DNA or RNA form base pairs with its complementary strand. This is used in PCR to anneal DNA strands to each other.

Question 34

what type of molecule moves further in gel ephoresis

Answer 34

Negatively charged molecules, not positively charged ones, tend to move further during gel electrophoresis.

Question 35

PCR is used to

Answer 35

PCR is used to amplify genetic material prior to ligating genetic material into vectors. Thus, this is a potential application of PCR.

Question 36

n Sanger sequencing…

Answer 36

In Sanger sequencing, all four ddNTPs are added to a single tube where DNA replication occurs.dNTPs elongate the DNA chain, while ddNTPs terminate replication.

Question 37

what happens in primer extnesion

Answer 37

During primer extension, chains of various lengths are produced, all complementary to the template DNA. Since new strands are synthesized from 5’ to 3’, the 3’ end of the complementary DNA chain will be nearest to the well, while the 5’ end will be farthest. \

Question 38

why is glucose not likely to cross the plasma membrane

Answer 38

Glucose’s polar groups make it less likely to be able to cross through the plasma membrane.

Question 39

p53- activator or repressor

Answer 39

p53 is a transcription activator, not a repressor. It activates the transcription of genes that inhibit cell cycle progression.

Question 40

defs of cytokines and microglia

Answer 40

Cytokines are protein-based signaling molecules secreted by cells of the immune system. Microglia are a macrophage derivative, a type of cell from the immune system, and as such will most likely secrete cytokines to modulate immune responses.

Question 41

when can second msngers be made/ destroyed? can they be localized to other areas of the cell? give an example

Answer 41

Second messengers can be created or destroyed at times when the cell needs to turn the signal on or off, respectively. Second messengers can also be localized to specific areas of the cell in which they are needed, such as the cytoplasm or the endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 42

Allergies occur when

Answer 42

Allergies occur when the immune system attacks a foreign molecule, such as pollen, that is actually harmless. In this example, the process begins when pollen in the air enters the lungs and the dendritic cell recognizes pollen as an antigen. The dendritic cell engulfs and presents pollen fragments on its MHC class II receptor to T cells. B cells differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies against the pollen.

Question 43

do the intercostal muscles have an active role in inhalation? when may they contract? is exhalation passive or active

Answer 43

The intercostal muscles do not have an active role in inhalation. Intercostal muscles may contract during exhalation to more forcefully expel air but they are not necessary for exhalation either. Exhalation can be an active or passive process.

Question 44

why is breathing active

Answer 44

Breathing is an active process because ATP is required for the diaphragm to contract and initiate inhalation

Question 45

how does oxygen get to the bstream

Answer 45

Oxygen is transported out of the alveoli and into the bloodstream via passive diffusion down its concentration gradient. No energy is required for oxygen to diffuse out of the alveoli and into the bloodstream to be consumed by cells.

Question 46

F-actin, which stands for “filamentous actin”, is a polymer composed of

Answer 46

This answer choice confuses the roles of G-actin and F-actin. F-actin, which stands for “filamentous actin”, is a polymer composed of G-actin monomers.

Question 47

In the trp operon, tryptophan binds to the

Answer 47

repressor.

Question 48

With transcription factors bound to the enhancer, DNA forms a

Answer 48

With transcription factors bound to the enhancer, DNA forms a 3-dimensional loop that brings the enhancer sequence within close proximity of a gene’s promoter. The enhancer binds to the activator, which complexes with other transcription factors to bring RNA polymerase to the promoter.

Question 49

what are enhancers and where are they found

Answer 49

Enhancers, DNA regions where transcription factors bind to upregulate gene expression, are found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA.

Question 50

MicroRNA is responsible for and what does it do

Answer 50

MicroRNA is responsible for post-transcriptional silencing. These short, non-coding RNA molecules bind to mRNA, signaling its destruction or promoting degradation of its protective post-transcriptional modifications.

Question 51

Silencers and enhancers are…

Answer 51

Silencers and enhancers are eukaryotic regulatory sequences that are bound by repressors and activators, respectively, to regulate the expression of target genes. RNA polymerase initially binds the promoter sequence before transcribing the target gene.

Question 52

how does rna pol travel and synth

Answer 52

RNA polymerase travels in a 3’ to 5’ direction, synthesizing nucleotides in a 5’ to 3’ direction (due to the antiparallel orientation of the strands).

Question 53

are only introns taken out

Answer 53

no, exons can b removed during alternative splicing too

Question 54

which is the sense which is the antisense

Answer 54

RNA strands include the sense (coding) strand and the antisense (template) strand. mRNA is transcribed directly from the antisense strand, generating the same base sequence as the sense strand.

It makes SENSE to code

Question 55

If a virus produces antisense RNA complementary to a gene’s promoter sequence,

Answer 55

the viral RNA will hybridize that sequence and prevent transcription from occurring.

Question 56

Ribosome docking is fulfilled by

Answer 56

the 5’ cap, not the poly(A) tail.

Question 57

Prokaryotic mRNA is often polycistronic, meaning

Answer 57

which means that a single mRNA sequence may encode multiple proteins. Eukaryotic mRNA, on the other hand, is monocistronic.

Question 58

describe rna in prokaryotes- is it ready to go? can transcription and translation happen at the same time on the same rna molecule?

Answer 58

In prokaryotes, newly synthesized RNA is ready to go and is immediately translated into protein. Since prokaryotes do not have nuclei to separate transcription and translation, the two processes may occur simultaneously on the same RNA molecule.

Question 59

how do fatty acids enter enterocytes? does this process need energy

Answer 59

Because fatty acids are hydrophobic, they enter enterocytes by passively diffusing through the cell membrane. This transport process is much simpler than secondary active transport and does not require energy.

Question 60

do absorbed and broken down mean the same thing

Answer 60

NO

Question 61

rh factor

Answer 61

The Rh factor is a type of protein on the surface of red blood cells. + means u have it and - means u dont

Question 62

type a=

Answer 62

type a antigens

Question 63

in systole, is atria pressure higher than ventricles

Answer 63

During systole, the pressure in the atria is not higher than the ventricles.

Question 64

where does gas nutrient and waste exchange occur? what does plasma do? how is interstitial fluid in the tissues returned to the circ system?

Answer 64

Gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occurs in capillary beds, and plasma from the circulatory system contributes to interstitial fluid in the tissues, which is returned to the circulatory system via lymphatic vessels.

Question 65

When is glycolysis unregulated? What does a high atp to amp ratio mean

Answer 65

Glycolysis is upregulated when the cell needs more ATP. A high ATP to AMP ratio means that the cell has a lot of ATP compared to AMP, which is an energy-depleted form of ATP. In this situation, glycolysis would be downregulated.

Question 66

which are the two reactions of glycolysis that require atp. are these reversibly and what do they require in gluconeogenesis in order to proceed

Answer 66

This statement is true. There are two reactions in glycolysis that require ATP: The conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate and the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. Both of these steps are irreversible and require bypass reactions in gluconeogenesis.

Question 67

does atp synthase pump protons

Answer 67

atp synthase doesnt pump protons

Question 68

which are the highly regulated steps of the krebs cycle

Answer 68

acoa–> citrate, aketo—>succ coa, isocit—> aketo

Question 69

A high ADP to ATP ratio means

Answer 69

A high ADP to ATP ratio means that the cell has more ADP than ATP, which suggests that the cell needs to make more energy.

Question 70

This reaction is the third and final heavily regulated step of the citric acid cycle. It is inhibited by …

Answer 70

This reaction is the third and final heavily regulated step of the citric acid cycle. It is inhibited by high levels of NADH and succinyl CoA.

Question 71

Ubiquinone can accept two electrons from…

Answer 71

Ubiquinone can accept two electrons from either complex I or complex II, depending on whether they came from NADH or FADH2.

Question 72

describe the lipid layers of mito.

Answer 72

This statement claims that mitochondria have four separate lipid bilayers, but in reality, each mitochondrion has only two: the inner and the outer membrane. These two bilayers are separated by the intermembrane space.

Question 73

is complex 2 embedded in the membrane? can it pump protons from the matrix to the IMS why or why not

Answer 73

Although complexes I, III, and IV are embedded across the inner mitochondrial membrane, complex II is a peripheral membrane protein that does not span the inner membrane. As a result, it cannot pump protons from the matrix into the IMS like the other complexes do.

Question 74

globular v fibrous proteins- are they hydrophilic/phobic, what do they tend to do?

Answer 74

Globular proteins tend to be hydrophilic, water-soluble, and often perform enzymatic functions. Fibrous proteins serve a structural role and are usually hydrophobic.

Question 75

Aminopeptidases cleave amino acids from the …

Answer 75

Aminopeptidases cleave amino acids from the N-terminus of a protein.

Question 76

how does urea affect h bonding.
Proteins that are denatured in the presence of high urea concentrations are typically able to…

Answer 76

Urea disrupts hydrogen bonding, leaving the primary structure intact. Proteins that are denatured in the presence of high urea concentrations are typically able to re-fold once those concentrations are lowered.

Question 77

what do reducing agents do to disulfied bridges

Answer 77

Reducing agents reduce disulfide bridges, breaking them back into separate cysteine residues.

Question 78

what do detergents do

Answer 78

Detergents, which are amphipathic molecules, disrupt hydrophobic interactions in a protein.

Question 79

why would gln be at the surface of a globular protein

Answer 79

Glutamine is a polar, uncharged amino acid, making it hydrophilic. Thus, it would be found at the surface of a properly folded, globular protein.

Question 80

does an unfolded protein have more entropy than a folded protein? what about in the solvent?

Answer 80

An unfolded protein, which is flexible, disordered, and free to move, has greater entropy than a folded protein. In the solvent, though, an unfolded protein increases order because an organized solvation layer forms around nonpolar, hydrophobic groups in the protein that aren’t shielded in the inside of the protein when it is unfolded.

Question 81

pH changes denature proteins by …

Answer 81

pH changes denature proteins by altering the charges on specific groups within a protein. These changes disrupt ionic interactions between the side chains of charged amino acids.

Question 82

When do solvation layers form

Answer 82

This statement is true. Solvation layers form around all solutes in solution.

Question 83

how do proteins fold with hpobic and philic groups? how do solvent molecules interact with proteins?

Answer 83

A protein will fold so that hydrophobic residues are oriented inward and hydrophilic residues are oriented outward. This minimizes the solvation layer. Solvent molecules interact with the polar side chains of hydrophilic residues in a less ordered fashion, which is entropically favorable.

Question 84

axial skeleton is what

Answer 84

axial skeleton houses cns. it also includes the ribcage, so it houses those organs as well

Question 85

what are synovial joins? what do they have and what does this allow for

Answer 85

Synovial joints are freely movable joints. Synovial joints contain a synovial cavity, which is a fibrous, lubricated capsule that allows bones to enjoy significant freedom of movement without being directly joined together or bumping into each other.

Question 86

what are osteons and what do they have in them

Answer 86

Osteons are cylindrical structures composed of concentric rings, or lamellae, of bone matrix. In the center of the osteon is a channel known as the haversian canal, through which the bone’s blood and nerve supply passes.

Question 87

what hormone is raised when blood calc is low

Answer 87

When blood calcium is low, parathyroid hormone (PTH) becomes elevated to increase blood calcium levels via bone resorption, decrease urinary calcium excretion, and increase calcitriol synthesis. Thus, we would expect PTH levels to be elevated.

Question 88

what is the bulk of a muscle made of

Answer 88

Although a muscle contains connective tissue which contains collagen, the bulk of a muscle is composed of muscle tissue.

Question 89

is collagen found in skin

Answer 89

Collagen is found in the dermis of the skin.

Question 90

sds- what does it do, what does it act like, which is the anode and which is the cathode

Answer 90

sds makes all proteins negatively charged. ephoresis needs an external power source, indicating it acts like an electrolytic cell. this means the anode is + with a higher pot and vv for cathode. thus the proteins will go to the + anode. RED CAT and AN OX

Question 91

can dopamine cross the plasma membrane

Answer 91

dopamine relies on vesicular transport to cross the membrane. it isnt a nonpolar sterol or small gas molecule- these can cross unassisted

Question 92

shadowing

Answer 92

a task in which a participant repeats aloud a message word for word at the same time that the message is being presented, often while other stimuli are presented in the background. It is mainly used in studies of attention

Question 93

what do late endosomes do

Answer 93

Late endosomes are responsible for the identification and transport of substances that have been ingested via endocytosis and need to be degraded by lysosomes. However, late endosomes are not responsible for the actual degradation themselves.

Question 94

True or false: The parasympathetic nervous system has a direct inhibitory effect on the nerves of the sympathetic system.

Answer 94

False. The two systems tend to have opposing effects on their target tissues. However, they do not function by exerting direct effects on each other. Rather, the two systems operate in parallel, and the dominant system is decided by external stimuli.

Question 95

True or false: Sympathetic ganglia generally reside close to their effector tissues.

Answer 95

false. Sympathetic postganglionic neurons tend to be particularly long because the target tissue resides far from the ganglion. In contrast, parasympathetic ganglia tend to reside close to the target tissue; consequently, the parasympathetic system has longer preganglionic neurons.

Question 96

Autonomic ganglia are

Answer 96

Autonomic ganglia are collections of cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system where preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons.

Question 97

which are longer, pre or post gang

Answer 97

Parasympathetic preganglionic axons tend to be relatively long, while postganglionic axons are relatively short.

Question 98

medial geniculate

Answer 98

The medial geniculate body is involved in processing the auditory, not visual pathway.

Question 99

lateral geniculate

Answer 99

The lateral geniculate body is a key relay point for the visual pathway that ultimately terminates in the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

Question 100

superior colliculus

Answer 100

The superior colliculus is a key relay point for the visual pathway that ultimately terminates in the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

Question 101

inferior colliculus

Answer 101

The inferior colliculus is involved in processing the auditory, not visual pathway.

Question 102

Select all of the following that are directly involved in the propagation of voluntary motor control.

Answer 102

precentral gyrus, cerebellum, basal ganglia

Question 103

which isnt in the cerebrum

Answer 103

thalamus is not in the cerebrum

Question 104

where is the rhomboencephalon

Answer 104

hindbrain- think rhombo= rear

Question 105

which senses go thru the thalamus

Answer 105

audiroty, visual, gustatory

Question 106

what does myelin do to membrane resistance and membrane capacitance

Answer 106

increases resistance, decreases capacitance

Question 107

what do excitatory postsyn potentials do to the cell memb also ipsp

Answer 107

they depolarize. ipsps hyperpolarize

Question 108

events occurring in a typical action potential sequence

Answer 108

Sodium influx is responsible for the sharp upslope that marks the first phase of the action potential. At the peak of the action potential, potassium channels finish opening, and potassium efflux starts to drive the membrane potential back toward baseline. Inactivation of sodium channels shuts down sodium influx and is also responsible for the absolute refractory period. The characteristically slow potassium channels do not finish closing until the cell has already been hyperpolarized by the continued efflux of potassium.

Question 109

why are larger neurons faster to conduct signals but harder to depolarize compared to smaller ones

Answer 109

Larger neurons have more area to store charge along their membranes and, therefore, they have a higher membrane capacitance, making them harder to depolarize. At the same time, larger neurons have lower cytoplasmic resistance than smaller ones, making them faster at conducting signals

Question 110

what happens w na channels in the relative refractory pd? what abt the absolute refractory pd?

Answer 110

During the relative refractory period, sodium channels have closed, but can still potentially be opened again by a strong enough voltage, generating a second action potential. This contrasts with the absolute refractory period, during which the sodium channels cannot reopen

Question 111

ligand gated are likely on which part of the neuron

Answer 111

dendrites

Question 112

voltage gated are likely on the

Answer 112

nodes of ranvier

Question 113

pka means what

Answer 113

the ph where the concentrations of conjugate acid and base are equal

Question 114

if arg is at a ph of 11, what is that and what does it mean?

Answer 114

A pH of 11.0 corresponds to arginine’s isoelectric point (pI). Here, arginine’s carboxylic acid group and one of its two amine groups have been deprotonated, giving each molecule one -1 charge and one +1 charge. These charges cancel out and give the molecule a net charge of zero, making it a zwitterion.

Question 115

Basic amino acids have how many pKa values?

Answer 115

Basic amino acids have three ionizable functional groups: a backbone carboxylic acid, a backbone amine, and a side-chain amine. Each of these groups has its own pKa value.

Question 116

which amino acid would have an isoelectric point failry close to 6.1?

Answer 116

Valine, which has a nonpolar side chain, would have an isoelectric point fairly close to 6.1.

Question 117

A characteristic of noncompetitive inhibitors is

Answer 117

A characteristic of noncompetitive inhibitors is that they bind the enzyme and the enzyme–substrate complex with the same affinity;

Question 118

what is the genetic sequence of a retrovirus compared to the dna

Answer 118

Thus, the sequence of the nucleotide in the original viral genome will be the same as that of the transcribed mRNA. for a retrovirus

Question 119

average weight of an amino acid

Answer 119

110 DA!!!!!!!!!

Question 120

must memorize the structure of d glucose

Answer 120

look up a pic and then see if u can draw it from memory

Question 121

l gluose v d glucose

Answer 121

that the bottommost free hydroxyl group, on C5, is pointing left in l glucose

Question 122

The generalized empirical formula “Cm(H2O)n” holds true for what kinds of carbohydrates?

Answer 122

msach, disach, and psach. NOT dna sugars like ribose/deoxyribose

Question 123

diff btwn glycogen and amylopectin

Answer 123

Glycogen contains many more alpha-1,6 bonds than amylopectin. This gives glycogen a greater degree of branching than amylopectin, allowing it to better serve its purpose as a storage molecule. Glucose chains in glycogen are more densely packed because of branching via alpha-1,6 bond. however, both of these do use aplha 1 6 and 14 bonds

Question 124

deoxyribose v ribose

Answer 124

Deoxyribose differs from ribose in that it is missing a hydroxyl group at the carbon 2 position.

Question 125

Lactase will breakdown what kind of glycosidic linkage?

Answer 125

Lactase breaks down molecules of lactose, specifically by hydrolyzing a beta-1,4 bond between a molecule of galactose and a molecule of glucose.

Question 126

do epimers have equal but opposite optical activities

Answer 126

no, their optical activities are unrelated

Question 127

why is the alpha anomer of d glucose less likely to form than the beta anomer

Answer 127

the beta anomer undergoes less electron repulsion

Question 128

aldonic acids are compounds that

Answer 128

they form after the aldehyde group on a reducing sugar reduces another compound, becoming ox in the process. in other words, they have been ox and have acted as reducing agents

Question 129

how many stereoisomers does glucose have

Answer 129

16. it has 8 d stereoisomers

Question 130

mutarotation

Answer 130

spontanous change in config about c1

Question 131

alpha v beta

Answer 131

orientation of the oh on the anomeric carbon

Question 132

from a metabolic standpoint does it make sense for carbs to be ox or red

Answer 132

ox bc they are an energy source. they shld bcome ox while reducing other gorups bc aero metab needs reduced forms of e carriers

Question 133

Tropic hormones directly induce physiological changes within non-endocrine tissues.

Answer 133

This statement is false. Tropic hormones act on endocrine cells and usually stimulate the release of other hormones. Only non-tropic hormones initiate changes within non-endocrine cells.

Question 134

holocrine

Answer 134

Holocrine cells release molecules into the extracellular environment through membrane rupture. They do not secrete products into circulation.

Question 135

merocrine

Answer 135

Merocrine cells are exocrine cells that secrete products locally through exocytosis. These secreted products do not travel throughout the body via the bloodstream.

Question 136

endocrine

Answer 136

Endocrine glands like the thyroid release hormones into the bloodstream. Hormones act on target cells at a distance from the site of secretion.

Question 137

apocrine

Answer 137

Apocrine cells are a subcategory of exocrine cells, which release molecules locally rather than into the bloodstream.

Question 138

where are steroid hormones made? how do they enter the bloodstream

Answer 138

Steroid hormones are synthesized in the smooth ER. They diffuse directly through the ER membrane and the plasma membrane of the cell to enter the bloodstream.

Question 139

Leptin is a hormone secreted by adipose tissue to inhibit hunger and reduce fat storage. The leptin gene is highly conserved in mammals. On a structural level, leptin contains several key secondary and tertiary features that promote the formation of disulfide bridges during folding. From this information, it can be inferred that leptin:

Answer 139

Because leptin contains secondary and tertiary structure and it forms disulfide bridges, we can infer that it is a peptide hormone. Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the extracellular surface of target cells, which initiates a signal cascade within the cell.

Question 140

Which of the following treatments could help correct a chronic calcium deficiency?

Answer 140

Calcitriol is the hormonally active form of vitamin D. It helps regulate calcium homeostasis. Because calcitriol increases serum calcium levels, vitamin D supplementation could help correct a calcium deficiency.

Question 141

The adrenal cortex secretes what type of hormones?

Answer 141

androgens.

Question 142

which are the idiotic garbage tropic hormones

Answer 142

acth, crh, fsh, idk what else and i literally couldnt care less anymore im completely done trying

Question 143

what does the garbage pth do???????wtf

Answer 143

prevents calc storage and stimulates osteoclast activity????? wtf?????

Question 144

what do the alpha, delta and epislon cells produce

Answer 144

The alpha cells in the pancreas produce glucagon, delta cells produce somatostatin, and epsilon cells produce a hormone known as ghrelin.

Question 144

In oogenesis, what is formed after the completion of meiosis II?

Answer 144

a primary oocyte

Question 145

The primary oocyte spends most of its existence in which phase of meiotic division?

Answer 145

prophase 1

Question 146

The secondaryy oocyte spends most of its existence in which phase of meiotic division?

Answer 146

metaphase 2

Question 147

Put the following terms in the correct order to properly describe gas exchange between the mother and the fetus:

Answer 147

maternal O2, indirect exchange, umbilical vein, fetal CO2, and then umbilical artery.

Question 148

Arrange the following stages of early embryonic development in the proper order from earliest to latest: morula, zygote, gastrula, and blastocyst.

Answer 148

zygote, morula, blastocyst and gastrula

Question 149

Which of the following best describes the acrosome reaction?

Answer 149

once the sperm binds to glycoproteins in the zona pellucida, it releases digestive enzymes, which create a small tunnel through the zona pellucida and allows the sperm nucleus to enter the egg.

Answer 150

The liver houses the majority of the body’s glycogen supply. It helps maintain a healthy blood glucose level by taking up excess glucose after a meal and releasing glucose from storage when blood glucose levels get too lo

Question 151

Each of the options below is a product of the pentose phosphate pathway. Which of the following are involved in the oxidative phase?

I. NADP+

II. Ribulose 5-phosphate

III. Fructose 6-phosphate

Answer 151

I and II only

Question 152

True or False: Non-polar compounds will migrate further on a TLC plate than polar compounds.

Answer 152

true. TLC plates usually have a non-polar mobile phase and a polar stationary phase. Since “like dissolves like”, non-polar compounds will thus migrate further up the plate as the mobile phase - usually something like the solvent hexane - moves up the plate

Question 153

True or False: A preparative purification tends to result in a larger amount of protein than an analytical purification.

Answer 153

true. A preparative purification is employed when a researcher wishes to have a large amount of the desired protein, while an analytical purification is used when a researcher desires a small, very pure protein extract for qualitative analysis.

Answer 154

MHC class I serves as an internal checkpoint. MHC class I receives protein fragments from inside the cell and presents the fragments on the outside of the cell to T cells. T cells play the role of quality control checkers.

Question 155

Mhc class 2- what does it do

Answer 155

MHC class II serves to convey external information to the rest of the body. MHC class II is a way for the immune cells that destroy foreign objects to tell the rest of the body what they have found so that a coordinated response can be produced.

Answer 156

For the antibody titer, the synthetic varicella antigen is immobilized on a solid surface and the patient’s blood sample is added. If the patient has no previous exposure to varicella, the patient will have no antibodies specific to varicella in his blood. The test result will be negative, and the doctor would vaccinate the patient.

Answer 157

A pathogen must first be phagocytosed by an antigen-presenting cell, then broken down into peptide fragments inside a lysosome. Next, these peptide fragments must be packaged and sent to the cell surface attached to an MHC II complex. Lastly, this MHC II must be recognized by a T cell with the appropriate CD4+ co-receptor and a T-cell receptor that is specific for that pathogen.

Question 158

True or false: The cell-mediated immune response targets host tissue, not foreign pathogens.

Answer 158

This statement is true. The cell-mediated immune response, or the T cell branch, does not directly target pathogens in the way that the humoral response or various components of the innate response do. Instead, cytotoxic T cells target host cells that have been infected by the pathogen in question, destroying them to prevent the cell’s internal machinery from being used to further spread the infection.

Answer 159

Plasma cells are immune cells specialized to produce immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies. B cells differentiate into plasma cells, which then produce immunoglobulins.

Answer 160

T lymphocytes are involved with cell mediated immunity, not humoral immunity.

Answer 161

Each kidney is protected by a tough, fibrous external layer called the renal capsule. The renal cortex, which constitutes the outer layer of the kidney, lies directly within the renal capsule. The innermost region of the kidney is called the renal medulla.

Answer 162

. The renal medulla is more hypertonic than the renal cortex because the concentration of solutes increases dramatically as you move from the outermost region of the cortex into the deepest part of the medulla. This osmotic gradient is established by the loop of Henle.

Answer 163

Water is reabsorbed into the vasa recta in the descending limb of the loop of Henle and ions are reabsorbed in the ascending limb. These actions depend on concentration gradients between the loop of Henle and the vasa recta, which is maintained by the countercurrent multiplier system. If blood in the vasa recta were to flow in the same direction as the filtrate in the loop of Henle, their solute concentrations would quickly equalize and the flow of water and solutes between them would stop.

Answer 164

The ascending limb of the loop of Henle facilitates the reabsorption of ions into the renal medulla. This creates an osmotic gradient within the medulla that allows water to flow passively out of the descending limb.

Answer 165

The renal corpuscle is connected to the renal tubule. Filtrate generated in the corpuscle feeds directly into the renal tubule for additional processing before it becomes urine.

Question 166

What do insulin-responsive cells do in the presence of insulin?

Answer 166

Secretory vesicles containing GLUT4 transporters in their membranes fuse with the cell plasma membrane.

Correct Answer
GLUT4 transporters are stationed in the membrane of secretory vesicles waiting for their signal, and in response to insulin, these vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane, allowing glucose to move into the cell from the bloodstream.

Question 167

what is the idiotic garbage transporter involved with glucose

Answer 167

GLUT2 NOT GLUT 4@!!!!!!

Answer 168

For pancreatic beta cells, glucose enters through the GLUT2 transporter, not the GLUT4 transporter. GLUT4 transporter expression is insulin dependent so it makes sense that to initiate insulin release, we would need to use a different transporter whose expression is not dependent on the presence of insulin.

Question 169

GLUT4 transporters move glucose into the cell via:

Answer 169

FAC DIFF

Question 170

wtf is glut 4????????????

Question 171

what does insulin inhibit and why

Answer 171

Insulin inhibits glycogen breakdown, or glycogenolysis, because insulin is released when blood glucose levels are high (i.e., when the body does not need more glucose).

Question 172

what does glucagon do post secretion?

Answer 172

After glucagon is secreted, it binds to G-protein coupled receptors in the plasma membrane, which initiates an intracellular signaling cascade to inhibit anabolic processes and promote catabolic processes. These catabolic processes include the breakdown of glycogen and the synthesis of glucose from other sources in a process known as gluconeogenesis.

Question 173

what do fatty acids contain? waht does this mean for trans and sat fatty acids

Answer 173

Fatty acids that contain a trans double bond are incredibly stackable, much like saturated fatty acids. Due to this structural feature, both trans and saturated fatty acids tend to be solid at room temperature. Since cis double bonds introduce a kink in the fatty acid chain that disrupts intermolecular forces, cis fatty acids tend to have much lower melting points and are typically liquids at room temperature.

Question 174

why are trans fats more stackable and what is another characteristic in regards to their state of sl or g

Answer 174

Because trans fats do not bend like cis-unsaturated fatty acids, they are more stackable and pack tightly together, which allows them to resist heat. They tend to be solid at room temperature.

Question 175

what determines melting and bp? what do fatty acids w trans db compared to cis db have and what does this mean for them

Answer 175

. Melting and boiling point are determined by intermolecular forces. Fatty acids that contain trans-double bonds are more stackable than fatty acids that contain cis double bonds, which introduce a kink into the chain. Therefore, trans fats are likely to be solid at room temperature.

Question 176

if a figure has non overlapping error bars what does this mean for significance

Answer 176

If a figure doesn’t contain an indicator of statistical significance, but error bars between two groups of data are non-overlapping, then for the purposes of the MCAT the difference between the two groups is significant.

Answer 177

Values either are significant or are not significant, based on whether or not they are below an arbitrary cutoff. It would be meaningless to compare the extent to which two experimental results are significant – they either are or are not.

Question 178

western blotting

Answer 178

used to detect proteins

Question 179

Northern blotting

Answer 179

Northern blotting is used to detect RNA sequences,

Question 180

southern blotting

Answer 180

Southern blotting is used to identify specific DNA sequences

Question 181

adenoviruses are

Answer 181

dna viruses

Question 182

When performing experiments to measure the kcat of an enzyme, the substrate concentration should be:

Answer 182

saturating. the kcat is used to describe the rate-limiting step of catalysis under saturating conditions of substrate

Question 183

when should you use a log-log operation to linearalize a graph?

Answer 183

Log-log operations should be carried out on data that needs to be linearized. For example, a dataset that can be described with the equation y = m*xb would produce a parabolic curve, which could be linearized by log-logging it

Question 184

what are non categorical variables

Answer 184

Variables that exist on a numerical spectrum are non-categorical. Continuous variables, and another kind called discrete variables, describe any variable that is non-categorical

Question 185

is hair color and sex categorical vbles

Answer 185

ya they are. sex is biological. gender is a different thing

Question 186

how does co2 travel in the blood

Answer 186

binds hemoglobin, dissolves in plasma

Question 187

positive hydropathy index means the

Answer 187

positive hydropathy index means the amino acids are hydrophobic, and therefore more likely to reside within a plasma membrane

Question 188

what accompanies G protein-coupled receptor activation

Answer 188

the exchange of GDP for GTP in the α subunit is what accompanies G protein-coupled receptor activation.

Question 189

Specific activity is a measure of:

Answer 189

the enzyme units per milligram of total protein in a soln

Question 190

how does uracil come from cytosine

Answer 190

in the deamination of cytosine, the amine group of cytosine is replaced with a carbonyl group, resulting in the structure of uracil

Question 191

what happens in an addition reaction

Answer 191

In an addition reaction, the number of pi bonds declines, while the number of sigma bonds increases

Question 192

in cation exchange, the stationary surface attracts

Answer 192

cations

Question 193

relationship between reactivity and ability of the lg

Answer 193

the more reactive smth is, the better lg it makes

Question 194

what is the reaction with oxygen at the end of etc

Answer 194

o2+4h+4e—>2H2O

Question 195

Which enzyme plays the most direct role in breaking branched linkages during glycogenolysis?

Answer 195

Branch points in glycogen consist of α (1→6) linkages. These linkages are broken by an enzyme aptly termed glycogen debranching enzyme.

Question 196

Which of the following describes how hexokinase and glucokinase are regulated to prevent excess glycolysis

Answer 196

Hexokinase is inhibited by high levels of G6P, while glucokinase is inhibited by low blood sugar.

Question 197

how do you find the mass of a homotetramer given no other information on earth except its weight in sds page, the most useless thing on the planet

Answer 197

the enzyme is active as a homotetramer, which means that the molecular weight given by SDS-PAGE is four times less than the active molecular weight.

Question 198

how do u number cytosine

Answer 198

start from the N- thats 1

Question 199

what charge would a protein with a low pi have at ph 7

Answer 199

protein with a low pI would be negatively charged at pH 7

Question 200

what type of exchange column do ANIONS bind to

Answer 200

anion exchange!!!!!!

Question 201

why would you need a high amt of nacl to elute some idiotic substance from a column

Answer 201

if its tightly bound

Question 202

describe fermentation

Answer 202

The process of fermentation results in the reduction of pyruvate to form lactic acid and the oxidation of NADH to form NAD+. Electrons from NADH and a proton are used to reduce pyruvate into lactate.

Question 203

retrograde transport

Answer 203

retrograde means backwards. so normally stuff goes from the ER to the golgi. so retrograde means it would have been sent bacvk to the ER

Question 204

do bacteria have a mechanism to splic out introns? is their size relevant to expression prevention?

Answer 204

bacteria dont have a mechanism to splice out introns, size of the bac doesnt prevent expression since only the coding region is transferred.

Question 205

how many electrons does cytochrome c transfer and why

Answer 205

cyto c cycles btwn fe2+ and fe3+ states, therefore only 1 e is transferred in the proces

Question 206

best thing for a pcr

Answer 206

its with a lot of GC and CG bases.

Question 207

what is the head of a fatty acid

Answer 207

the head of a fatty acid is a co2,a carboxyl group

Question 208

give exampls of stuff that comes from the ecto, endo and mesoderm

Answer 208

most of the lining of the mouth is from ectoderm. the bronchi r from endo, bladder is from mesoderm and endoderm and stomach linig from endo

Question 209

order of filtrate passing thru the nephron

Answer 209

glom- proximal- loop of henle- distal- collecting duct

Question 210

proximal tubule

Answer 210

filtrate first enters here. 70 of sodium filtered will be reabsorbed here.

Question 211

loop of henle

Answer 211

ascending- only na reabsorp and descending- only water reabsorpb

Question 212

distal tubule

Answer 212

responds to aldosterone and na reabsorption

Question 213

collecting duct

Answer 213

collects filtrate. last stop for reabsorption. since its going down it reminds me of the bus to rock bottom from spongebob- last stop

Question 214

3.order of events after blood pressure drops

Answer 214

BP drops–> renin cleaves angiotensinogen —> angiotensin 1—-> ace enzyme makes atensin 2—> aldosterone is releasted from the adrenal cortex

Question 215

what does each part of the neprhon do when it comes to active transport (excretory system EOC, #3)

Answer 215

The proximal tubule accounts for the majority of transport along the nephron. The descending loop of Henle only allows for passive reabsorption of water, so we can eliminate choices A and B. The ascending loop of Henle is impermeable to water, and has to actively pump ions out of the nephron. As a result, it has thick walls filled with mitochondria to help satisfy the energy needs of active transport.

Question 216

Which of the following pairings of a part of the nephron with its function is NOT correct?
A.
Proximal convoluted tubule—hormone-controlled reabsorption and secretion

B.
Loop of Henle—creation of osmotic gradient

C.
Ascending limb of the loop of Henle—NaCl reabsorption

D.
Collecting duct—concentration of urine

Answer 216

The proximal convoluted tubule is the site of major reabsorption and secretion, but this is largely driven by sodium transport, not hormone activity. It is the distal convoluted tubule that is involved with hormone-controlled reabsorption and secretion.
answer is A

Question 217

what do u need to have a net filtration pressure?

Answer 217

To have a net filtration pressure, the net pressure must favor movement of fluid from the capillary into the Bowman’s space. If we define fluid movement into the Bowman’s space (i.e. filtration) as positive, and fluid movement into the glomerular capillary as negative, we want the net sum of all the pressures to be positive.

Question 218

sanger sequencing explanation

Answer 218

In Sanger sequencing, the target DNA is copied many times, making fragments of different lengths. Fluorescent “chain terminator” nucleotides mark the ends of the fragments and allow the sequence to be determined.

Question 219

sds page- is a type of and which size protiens move faster

Answer 219

small pass easily and its a type of gel ephoresis i think. SDS PAGE is a type of gel electrophoresis used for separating macromolecular proteins of size between 5 kDa and 250 kDa. Proteins, unlike RNA and DNA, are not charged negatively and do not move toward the positive or negative end.

Question 220

All nucleic acids are a

Answer 220

All nucleic acids are a linear arrangement of the component nucleotides,

Question 221

a Southern blot uses a

Answer 221

restriction digest to differentiate between mutant and wild-type alleles.

Question 222

in order for a Southern blot to be useful,

Answer 222

the mutation should either create or eliminate a restriction site, most of which are palindromes and 4 to 6 base pairs long. The mutation shown in this option is the only one that disrupts a palindromic sequence, AAGCTT. This sequence is the recognition sequence for HindIII.

Question 223

Where do post-transcriptional modifications of RNA take place in human cells?

Answer 223

nucleus. examples include capping, splicing, and polyadenylation

Question 224

can ecoli go btwn the appendix and colon? where shouldnt it go

Answer 224

The appendix is continuous with the colon so that bacteria can move between these two structures; a ruptured appendix would allow E. coli into the abdominal cavity, which is not normal.

Question 225

The limit of resolution of a light microscope is about

Answer 225

200 nm.

Question 226

Bacteria and eukaryotic cells such as the human red blood cell are well above that size (200 nm) so they can be seen with a

Answer 226

light microscope

Question 227

Non-cellular media such as____ _______ and _________ will not support culture of viruses.

Answer 227

nutrient broths and suspensions

Question 228

translation refers to

Answer 228

taking the RNA, a series of nucleotides, and putting it into protein language, a series of amino acids.

Question 229

what does increased glucagon caused

Answer 229

inc gluconeo and inc keptones

Question 230

HDL= ?
LDL=?

Answer 230

hdl= good, ldl= bad

Question 231

vitamin a- what does it do

Answer 231

plays a role in tissue growth

Question 232

vitamin b

Answer 232

fxn in the prod of multiple cofactors. largest group of vitamins

Question 233

vitamin d

Answer 233

inf on bone growth and calc resorption

Question 234

vitamin e

Answer 234

most well known for its antiox capabilities

Question 235

hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal axis (HPAA)

Answer 235

hypothalamus, pit gland and adrenal gland and their fxns are included

Question 236

“more blasting gas im nervous”

Answer 236

morula to blastula to gastrula to neurulation

Question 237

utr=

Answer 237

untranslated region

Question 238

ss and ds

Answer 238

double stranded and single stranded

Question 239

lytic cycle

Answer 239

a virus causes the cell to lyse in the process of using the cells machinery w little regard for the survivial of the host cell. once in the lytic cycle, viruses are termed virulent. seems to use the cell to make copies of itself and then lyses.

Question 240

lysogenic cycle

Answer 240

doesnt cause lysis. just integrates into host genome and doesn cause lysis. the bacteria may become less susceptible to superinfection with other phages. seems to integrate dna and then multiply thru cell replication.

Question 241

Positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses contain RNA that

Answer 241

can function as mRNA and be directly translated into protein.

Question 242

Viruses are considered negative-sense when

Answer 242

their RNA is complementary to mRNA and must be copied into mRNA by the viral enzyme RNA replicase prior to translation.

Question 243

what type of amplification is pcr

Answer 243

linear

Question 244

heterochromatin v euc

Answer 244

hetero- dense
eu- light

Question 245

does insulin act directly on glucose in the blood

Answer 245

no

Question 246

sds page

Answer 246

SMALLER moves FARTHER

Question 247

endoderm

Answer 247

epithelium that lines the primitive gut. From this epithelial lining of the primitive gut, organs like the digestive tract, liver, pancreas, and lungs develop.

Question 248

mesoderm

Answer 248

musculoskeletal system (bone, cartilage and muscle), cardiovascular system (heart, blood and blood vessels), as well as the connective tissues found throughout our bodies.

Question 249

ectoderm

Answer 249

some epithelial tissue (epidermis or outer layer of the skin, the lining for all hollow organs which have cavities open to a surface covered by epidermis), modified epidermal tissue (fingernails and toenails, hair, glands of the skin), all nerve tissue, salivary glands, and mucous glands of the nose and mouth.

Question 250

defunct dna replication

Answer 250

this in the bacteria would prevent cells from even replicating to begin with

Question 251

which way does a protein go post release of ribosome

Answer 251

when translated by er bound ribosome., it goes rer- golgi-plasma membrane-extracell space

Question 252

order of devp

Answer 252

zygote, mor, blas, gast, 3 germ, endodermal layer, lining of archenteron(hollow gut cavity) and gi system

Question 253

opsonization

Answer 253

is how antibodies bind to and recognize antigens on pathogen surface

Question 254

what is the f factor w bacteria

Answer 254

f factor= fertility factor

Question 255

transformation and transduction

Answer 255

In transformation bacteria take up DNA from their surroundings, the media in which they are immersed. Transduction is the process whereby genes are transferred by a virus.

Question 256

is bone connective tissue

Answer 256

YES

Question 257

Translation of antibody proteins in eukaryotic cells is associated with what organelle?

Answer 257

. Synthesis is accomplished by the ribosomes, which are associated with the endoplasmic reticulum

Question 258

thyroxin is regulated by

Answer 258

thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

Question 259

glycogen) is formed by glycosidic bonds between

Answer 259

glucose molecules through α(1→4) linkage linearly and α(1→6) linkage at branch point.

Question 260

Therefore any event that causes the dissipation of the electrochemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane will result in

Answer 260

decreased level of protons in mitochondrial intermembrane space.

Question 261

Adaptive radiation involves

Answer 261

the divergence of one species into multiple species over time, which can occur when subgroups of the original species are separated or isolated in different environments so that these subgroups evolve independently of one another.

Question 262

Polarity in neutral molecules results from

Answer 262

an uneven distribution of electron density, which can arise from separation of unlike charges. This occurs in zwitterions and in ylides.

Question 263

A fatty acid would have the general formula Rn—CO2H. The corresponding fatty acid salt would have the general formula

Answer 263

Rn—CO2– Na+.