Bootcamp Chapter 11 Flashcards

1
Q

You are evaluating two projects. Project A has an expected duration of 90 days with a standard deviation of 10 days, and Project B has an expected duration of 100 days with a standard deviation of 4 days. Which statement is not true regarding these two projects?

A. Project B is riskier than Project A because its expected duration is longer
B. Project A is riskier than Project B because its standard deviation is larger
C. The maximum possible duration of Project A estimated at 95% probability is longer than Project B
D. Both projects have the potential to be completed within 90 days

A

ANSWER: A

Its not true regarding the two projects because a longer duration does not necessarily indicate higher risk.

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2
Q

Which of these statements is true for the Initiation phase?

A. The project’s probability of success is high
B. Stakeholder influence on the project is low
C. Risk is high
D. Expended cost-to-date is high

A

ANSWER: C

Risk is highest at the beginning of the project, when there are many unknowns.

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3
Q

You have a 60% probability of buying software for $75k. But if you choose to build it, there is a 50% probability that it will take 6 weeks. What is the probability that you will choose to build it and it will be done in 6 weeks?

A. 50%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 10%

A

ANSWER: C

This is similar to a decision tree question, calculated as .40X.50=.20 or 20 %. This is a 40% chance of building the software because there is a 60% chance you will buy it. If you build it, there is another 50% chance it will take 6 weeks, so the answer is 40% of 50%.

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4
Q

The risk management processes are predominately what kind of process, and when should they begin?

A. Initiating; they should begin during Initiating when the project charter is created
B. Planning; they should begin during Planning when the risk management plan is written
C. Planning; they should begin during Planning, in parallel with the Initiating processes
D. Executing; they should begin as project work begins

A

ANSWER: C

During Initiating, you should document constraints and assumptions, which are a good starting point for risk planning

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5
Q

Which statement best completes this sentence; The project charter, the project management plan, and the stakeholder register are:

A. Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process
B. Inputs to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process
C. Inputs to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process
D. Inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process

A

ANSWER: A

To develop the risk management plan, you must look at the project charter and the project management plan which define the project objectives that could be affected by potential risks.

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6
Q

Implementing risk responses, tracking risks, monitoring residual and secondary risks, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk responses describes which process?

A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses

A

ANSWER: C

Risk responses are not implemented during any of the other processes listed.

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7
Q

During planning, a market analyst informs you that the price of materials for your project may increase during the life of the project. this source of uncertainty can best be described as:

A. A risk
B. An opportunity
C. A threat
D. An enterprise environmental factor

A

ANSWER: C

The source of uncertainty is a risk, and market fluctuations is an enterprise environmental factor but threat is the most specific term because it defines how the source of uncertainty will affect the project

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8
Q

When running projects, a company should:

A. Avoid all risks
B. Accept only positive risks
C. Accept negative risks if the rewards offset the risk
D. Buy insurance to transfer all risks to another party

A

ANSWER: C

Companies must balance positive and negative risks for the good of the project and the good of the company.

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9
Q

What is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A. Risk register
B. Change requests
C. Risk management plan
D. Project documents updates

A

ANSWER: A

The other answers are outputs of other risk management processes

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10
Q

For which Project Risk Management process is a SWOT analysis most helpful?

A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

A

ANSWER: B

B is correct because looking at the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) helps you identify both negative and positive risks that should be listed on the risk register.

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11
Q

Which of the following would be least likely to be updates to listed risks in the risk register?

A. EMV values
B. Probability and Impact matrix scores and ranking
C. Monte Carlo
D. Residual and secondary risks

A

ANSWER: C

A,B and D are all elements within the risk register as a result of one of the risk management processes. C is the correct answer because it is not a part of the risk register, but rather a tool likely to be used as part of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.

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12
Q

The risk management plan can include all of the following, except:

A. Risk breakdown structure
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Reporting formats
D. Product metrics

A

ANSWER: D

Product metrics are not a component of the risk management plan

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13
Q

which statement best defines the term “reserve analysis”?

A. Time or money set aside for unknown risks
B. Time or money set aside for known risks
C. A comparison of the amount of reserves remaining to the risks remaining
D. A tool and technique for Control Risks

A

ANSWER: C

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14
Q

Which modeling technique shows a decision under consideration and the implications of all possible choices?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Monte Carlo
C. EMV analysis
D. Decision tree analysis

A

ANSWER: D

A decision tree is a technique used to help make and defend more complicated decisions.

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15
Q

Which of the following is typically not included in transferring risks?

A. Eliminating the risk
B. Shifting some or all of the financial impact to another party
C. Paying a risk premium to a third party
D. Using insurance, perofrmance bonds, warranties, etc

A

ANSWER: A

Transferring risk does not eliminate the risk.

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16
Q

A project stakeholder informs you that she is willing to take on a high degree of uncertainty because she expects the project’s product to be highly profitable. This attitude could be described as the stakeholder’s:

A. Risk appetite
B. Risk tolerance
C. Risk Threshold
D. Risk response

A

ANSWER: A

Risk appetite is the degree of uncertainty that an organization, project, or individual is willing to except to pursue a reward.

17
Q

What statement about EMV is accurate?

A. The EMV of opportunities should be expressed as a negative number
B. The EMV of threats should be expressed as a positive number
C. Probability x Value= EMV
D. EMV provides a basis for prioritizing risks

A

ANSWER: C

The calculation for EMV (expected monetary value) is Probability x Value

18
Q

Historical information on previous projects, risk categories, authority levels for risk decisions, and standard templates are examples of:

A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project documents
D. Risk management plan outputs

A

ANSWER: B

The correct answer because risk categories, stakeholder registers, templates, authority levels for risk decisions, historical information risk on past projects, etc, make up the organizational process assets that should be consulted when planning for risk.

19
Q

The Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process should be repeated:

A. Before the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process
B. For high-priority risks from Identify Risks
C. As part of the Control Risks process
D. On all risks

A

ANSWER: C

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is usually conducted after Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

20
Q

Delphi technique, brainstorming, and Crawford Slip are examples of:

A. Information-gathering techniques
B. Diagramming techniques
C. SWOT analysis
D. Assumptions analysis

A

ANSWER: A

21
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the risk management plan?

A. Risk categories
B. Risk roles and responsibilities
C. Definitions of probability and impact
D. Risk triggers

A

ANSWER: D

risk triggers are an output of Identify Risks and part of the risk register rather than the risk management plan. The other possibilities are components of the risk management plan

22
Q

Risk categorization is most helpful during which of the following processes?

A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Control Risks

A

ANSWER: B

Risk categorization is most helpful during Identify Risk Process; it is created during Plan Risk Management, but it is used during Identify Risk.

23
Q

During which process should levels for probability and impact be established?

A. Plan Risk Management
B. Identify Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

A

ANSWER: A

During the Plan Risk Management process, you determine and document how you will handle risks. Defining the probability and impact levels, in general, enables you to consistently assign levels to each identified risk when you perform qualitative analysis later.

24
Q

The best way to establish levels of probability and impact is through:

A. Information gathering techniques
B. Meetings
C. Diagramming techniques
D. Variance and trend analysis

A

ANSWER: B

Probability and impact levels are established within the risk management plan, which is an output of the Plan Risk Management Process.

25
Q

Which risk statement is false?

A. Avoid is essentially the opposite of exploit.
B. Transfer and share are similar
C. Mitigate and enhance are opposites
D. Passive acceptance and active acceptance are the same

A

ANSWER: D

Passive acceptance involves no action except to implement the documented strategy (acceptance).