Bardes Flashcards

0
Q

Unstable angina versus MI?

A

ST depressions, T-wave inversions, but no troponin elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Chest pain – rule out? (How?)

A
  1. M I – troponins/EKG
  2. PE – d-dimer/CT/VQ scan
  3. Aortic dissection – TEE, chest x-ray
  4. Pneumothorax – x-ray
  5. Pericarditis – EKG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MI treatment?

A
OH BATMAN
Oxygen
Heparin
Beta blocker
Aspirin
Thrombolytics
Morphine
Atorvastatin
Nitroglycerin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When to give thrombolytics over Cath Lab?

If Cath Lab, need what backup?

A

If Cath Lab is far away

Need CT surgery back up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Best response to aggressive patient with altered mental status?

A

Give 1:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When to perform a coronary artery bypass graft?

A

Three vessel disease or left main stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Problem with morphine for MI treatment?

A

Mask symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Severe chest pain with nausea and vomiting – think?

A

Inferior wall MI – phrenic nerve activation causes nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Any patient with a stent needs to be put on which drug? For how long?

A

Clopidogrel

1 month if bare-metal stent
12 months if drugs-eluding stent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Drugs appropriate for stable angina?

Drug appropriate for unstable angina and MI?

Drugs appropriate for MI only?

A

Aspirin, beta blocker

Aspirin, Plavix, heparin, beta blocker

+Thrombolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complicated UTI?

A
  1. Men or pregnant women
  2. Diabetics/renal failure
  3. History of pyelonephritis last year
  4. Urinary track obstruction (indwelling catheter, stent, nephrostomy tube)
  5. Antibiotic resistant organism
  6. Immunocompromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SIRS criteria?

A
  1. Temperatures over 30 or less than 36
  2. RR over 20 or PaCO2<32
  3. Heart rate over 90
  4. WBC over 12 or under 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Three different types of shock and physical exam findings (Temperature, venous distention, pulse)?

A

Hypovolemic shock (cool, flat veins, weak pulse)

Cardiogenic (cool, JVD, weak pulse)

Decreased peripheral resistance (septic, toxic, neurogenic) (warm, flat veins, strong pulse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Shock - treatment?

A
  1. IV fluids until CVP is 8 to 12, MAP greater than 65, SPO2 greater than 70
  2. 1 If no response - pressors (dopamine, then epinephrine)
  3. 2 If no response Dobutamine
  4. Broad-spectrum antibiotics (Ceftriaxone, then vancomycin + zosyn)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A
  1. Systolic dysfunction (decreased LV contractility)
  2. Diastolic dysfunction (decreased LV compliance)
  3. Mitral stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of systolic dysfunction?

A
  1. Ischemia
  2. dilated cardiomyopathy
  3. valvular disease
  4. arrhythmia
  5. myocarditis
  6. Milieu (electrolytes, thyroid hormone)
  7. Drugs (doxorubicin, alcohol, beta blockers, calcium channel blockers)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug that causes permanent systolic dysfunction?

A

Doxorubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Causes of diastolic dysfunction?

A
  1. Acute ischemia
  2. Thickened LV (hypertension, aortic stenosis, aortic coarctation, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)
  3. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (sarcoid, amyloid, hemochromatosis, Gaucher’s disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Systolic versus diastolic dysfunction – characteristic heart sound?

A

S3 versus S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

8 causes of secondary hypertension (and lab values needed to confirm)?

A

Kidney causes, hormone causes, drug causes

  1. Pheochromocytoma (serum catecholamines/urine metanephrines)
  2. Renovascular (renin)
  3. Real insufficiency (creatinine)
  4. Hypo/hyperthyroid (TSH)
  5. Cushing’s/adrenal hyperplasia (cortisol)
  6. Conns (aldosterone)
  7. Amphetamine/cocaine (urine toxicology)
  8. Sedative withdrawal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for systolic LV dysfunction that has a mortality benefit?

A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. Beta blockers (metoprolol, busiprolol, Coreg)
  3. Aldosterone receptor antagonists (spironolactone)
  4. Combination nitrates and hydralazine (and African-Americans)
  5. ARBS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Functions of beta blockers?

A
  1. Decrease afterload
  2. Increase filling
  3. Antiarrhythmic (mortality benefit)
  4. Less Remodeling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Advice for treatment for systolic LV dysfunction?

A
  1. Give lots of drugs in the highest dose (as long as heart rate and blood pressure can tolerate)
  2. Do not give ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and beta blockers in combination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment for systolic LV dysfunction that do not have a mortality benefit?

A
  1. Digoxin
  2. Diuretics
  3. Nitroglycerin/nitrates alone
  4. Hydralazine alone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Treatment for diastolic left ventricular dysfunction?
1. Beta blockers (decrease heart rate to increase feeling time) 2. Calcium channel blockers
25
Non-cardiogenic causes of fluid in alveolar space?
1. Infection 2 ARDS 3. Sepsis 4. Trauma
26
The patient with URI – could treat with?
Antibiotics – but don't do it (almost always viral)
27
Drugs that can treat strep PNA?
``` Penicillin All cephalosporins Macrolides Tetracycline Fluoroquinolones Bactrim Vancomycin Clindamycin ```
28
Antibiotics that will not treat H. influenzae? Antibiotics that will not treat atypical PNA?
Penicillin, first-generation cephalosporin Penicillin, all cephalosporins, vancomycin
29
Treatment for patients younger than 60 with community acquired pneumonia? Treatment if patient is over 60 or with comorbidities? Treatment of immunocompromised ? Treatment of aspirational pneumonia?
1. Macrolides 2. Fluoroquinolones 1. Fluoroquinolone 2. Ceftriaxone plus macrolide Add gentamicin Add clindamycin
30
Treatment of hospital acquired pneumonia?
(All first line) Ceftazadine/cefepime Carbapenem Zosyn Or fluoroquinolone plus aminoglycoside
31
PNA Bugs: Patients over 65 years with comorbidities – additional bacteria to worry about? If immunocompromised/in-hospital/recent antibiotic use? If aspiration?
HACEK Pseudomonas, Klebsiella Peptococcus, actinomyces
32
Why not broad-spectrum antibiotics for all? Exception?
1. Resistance 2. Opportunistic infections (Candida, C diff) 3. Cost 4. Toxicity Section: patients with immune reserve (leukemia, immunosuppressed)
33
Aminoglycosides in order of effectiveness/toxicity?
Amikacin (always causes deafness) >tobramycin >gentamicin
34
General causes of transaminase elevations?
1. Infections 2. Toxins 3. Metabolic 4. Vascular
35
Infectious causes of elevated transaminases?
1. Viral: (hepatitis A, B, C, E, EBV, CMV, HSV, HIV, HVZ, measles) 2. Bacteria (Salmonella typhi, leptospirosis) 3. Mycoplasma (MAI) 4. Fungi 5. Parasites (malaria, babesia)
36
Drugs and toxins that cause elevated transaminases?
1. Drugs: antiepileptics, statins, leukotrienes, antifungal's, antivirals, acetaminophen, and NSAIDs 2. Alcohol and organic solvents 3. Natural: aflatoxin, amanita
37
Metabolic diseases that cause elevated transaminases?
1. Inborn (Wilson's, hemachromatosis, alpha1-anti-trypsin) 2. Fatty liver, obesity, diabetes, starvation 3. Autoimmune (anti-smooth muscle antibodies)
38
Vascular disturbances that cause elevated transaminases?
1. Arterial (shock liver) 2. Venus (Budd Chiari, cardiac, pulmonary hypertension) 3. Capillary (DIC, TTP, HUS)
39
General causes of increased alkaline phosphatase?
1. Mechanical Obstruction 2. Ileus 3. Mass lesions
40
Mechanical obstructions that increase alkaline phosphatase?
1. Cholangiocarcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma 2. Obliteration – PBC, PSC 3. Stone 4. Stricture
41
Biliary Obstruction caused by ileus that leads to increased alkaline phosphatase?
1. Severe illness 2. Pregnancy 3. Drugs (sulfonylureas)
42
Mass lesions that increase alkaline phosphatase?
1. Cysts (especially from helminths - echinococcus, entamoeba) 2. Abscesses 3. Granulomas (TB, sarcoid, syphilis) 4. Malignant Neoplasms - HCC 5. Benign tumors – hemangiomas
43
Lab values that are a measure of liver function?
PT, Bilirubin, albumin
44
Most common cause of fatigue?
Depression
45
Causes of prerenal azotemia?
1. Renovascular 2. Shock 3. Third spacing
46
Two general causes of intrarenal azotemia?
1. Glomerular | 2. Interstitial
47
Causes of glomerular intrarenal azotemia? (distinguishing feature?)
1. Glomerulonephritis (RBC casts) 2. Glomerular sclerosis (sonogram) 3. Nephrotic (3.5+ proteinuria) 4. Collagen vascular
48
Interstitial causes of intrarenal azotemia? (Distinguishing feature?)
1. ATN (muddy brown casts) 2. Acute interstitial (eosinophils) 3. Pyelonephritis (WBC cast)
49
Causes of postrenal azotemia?
1. Mechanical (prostate, stones, strictures, malignancies) 2. Neurogenic bladder 3. Drugs (anticholinergics, sympathomimetics, drugs with anticholinergic side effects)
50
Causes of acute interstitial nephritis?
Beta-lactam's, NSAIDs
51
Drugs with anticholinergic side effects?
Tricyclics, antipsychotics, antihistamines, opioids
52
Total capacity bladder? Residual capacity after urination?
500 mL; 50 mL
53
Post strep glomerulonephritis – look for?
ASO titers
54
Creatinine clearance formula?
((140 - age)/creatinine) * (weight/70) * (.8 if female)
55
Creatinine clearance values and interpretation?
``` >80 – normal 50-80 – mild renal failure 30-50 – moderate 15-30 – severe <15 – failure ```
56
Management of suspected meningitis?
1. Two or three sets of blood cultures 2. Steroids decrease meningeal damage 3. Empiric Antibiotics 4. CT scan (to rule out malignancy) 5. LP within six hours 6. Droplet isolation
57
Why get a CT scan with suspected meningitis?
Otherwise lumbar puncture can cause herniation
58
Endocarditis – prophylaxis if? What drug to use for prophylaxis?
1. Congenital valve defect 2. Mechanical valve 3. Prior endocarditis Amoxicillin
59
Bugs that cause endocarditis?
Gram-positive >Coxiella >HACEK >candida
60
Treatment for uncomplicated UTI? Treatment for complicated UTI? Treatment if pregnant?
Bactrim three days Fluroquinolone to 14 days Nitrofurantoin
61
Causes of post operation fever?
``` Wind – aerobic Water – UTI Walking – DVT Wound Wonder (drug) ```
62
Imaging for fatty liver?
Sonogram
63
Increased alkaline phosphatase – imaging?
Sonogram/CT
64
mechanisms of diarrhea? Example? (Which continues despite fasting?)
1. Hypersecretion – Cholera (continues despite fasting) 2. Inflammation– Crohn's disease (continues despite fasting 3. Hypermotility– Hyperthyroidism 4. Malabsorption– Celiac sprue 5. Osmotic– Pancreatic insufficiency