Bone Spavin, P1, Splint Bone, Proximal Sesamoid Fractures Flashcards

1
Q

What is bone spavin?

A

DJD of distal tarsal and TMT joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What term is used to describe the stance of this horse?

A

sickle-hocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: MRI can be as good as arthroscopy for detecting subchondral lesions

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the medical management options for bone spavin?

A
  • Intra-articular injections of corticosteroids and chondroprotectives
  • Phenylbutazone
  • Exercise

Medical management might be disappointing and lameness may persist in 25-50% of horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does laser-facilitated ankylosis work?

A

Destroys cartilage by superheating and vaporizing synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When drilling for P1 fractures, the most proximal screw must be within ____ of the sagittal groove

A

5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This horse has an incomplete fracture of P1. What is the recommended treatment?

A

Lag screw or cast only + strict stall rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: Many splint bone fractures can be treated successfully with rest

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F: Fetlock arthrodesis is considered a salvage procedure

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Fractured splint bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fracture of the middle aspect of the splint bone:

  • Are usually treated via removal of the fractured bone under general anesthesia
  • Usually result from external trauma and most commonly affect metacarpal IV and metatarsal IV
  • May cause suspensory dermitis
  • Often cause swelling of the MT region and do not require a nerve block for definitive diagnosis
  • All of the above
A

All of the above​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In cases of splint bone fracture, if you’re removing residual distal splint bone, it is important not to remove more than the distal 2/3 of the splint bone.

What is the exception?

A

Metatarsal IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: Proliferative periostitis is most common in older horses

A

False

Proliferative periostitis is most common in young horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: Splint exostosis is the result of straining and tearing of the interosseous ligament connecting the splint bone to the cannon bone

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F: Splint bone fractures are caused by hyperextension of the fetlock or external trauma

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__________ ligament connects the splint bone to the cannon bone

A

interosseous

Ligamentous injury results in desmitis and periostitis

17
Q

T/F: With appropriate treatment the prognosis for returning to racing with bucked shins is good

A

True

18
Q

This injury on the 3rd metacarpus is most commonly seen in which patient

  • 2-wk old foal that has been running after its dam
  • A yearling cold that has been castrated
  • 2 yr old race horse in training
  • A 8 year old mare QH used for barrel racing
  • None of the above
A

2 yr old race horse in training

(Image is of a bucked shin)

19
Q

How do you reduce the incidence of bucked shins?

A

regular short distance breezing and less long distance galloping

20
Q

T/F: Osteostixis is recommended for unicortical fractures of the splint bone

A

False

Osteostixis is recommended for unicortical fractures of the cannon bone ​

21
Q

VI represents a ________ fracture of the proximal sesamoid bones

A

comminuted

22
Q

III represents a ________ fracture of the proximal sesamoid bones

A

Base

23
Q

I represents a ________ fracture of the proximal sesamoid bones

A

Apical

24
Q

V represents a ________ fracture of the proximal sesamoid bones

A

Sagittal (Axial)

25
Q

__________ are the most common fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones

A

Apical fractures