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PUBLIC HEALTH > Biosecurity & Biocontainment > Flashcards

Biosecurity & Biocontainment Flashcards

1
Q

what is the goal of a biosecurity or biocontainment plan

A

prevent the transmission of infectious agents into and among individuals, groups of animals, farms or regions

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2
Q

The principles of biosecurity are to…

A

increase host resistance
eliminate disease reservoirs (Env)
prevent / eliminate transmission

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3
Q

what are intrinsic vs extrinsic elements of biosecurity

A

intrinsic = immune status, nutrition, genetics
extrinsic = movement pathways, segregation, physical barriers

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4
Q

Biosecurity plans are based on what

A

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points

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5
Q

the result of management practices to avoid introduction or reintroduction of disease agents to a facility or region

A

biosecurity

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6
Q

what are the exposure pathways to dairy cattle

A

Oral: contaminated feed/water
Inhalation: dust/manure particles
Physical: oronasal cavities, teat wounds
Indirect: fomites, vectors

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7
Q

Farm Biosecurity Risks (4)

A

Cattle from other premises
Feedstuff
Vehicles and People
Drinking water

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8
Q

how long should new cattle be isolated before introduction to herd

A

10 days -3 weeks

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9
Q

what are the most common diseases cattle are tested for

A
  • bovine diarrhea virus (BDV)
  • brucellosis
  • tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium avium, paratuberculosis
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus, Streptocossus
  • Neospora
  • Salmonella
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10
Q

common dairy cattle vaccinations

A

BVD
Brucellosis
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)
parainfluenza 3 virus
bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)

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11
Q

what is Biocontainment

A

result of actions to prevent the spread of disease agents among groups of animals at a facility or farm
- important backup to biosecurity

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12
Q

when after vaccination does immunity develop for cattle

A

~4 weeks

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13
Q

What are the methods of biocontainment maintenance on dairy farm

A
  • vaccinations
  • unidirectional flow of animals, people, materials
  • scheduled cleaning of facility + equiptment
  • newborn calf protocols
  • no feeding of leftover feed to young
  • logical milking order
  • avoiding direct contact b/w groups
  • limit exposure to recycled water
  • proper manure handling
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14
Q

how should new born calves be handled

A
  • move to individual stalls right after birth
  • give colostrum w/in 24 hours
  • vaccinate 3-4 weeks prior to moving to group pen
  • do not feed waste milk
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15
Q

what 4 main animal groups should be separated on a dairy farm

A

newborns
young stock and heifers
lactating cows
non-lactating cows

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16
Q

what are the common zoonoses in veterinary personnel

A

salmonellosis
cryptosporidiosis
plague
sporotrichosis
MRSA
psittacosis (avian chlamydiosis)
dermatophytosis
leptospirosis
Q fever

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17
Q

what vaccines should employees in the vet field have at minimum

A

Rabies
Tetanus
Influenza

18
Q

what is disease control

A

the reduction of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity or mortality to a locally acceptable level as a result of deliberate efforts

continued intervention measures are required to maintain reduction

combination of - initial intervention strategies, ongoing disease control strategies, monitoring and surveillance

19
Q

what is the eradication

A

CDC: permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection caused by a specific agent
Result of deliberate efforts
intervention measures no longer needed

20
Q

examples of successful global eradication programs

A

Smallpox - 1980
Rinderpest - 2011

21
Q

what are some ongoing global eradication programs

A
  • guinea worm disease
  • lymphatic filariasis
  • leprosy
  • tetanus
  • Chaga’s disease
  • measles
  • polio
22
Q

what are the 4 control and eradication options for animals

A
  1. depopulation and quarantine of new animals
  2. quarantine and remove positives
  3. quarantine, remove positives and vaccinate susceptible individuals
  4. quarantine and vaccination (or treatment)
23
Q

when should disease control and eradication include depopulation of current animals and the quarantining of new ones

A
  • highly contagious diseases, short incubation periods
  • disease is disruptive to production and economy
    ex: Foot and Mouth, HogCholera, Exotic Newcastle disease, Scrapie, Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, highly pathogenic avian influenza
  • test and slaughter entire herds
24
Q

what type of diseases warrant quarantine and removal of positives

A

when agent is not highly contagious or communicable, has a long incubation period during which infection is detectable

  • low disease prevalence

ex: Bovine TB, equine infectious anemia

  • test and slaughter individual animals
25
Q

what type of diseases warrant quarantine, removal of positives and vaccination of susceptible animals

A
  • when disease prevalence is higher and segregation of herds inadequate
  • removal of positives doesn’t stop transmission

ex: brucellosis

26
Q

what type of diseases warrant quarantine and vaccination

A
  • disease w/ high prevalnce but economic and production costs aren’t catastrophic
  • this method slows but doesn’t totally prevent transmission

ex: Leptospirosis, Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, bordatella

27
Q

what biosafety level would agents such as Bacillus subtilis, Naegleria gruberi, infectious canine hepatitis, non-pathogenic E.coli belong to

A

Biosafety Level 1

28
Q

characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 1

A

agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults

29
Q

characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 2

A

agents do not cause lethal infections and are not transmissible through air
agents are pathogens for which immunization or antibiotic treatment is available

30
Q

what biosafety level would agents such as measles, Salmonella, Toxoplasma, Clostridium botulinum and hepatitis B belong to

A

Biosafety level 2

31
Q

characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 3

A

agents w/ potential for respiratory transmission, may cause serious and potentially lethal infection

either prevention or treatment options exist

32
Q

what biosafety level would agents such as M. tuberculosis, St. Louis encephalitis, F. tularensis, Coviella burnetii, and Rabies belong to

A

Biosafety Level 3

33
Q

characteristics of diseases in Biosafety level 4

A

Dangerous and exotic agents w/ high risk of life-threatening disease, aerosol transmitted

34
Q

what biosafety level would agents such as Marburg, Ebola, Congo-Crimean hemorrhagic fever and lassa fever belong to

A

Biosafety Level 4

35
Q

BSL -1 Lab Locations

A

high schools, community colleges, municipal drinking water treatment facilities

36
Q

BSL -2 Lab Locations

A

local health depts, universities, state labs, private labs, industrial labs

37
Q

BSL - 3 Lab locations

A

state health dept, universities, private companies, industry, federal government

38
Q

BSL -4 Lab Locations

A

only ~13 facilities in US
most are federal (CDC, NIH) some are at universities, one is private

39
Q

primary precaution barriers in BSL 2 labs

A

biosafety cabinets or other containment devices

40
Q

primary precaution barriers in BSL 3 labs

A

same as BSL-2 but add respiratory PPE when needed

41
Q

primary precaution barriers in BSL 4 labs

A

BSL 2 + 3 precautions + full body air supplied positive pressure personal suit

PUBLIC HEALTH (18 decks)

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