Bootcamp Chapter 1-PRETEST

Question 1

Your team is in the middle of executing a project that is now projected to run three weeks too long. Which of the following adjustments would allow the project to be delivered on time?

A. Substitute a lesser experienced programmer for a more experienced one
B. Move resources from a non-critical task to a critical path task
C. Modify the purchase of new equipment to less expensive equipment
D. Allow a tester on the project to temporarily work on another, more critical project

Answer 1

ANSWER: B

Question 2

During the Executing and the Monitoring and Controlling phases, the project sponsor tells you, the project manager, that the requirements have changed for one of the project deliverables. Based on this new knowledge, you have to complete additional planning. What is the term used to describe this series of events?

A. Regression testing
B. Progressive planning
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Project elaborations

Answer 2

ANSWER: C

Regression testing has nothing to do with this question. Progressive planning and project elaboration may sound correct, but they are not applicable in this situation

Question 3

A project team has worked long and hard on a complex procurement statement of work for a significant purchase. After much work and many reviews, all have agreed that the procurement statement of the project needs in sufficient detail to avoid contract disputes later. You ask a peer for advice on what to do during the upcoming bidder conference. The best advice the peer can give you includes:

A. Double check to ensure that all project scope is negotiated
B. Ask the project sponsor to handle the bidder conference, so that you can focus on the negotiation sessions
C. Delegate the bidder conference management to the contracts manager
D. Ensure that all potential bidders have sufficient time to ask all of their questions, and that all questions are asked and answered while all potentials bidders are in the room

Answer 3

ANSWER: D

Choices A, B and C might be good things to do, but none of them specify if the scope document is complete or not, so it may not be prudent to do them now. Choice D is the only answer that ensures that the potential bidders fully understand what the bid documents are asking them to do.

Question 4

You have just been hired as a project manager, and you are told that one of your responsibilities is to analyze project performance and then recommend preventative actions based upon your analysis. The purpose of these activities is to:

A. Reduce the probability of positive schedule float
B. Reduce the probability of future negative performance
C. Increase the probability of a negative CPI
D. Improves the chances of project closure

Answer 4

ANSWER: B

Recommended preventative actions are implemented to reduce the probability of incurring future negative performance.

Preventative actions are not directly related to schedule float or CPI; therefore, A and C are incorrect. Although preventative actions might improve the chance of project closure, answer D, the best answer is B

Question 5

An organization uses earned value management to assess project performance. Which of the following sets of values reflect the data that the project manager needs to monitor for earned value management?

A. Cp, Co, 4Cm
B. PV, EV and AC
C. EAC, ETC and BAC
D. NPV, IRR and BCR

Answer 5

ANSWER: B

Answer A lists PERT data points; answer C lists EAC,ETC and BAC, all of which are forecasting formulas, and answer D lists project selecting methods.

Question 6

A project team member informs you that one of her colleagues is furious about the project schedule you recently e-mailed to the team. You decide to postpone addressing the problem in order to better prepare to resolve it. This technique is called:

A. Compromise/Problem Solve
B. Avoid/Accomodate
C. Smooth/Accomodate
D. Withdraw/Avoid

Answer 6

ANSWER: D

Withdraw/Avoid refers to retreating from conflict in order to let someone else resolve it or better prepare. A and C are incorrect because the parties have not begun to work toward a solution. Answer B is not listed in the PMBOK guide as a conflict technique.

Question 7

When creating a summary budget for the project charter, you often have a high degree of uncertainty in estimates. This uncertainty is because during Initiating:

A. The project’s probability of succeeding is high
B. Stakeholder influence on the project is low
C. Risk is high
D. Expended cost-to-date is high

Answer 7

ANSWER: C

Risk is highest at the beginning of the project, when there are many unknowns. The other answers are all false.

Question 8

You join a projectized organization as a project manager. Which of the following best describes your level of authority?

A. Low to moderate
B. Moderate to high
C. High to almost total
D. Little or none

Answer 8

ANSWER: C

Answers A, B and D are level of authority in balanced matrix, strong matrix and functional, respectively.

Question 9

Body language accounts for how much understanding of verbal communication?

A. 55%
B. 38%
C. 7%
D. 100%

Answer 9

ANSWER: A

Body Language is 55%
Pitch and tone of voice is 38%
words are 7%

Question 10

The mechanical engineering manager has reported to you, a project manager, that the work due at the end of this week is going to be two weeks late. Your manager has requested that you do not report this to senior management. What does the code require you to do:

A. Because the manager helped you in the past, you do not report the slip, and hope that the work gets back on schedule in the near future.
B. Issue revised status report that does not show the work so that the slippage will not be noticed
C. Wait until the work is complete, and then report the slippage
D. Report the status timely and accurately

Answer 10

ANSWER: D

Question 11

You are using earned value status formulas to assess your project’s performance. The first term you use in each formula is:

A. EV
B. PV
C. AC
D. EAC

Answer 11

ANSWER: A

The EV is the first term in all the status formulas, which are:

SV=EV-PV
CV=EV-AC
SPI=EV/PV
CPT=EV/AC

Question 12

The team for your project is completing the transfer of its final project to the next phase of production. This is the output of what process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Direct and Manage Project Work

Answer 12

ANSWER: B

Although the outputs for the Direct and Manage Project Work and CLose Project or Phase processes are very similar their wording is slightly different. Deliverables are the output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Final product, service, or result transition is the output of Close Project or Phase.

Question 13

To ensure maximum return on investment of a portfolio, senior management attempts to ensure that resources are allocated to:

A. The endeavors that properly align with organizational objectives
B. the endeavors that achieve the highest ROI
C. The projects or programs that are directly related to each other
D. The projects or programs that are most likely to succeed

Answer 13

ANSWER: A

PMBOK defines portfolio as “projects, programs, subportfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives”. A is the only answer that directly addresses alignment with the organizational objects

Question 14

You are evaluating two projects. Project A has an expected duration of 90 days with a standard deviation of 10 days, and Project B has an expected duration of 100 days with a standard deviation of 4 days. Which statement is not true regarding these two projects?

A. Project B is riskier than Project A because its expected duration is longer
B. Project A is riskier than Project B because its standard deviation is larger
C. The maximum possible duration of Project A estimated at a 95% probability is longer than Project B
D. Both projects have the potential to be completed within 90 days

Answer 14

ANSWER: A

Answer A is not true; a longer duration does not necessarily indicate higher risk.

B is because a larger standard deviation indicates a riskier estimate

C is true because the maximum estimate for Project A at 95% probability is 110 days, whereas the max for Project B is 108 days.

D is true because minimum estimate at 3 standard deviations for Project A is 60 days and for Project B is 88 days, so both could potentially finish within 90 days

Question 15

You are completing a risk register during the planning phase of a project. Which type of risks should you put on your watch list for future monitoring?

A. High probability and high impact risks
B. Risks for the near term
C. Low priority risks
D. Unknown risks

Answer 15

ANSWER: C

Low priority risks are risks that you want to continuously monitor and control for changes.
Answers A and B identify risks for which you need a response plan.
Answer D, unknown risks, cannot be listed on your risk register

Question 16

You have just been hired by an accounting firm to manage a project to upgrade the company’s billing system. The previous project manager has managed the project since its inception and dutifully collected weekly activity reports from all team members. In reviewing the reports, you notice that CV=-$1938, CPI=.74, A=$8338, EV=$6400, ETC=$32,658, and BAC is $36,000. As the new project manager, you are preparing the report for your first presentation to senior management. What is the EAC you will report if past assumptions are flawed?

A. $48,649
B. $34,062
C. $37,938
D. $40,996

Answer 16

ANSWER: D

If past assumptions are flawed, the formula is EAC=ETC+AC

Question 17

You are confirming human resource availability for your project as part of the Acquire Project Team process. Which of the following is not a tool or technique you will use?

A. Acquisition
B. Negotiation
C. Co-location
D. Pre-assignment

Answer 17

ANSWER: C

Co-location is a tool or technique of the Develop Project Team process, not the Acquire Project team process

Question 18

While analyzing defects, the project team is attempting to isolate the cause of a quality problem on a project. After exhausting other speculations, they theorize the problem may be centered around the impact of one variable on another. Which of the following quality control techniques will confirm a relationship between the variables and why?

A. A run chart or control chart because these show both the mean of all the desired outcomes and valuable trend indicators. If the mean and trends align, that shows a relationships.

B. A Pareto chart because it shows the percentages of each defect’s occurrence, and therefore it logically follows that the defects that have near the same percentage are related

C. A scattergram because it shows the relationship between independent and dependent variables

D. A RAM chart because it will show what resources are working on more than one task in the project. The fact that a particular resource is doing work on more than one task will lead to the origin of the problem

Answer 18

ANSWER C

Scattergrams show the relationship between independent and dependent variables, and the closer this comparison follows the diagonal line, the more related the variables are to each other. This allows the quality team to study and identify possible relationships between these variables

Question 19

Which of the following is not true for the expected monetary value of a project?

A. For an investment to be considered pursuable, expected value must exceed or at least equal initial value

B. Expected value of a project equals the initial value plus the algebraic sum of the expected values of the risk events

C. Best case means that the full values of all positive conditions are added to the initial value while all negative conditions are ignored

D. Best case and worst case scenarios should be equal

Answer 19

ANSWER D

ANSWERS A, B and C are all correct considerations in the expected monetary value approach

Question 20

A manufacturer of commercial kitchen equipment has just hired you to complete a project to develop a new product line. Product quality is critical to the company. A poor quality product could result in adverse publicity and involve expensive litigation. You decide to conduct a quality audit during project execution. The quality audit will identify all of the following except:

A. Whether the project team followed the planning quality process and standards
B. The improvement opportunities for the existing project
C. Whether the products are safe and fit for use based on the product specifications
D. Whether scope verification will be formally accepted by the sponsor

Answer 20

ANSWER D

Quality audits determine “if a project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures”. Acceptance of the deliverable is the focus of the Validate Scope process in the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area.

Question 21

You are conducting a make-or-buy analysis to determine whether your project team should test the new software they are creating, or if testing services should be purchased from outside sources. Which of the following are not criteria you should consider?

A. Budget estimates
B. Direct costs
C. Technical differences
D. Indirect costs

Answer 21

ANSWER: C

Answers A, B and D are included in make-or-buy analysis

Question 22

A project sponsor has requested information about the cost performance on a project, so you need to determine cost variance. What formula should you use?

A. AC-EV
B. EV-AC
C. EV/AC
D. EVxAC

Answer 22

ANSWER: B

Answer B is the formula for cost variance, while answers A and D are not valid EVM formulas, and answer C is the formula for determining CPI

Question 23

McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y describe the relationship between management style and employees. Theory X assumes people:

A. Want to achieve, are creative, will work on their own, and will do a good job given the right motivation
B. Are generally lazy and will avoid work unless threatened
C. Are self motivating
D. Like to socialize while at work

Answer 23

ANSWER: B

Answer A describes Theory Y, so it is incorrect. Answer C describes a portion of theory Z (Ouchi) so it is incorrect

Question 24

You are in the planning stages of a new project to implement the first industry-wide B2B site for the air cargo industry. Your team is quite experienced and knowledgeable on progressive projects like this, so you want to utilize all expertise when collecting input for developing the WBS (work breakdown structure). However, your team is spread throughout the world. What is an effective way to gather input from everyone?

A. Monte Carlo simulation
B. The Delphi technique
C. Management by objectives
D. During a status meeting

Answer 24

ANSWER B

The Delphi technique is a method of gathering information from experts on an anonymous basis through progressive rounds of solicitation, which makes it appropriate for use when collecting input from experienced and knowledgeable individuals, particularly when those individuals are geographically dispersed.

Question 25

You are conducting the Perform Quality Assurance process to ensure that quality standards have been properly used. To which process group does this process belong?

A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Closing
D. Executing

Answer 25

ANSWER D

Perform Quality Assurance is the only process in Project Quality Management under the Executing Process Group

Question 26

The quality control team has raised concerns about the quality of the output of a specific machine being used in your pilot test. You ask the team to provide quantitative data to validate their concerns. The quality control team leader reports that on average 9 of 375 articles produced by the specific machine are defective. What is the proability that an article chosen at random will be defective?

A. 3/125
B. 1/41
C. 1/9
D. .24

Answer 26

ANSWER: A

Question 27

You and your organization believe that the services a vendor provided did not adhere to the statement of work contained in the procurement agreement. To deal with this dispute, your organization is considering mediation, arbitration, or possibly litigation. These options are examples of what?

A. Negotiated settlements
B. Team agreements
C. The most desirable ways to handle contract disputes
D. Methods of dealing with outstanding issues, claims or disputes

Answer 27

ANSWER: D

Question 28

Proper Human Resource Management means:

A. All project stakeholders are following proper project guidelines from an HR perspective
B. Senior management is making effective use of everyone involved with the project, including the project team, sponsors, customers, contractors and other stakeholders
C. The project manager will be promoted because of the ways he managed the resources
D.The project is meeting the expectations of the HR dept

Answer 28

Answer: B

Question 29

You want to use the situational continuum leadership model to adapt your leadership style to the job maturity of the team. Which of the following is NOT one of the additional possible leadership styles you might use?

A. Autocratic
B. Facilitative
C. Dictatorial
D. Consensual

Answer 29

Answer: C

All of the other answers are leadership styles in the situational continuum theory, while answer C, dictatorial, is not.

Question 30

Which process involves reviewing all change requests and approving and managing changes to the deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Close Project or Phase

Answer 30

ANSWER: B

All items listed in the question are functions of Perform Integrated Change Control

Question 31

You are completing a stakeholder register. To what process group does this activity belong?

A. Closing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Executing

Answer 31

ANSWER: C

The Initiating Process Group is made up of only two processes: Develop Project Charter(in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area) and Identify Stakeholders (in the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area)

Question 32

It has been discovered that the Director of Accounts Payable in your company has been redirecting funds from new projects to help an adult son escape financial difficulties. Your executives are very apprehensive because this director has a highly successful track record in financing successful new product rollouts key to the organization’s market survival. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to this situation?

A. Keep the director with no penalties because the redirection was not for any personal financial gain
B. Demote the director
C. Discharge the director and outsource new project financing to an accounting firm
D. Discharge the Director and suspend new projects

Answer 32

ANSWER: C

Question 33

You want to graphically outline project roles and responsibilities. What tool should you use?

A. RAM (resource assignment matrix)
B. RAM (responsibility assignment matrix)
C. RAG (responsibility assignment grid)
D. RAC (resource assignment chart)

Answer 33

ANSWER: B

Answer A is incorrect because of the use of the word resource; C is incorrect because of the use of the word grid; D is incorrect because the tool needed in this scenario is a matrix, not a chart

Question 34

As a project manager, you have a duty to encourage the growth of project management at both your company and within the industry in general. Which of the following would not help achieve this goal?

A. Train personnel in project management techniques
B. Publish articles on project management subjects
C. Mentor others who want to learn about project management
D. Distrust current articles on emerging trends and best practices in the industry

Answer 34

ANSWER: D

There are many ways that project managers can contribute to the growth of the industry. Training, publication, and mentoring are all ways that a project manager can contribute to the field and help improve upon the practice of project management. Not following new trends and best practices is never a good approach for keeping skills and abilities current with the market.

Question 35

The team has identified the risk of delayed completion of technical deliverables due to the use of multiple vendors. Missing several project schedule deadlines is an example of a:

A. Risk trigger
B. Risk response
C. Secondary risk
D. Residual risk

Answer 35

ANSWER: A

In order to determine if the risk of delayed completion of technical deliverables is increasing or has occurred, the project manager will carefully monitor the schedule performance of the various vendors responsible for those technical deliverables. Missed deadlines are a risk trigger for the risk of delayed completion of technical deliverables

Question 36

Your project-building a barbed wire fence around a factory-is undergoing a formal halfway point audit review by your organization’s accounting dept. Right at the beginning of the session, one of the accountants publicly berates you for overrunning your budget. You were to spend $250k by this time and you have actually spent $300k. Which of the following should be your reaction?

A. Apologize and promise to improve your spending performance from this point on
B. Call attention to the fact that you used the organization’s preferred vendors and it’s those vendors’ fault, not yours
C. Embarrass the accountant by stating that the cost plan was extremely unrealistic in the first place
D. Explain that in the earned value approach, both cost and production data are needed to do a proper assessment and you “overran” the budget because you are producing ahead of schedule

Answer 36

ANSWER: D

The project manager is expected to explain all variances, even positive ones.

Question 37

The FeelBetter Corp has an excellent reputation for delivering high quality, over-the-counter headache medications. As the project manager for the New2Market project, you are executing a very structured quality audit. Which of the following outputs should you expect from the quality assurance process?

A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Process analysis
C. Requested changes
D. Quality metrics

Answer 37

ANSWER: C

This is correct because a quality audit is focused on “project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures”

Question 38

Throughout your organization’s relationship with a vendor, you have kept procurement documentation in a records management system? This system is an example of a :

A. An output
B. An input
C. A tool and technique
D. A procurement document

Answer 38

ANSWER: C

The records management system is a tool and technique of Close Procurements. The records management system is comprised of the specific processes, control functions, and tools within the project management inform system that are applied to manage the procurement and contract documentation and related records.

Question 39

You are in the Initiating phase of your project and need to estimate the cost of a particular phase of your project. Which form of estimating is most appropriate to use in this situation?

A. Parametric
B. Hyperbolic
C. Analogous
D. Bottom-up

Answer 39

ANSWER: C

Analogous estimating is a top-down approach used to quickly estimate things on the planning horizon based on comparison of those things to actual results obtained in a factually similar project.

Question 40

If you are the project manager of a project that represents your core business and you find that there are not enough resources to complete the project, which of the following actions should you not take?

A. Contract the work to a trusted vendor
B. Negotiate with key stakeholders to cut scope
C. Negotiate with functional managers for more answers
D. Rearrange work among the team members to pull resources from noncritical path activities to allow the project to be completed

Answer 40

ANSWER: A

Because this work represents your core business, it is not ideal to subcontract this work out.

Question 41

According to the PMI, a PMO(project management office) is not responsible for:

A. Centralized and coordinated management of projects
B. Administrative support, methodologies, and policies
C. Resource alignment of project staff
D. Providing accurate and timely reporting of project metrics

Answer 41

ANSWER: D

This is correct because it describes one of the responsibilities of the project manager rather than the project management office

Question 42

During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, you are generating work performance data. This data includes all of the following except:

A. Deliverable status
B. Schedule progress
C. Requested changes
D. Costs incurred

Answer 42

ANSWER: C

Answers A, B and D list components of work performance information, while C is not.

Question 43

You are new to XYZ Corporation and have been named the project manager of Very Important Project. On this project, you have a team member who is unproductive and for whom you need to provide feedback for performance improvement. To do this, you coordinate a coaching session with the employee by going through that employee’s functional manager. Which organizational environment are you operating in?

A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Productive organization
D. Projectized organization

Answer 43

ANSWER: B

In a matrix environment, employees working on project report to two bosses; a functional manager and a project manager. The project manager has authority over team members within the bounds of the project. A disadvantage of matrix environments is that additional procedures must be followed when managing those shared resources.

Question 44

You are preparing a report on the causes of defects in your project. What type of diagram will be most appropriate to show the number of defects resulting from each of the identified causes?

A. Control chart
B. Histogram
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Process flowchart

Answer 44

ANSWER: B

A histogram represents a rough frequency distribution of the measured data. The histogram is particularly useful for helping to identify common causes

Question 45

You work in an organization where one project can be organized in a functional manner and another one organized and coordinated in a matrix style. What is this organizational structure called?

A. Comprehensive organizational structure
B. Composite organizational structure
C. Inclusive organizational structure
D. Exhaustive organizational structure

Answer 45

ANSWER: B

PMBOK describes a composite organization as organizations that involve all of the organizational structures (functional, matrix, and projectized) at various levels of the organization. A, C and D are just distracters.

Question 46

Who is ultimately responsible for quality management in the project?

A. Project manager
B. Team members
C. Sponsor
D. Senior management

Answer 46

ANSWER: A

Quality is everyone’s responsibility, but certain roles have particular responsibility for particular aspects of quality

Question 47

A project is complete when:

A. The team is disbanded
B. A party has been held to celebrate the completion of the project
C. Management declares the project over
D. Formal acceptance is received

Answer 47

ANSWER: D

Even if management considers the project to be complete or the team is disbanded, the project is not complete until administrative closure is done, customer acceptance is received, and lessons learned are captured.

Question 48

Using the following decision tree, determine the expected value of each decision node. Which product should the company pursue?

Make Product A or B—-Product A -$150k
| |
40% $250k profit 60% $1.2mm profit

                                 Product B -$200k
                                     |                 |
                   70% $300k profit        30% $225k profit

A. EMV for Product A=$100k;EMV for Product B=$150k;Make Product B

B. EMV for Product A=$50k;EMV for Product B=$70k;Make Product B

C. EMV for Product A=$670k;EMV for Product B=$77k;Make Product A

D. EMV for Product A=$1.05mm;EMV for PRoduct B=$225k; Make Product A

Answer 48

ANSWER: C

C is correct because the expected value of the Product A decision node is greater than that the Product B decision node. The expected value of the decision node is determined by factoring the path value by the probability of occurrence for the chance node, and then summing the EMV for all chance nodes on the decision node. Because this decision tree reflected the initial investment and profit expected from each chance node, the correct decision is the decision node offering the greatest EMV for the decision.

Question 49

In an fluence/Impact grid, you have identified a stakeholder who is low in influence and high in impact. The proper management technique for this stakeholder is:

A. Keep satisfied
B. Monitor
C. Manage closely
D. Keep informed

Answer 49

ANSWER: D

Answer A is for stakeholders who are high in influence and low in impact; B is for those stakeholders who are low in influence and low in impact; C is for stakeholders who are high in influence and high in impact.

Question 50

On a performance report, if CPI is 1.0, that means:

A. The project is on schedule
B. Schedule variance is zero
C. Cost variance is zero
D. ETC = BAC

Answer 50

ANSWER: C

The correct answer is C, cost variance is zero. Answers A and B are related to SPI and have nothing to do with CPI. Answer D is unrelated to cost performance index and is normally true only at the very beginning of a project

Question 51

The PMBOK notes that special consideration should be given to the process of releasing once their project work is complete. Why?

A. Proper project management always seeks to limit delays involved in sending resources back to the functional areas they were borrowed from.
B. Project managers should avoid the appearance of selfishness regarding project resources
C. The process of releasing resources requires more effort than resource acquisition
D. It lowers costs by better defining when and how team members will be released, as well as to help with team members uncertainty about their future after their project work is complete

Answer 51

ANSWER: D

Answer A is not the best answer because it focus is the functional area rather than the project. The same is true for answer B. Answer C is not directly addressed in the PMBOK and will always be project specific.

Question 52

As a PMP certified project manager, you have a professional and social responsibility to encourage the growth of project management in your company. To meet this requirement, you should do all of the following except:

A. Explain the value of project management to senior management
B. Show management how project management can help solve company problems
C. Read PM Network magazine
D. Train your project sponsor on current project management processes and tools

Answer 52

ANSWER: C

PM Network magazine is a great resource to learn about current trends and best practices, but simply reading it does not encourage the growth of project management in an organization.

Question 53

Which of the following procurement processes should you complete parallel to the Direct and Manage Project Work process?

A. Close Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Manage Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management

Answer 53

ANSWER: B

This is the only one that occurs during the Executing Process Group

Question 54

During the Develop Project Team process, you are hoping to improve the skills and cooperation among members of your team. Which of the following is one of the outputs of this process?

A. Team performance assessment
B. Work performance information
C. Team performance
D. Team Optimization

Answer 54

ANSWER: A

Question 55

As a PMP certified project manager, your number one priority is accomplishing the project work. After the project work is complete, you can exercise professional and social responsibility by helping the project team members gain knowledge and experience. What is the best way to help the project team to gain this knowledge and experience?

A. Go over the project info
B. Review your initial assumptions and assess their accuracy
C. Review and discuss lessons learned
D. Compare this project to previous projects

Answer 55

ANSWER: C

Question 56

You are having a difficult time resolving a conflict with one of your project team members in part because he has a traditional view of conflict. He believes all of the following EXCEPT:

A. It is inevitable and negative
B. It should be avoided
C. It is best resolved by avoiding it or with the intervention of upper management
D. it can lead to new ideas

Answer 56

ANSWER: D

Question 57

Project Communications Management involves the appropriate generation, election, dissemination, storage, and occasional disposition of project information. The overall focus of project communication is:

A. Making sure that the project stakeholders have been given an opportunity for input
B. Making sure that project stakeholder expectations have been met
C. Delivering the correct information to the correct person or group of people at the correct time
D. Delivering the correct information to senior leadership on a timely basis

Answer 57

ANSWER: C

Question 58

A project for which you are the project manager has endured numerous problems in product deliverable quality. At the last review, the project sponsor and other invited senior managers made it quite clear that quality is the most important of the various project constraints. When the next quality problem occurs, what would be the best action for you to take?

A. Change out team members, even if the schedule is in danger of slipping and cost were to increase
B. Increase the risk reserve
C. Crash the quality problem with external quality auditors
D. Fix the root cause of the quality problem, even if it meant increased cost and schedule slippage and other project constraints suffer

Answer 58

ANSWER: D

Answer C is in fact a proactive choice, but answer D speaks to the quality root cause and other project constraints that might be affected. Answer A may or may not solve the problem and B, increase the risk reserve is a good thing, but it does nothing to deal with the quality problem

Question 59

You learn from a former colleague of yours, who is a PMP certified project manager just like you are, that 100% of the project managers at his company are PMP certified. You now that one of the people is 21 yrs old, a junior in college, and has been working on projects for only 1 year. When you ask about this you are told the individual might have stretched a bit on the application, but what difference does it make? The individual passed the PMP certification exam. What should you do?

A. Contact PMI to report the potential violation
B. Tell your colleague that what has happened is not appropriate
C. Ignore it because it is not your problem
D. Ignore it because passing the PMP exam is all that matters

Answer 59

ANSWER: A