Assignments/Quizzes Exam 4 Flashcards by Caroline Sparks

Skin is the largest body organ, constituting ________ of the body weight.
5% to 10%
15% to 20%
25% to 30%
35% to 40%

15-20%

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What is the primary function of fibroblasts in the dermis?

Collagen synthesis for skin strength and wound healing
Synthesis of keratin
Perception of heat, cold, pain, itching
Production of apocrine sweat

Collagen Synthesis for skin strength and wound healing

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Which of the following is true about skin lesions?

Ulcer and scaly skin are considered primary lesions.

Wheal and vesicle are considered secondary lesions.

Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication.

Most birthmarks require treatment.

Skin lesions can result from the reaction to radiotherapy or medication

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Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing?

AST and ALT
Prealbumin and hematocrit
Albumin and bilirubin
TSH and ACTH

Prealbumin and hematocrit

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Which of the following is true about aging and the integumentary system?

For women, excessive facial hair may occur along the upper lip and around the chin.
Gray hair and balding are visible indications of skin changes associated with aging.
With aging, blood vessels within the dermis are reduced in number, and the walls are thinned.
All the above

All of the above

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Which of the following is true about skin infection?

Herpes zoster is bacterial infection. !
Athlete’s foot (Tinea Pedis) is fungal infection.
Cellulitis is a viral infection.
Warts (Verrucae) are parasitic infections.

Athletes foot is a fungal infection

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Which of the following is true for first-degree burn?

Normally with little or no pain.
- Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause.
Large thick-walled blisters covering extensive area.
Superficial partial-thickness burn heals in 14-21 days.

Ultraviolet exposure can be the cause

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You are working in an ICU and treating a 34-year-old female patient who has sustained second- and third-degree burns over her front chest, abdomen, and front left upper extremity. Using the Wallace rule of nines, total body surface area (TBSA) is

9%
18%
22.5%
Over 36%

22.5

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______ account for approximately 75% (43% flame or fire; 34% scalding) of all burn center admissions

Chemical burns
Electrical burns
Thermal burns
Radiation burns

Thermal burns

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Extensive burns result in generalized body ______ in both burned and nonburned tissues and a ______ in circulating intravascular blood volume

inflammation; decrease
erythema; increase
edema; decrease
pain; increase

edema; decrease

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___ is the most common and life-threatening complication of burn injuries.

Abscess
Gangrene
Infection
Hypertrophic scarring

Infection

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Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?

Autograft are usually cadaver skin.
Allografts are typically pigskin.
Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics.
Xenografts are the person’s own skin.

Biosynthetic grafts are a combination of collagen and synthetics

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What are the three classic determinants of burn mortality?

TBSA, age, and inhalation injury
Location, depth, and age
Temperature, source of energy, and duration
Family history, degree-burn, and sec

TBSA, age, inhalation injury

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Which of the following are the common medical complications of gastrointestinal system on a person with burn?

Paralytic ileus
Appendicitis
Diverticulosis
Peptic ulcer

Paralytic ileus

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Which of the following body parts would get pressure injuries the most easily?

Clavicle and sternum
Scapula and elbow
ASIS and pubic tubercles
Medial epicondyle and medial malleolus

Scapula and elbow

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Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis is considered ______ pressure injury.

stage 1
stage 2
stage 3
stage 4

stage 2

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Which of the following patient populations may have higher risk of infection if they develop pressure injuries on the skin, because they are unable to mount a sufficient inflammatory response to start the healing?

Type 2 diabetes
Eczema
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Low back pain

Type 2 diabetes

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Which of the following is appropriate medical management for a patient with pressure injuries?

Negative pressure wound therapy
Adequately redistribute the pressure
Electrical stimulation
All of the above

All of the above

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Which of the following is the common cardiovascular sign or symptom in integumentary system?

Cyanosis
Intermittent claudication
Syncope
Myalgias

Cyanosis

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Which of the following is true about aging and the cardiovascular system?

The hearts of older persons pump more blood to peripheral organs than that of a younger person.

Vascular aging involves epithelial dysfunction and increase in arterial wall thickness and stiffness.

Age-related decline in steroid hormones triggers a feedback loop to elevate cholesterol concentrations.

Aerobic capacity, measured as peak oxygen uptake (VO2), is increased in aging.

Age-related decline in steroid hormones triggers a feedback loop to elevate cholesterol concentrations.

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Which of the following lab results can be mostly identified on a person with metabolic syndrome?

Blood pressure 115/75 mm Hg
Fasting blood glucose 95 mg/dL
Triglyceride 200 mg/dL
HDL (high-density lipoprotein) 55 mg/dL

Triglyceride 200

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When athero mas (plaques of fatty deposits) form in the inner layer (intima) of the arteries, it is called _____.

Mönckeberg arteriosclerosis
Atherosclerosis
Arteriolosclerosis
Arteriolar sclerosis

Atherosclerosis

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Which of the following surgical management is primarily for atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries?

Ambulatory electrocardiography
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)
Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator
Echocardiogram (Echo)

CABG

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Which of the following medications can treat hypertension?

α-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists and Direct Renin Inhibitors

Calcium Channel Blockers and Angiotensin-
Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors

Diuretics and β-Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists (β Blockers)

All of the above

All

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What is true for angina pectoris? Any condition that decrease the blood (oxygen) supply or increase blood (oxygen) demand of the myocardium can cause myocardial ischemia. Pain that spreads to the throat, neck, back, jaw, shoulder or arms is one of the most common warning signs of heart attack. Anemia can cause myocardial ischemia. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension? Personality traits (hostility, sense of hopelessness) Age (>55 years) Family history Ethnicity

Personality traits

_________ is a disturbance of heart rate or rhythm caused by an abnormal rate of electrical impulse generation by the sinoatrial (SA) node or the abnormal conduction of impulses. Myocardial infarction Heart failure Arrhythmia (dysrhythmia) Pericarditis

Arrhythmia

Which of the following is the risk factor for deep venous thrombosis? Neurologic disorder (e.g., spinal cord injury, stroke) Prolonged air travel Childbirth and delivery All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is true about lymphatic system? The thoracic duct carries far less lymph than the left lymphatic duct, draining mainly the right arm and head, the heart and lungs, and the anterior chest wall. It is designed to absorb macromolecules (protein and fatty acids); help maintain fluid balance in the tissues; fight infection; and assist in the removal of cellular debris and waste products from the extracellular spaces. Superficial vessels generally parallel the venous system. Deep vessels generally parallel the nervous system.

It is designed to absorb macromolecules (protein and fatty acids); help maintain fluid balance in the tissues; fight infection; and assist in the removal of cellular debris and waste products from the extracellular spaces.

Which of the following body region contain more lymph nodes? Anterior knee Axillary Calcaneus Scalp

Axillary

What is true about lymph nodes? As lymph flows from the periphery to the root of the limbs and on to the central circulation, it passes through many lymph nodes, which act as filters to cleanse the lymph of waste products and cellular debris. Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and macrophages. Lymph nodes offer 100 times the normal resistance to flow of lymph within the lymphatic vessels themselves, which explains why they are often the sites of obstruction in lymphatic dysfunction. All of the above

All of the above

What is lymphadenopathy? Enlargement of the lymph nodes Inflammation of a lymphatic vessel An increased amount of lymph fluid in the soft tissues Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

Enlargement of the lymph nodes

What is true for lymphedema? Most commonly seen in the axillary and inguinal areas. In advanced cases of lymphedema, loss of skin integrity allows portals of entry for bacteria to invade the skin and cause recurrent infection The most common cause of secondary lymphedema in the US is filariasis. Stage I (one) lymphedema is referred to as lymphostatic elephantiasis.

In advanced cases of lymphedema, loss of skin integrity allows portals of entry for bacteria to invade the skin and cause recurrent infection

In what type of anemia would one see red blood cells of various SIZES? Microcytic Anisocytosis Poikilocytosis Macrocytic

Anisocytosis

Pernicious anemia is caused by autoantibodies that block the formation of the _____. sodium B12-intrinsic factor complex folate iron

B12-intrinsic factor complex

Lack of clotting factor _____ causes hemophilia A. I IX V VIII

VIII

Which of the following could be the cause of hemolytic (destruction of erythrocytes) anemia? Excessive menstruation Bone marrow failure Hemoglobinopathies (e.g., sickle cell diseases) Nutritional deficiency

Hemoglobinopathies

Which of the following is true for complete blood count (CBC)? Decreased hematocrit (Hct) may indicate there is an anemia caused by blood loss. Increased erythrocyte (rec cell count) may indicate there is a dietary insufficiency of iron and vitamins. Hemoglobin (Hb) measures the percentage of whole blood occupied by red blood cells (RBCs). A patient with thrombocytopenia may have platelets count above 400,000 / mm3

Decreased hematocrit (Hct) may indicate there is an anemia caused by blood loss.

Which of the following is true on skin transplantation for person with burn?

Autograft are the persons own skin

The two primary causative factors for the development of pressure injuries are ___ depth and duration interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces location and moisture activity levels and of consiciousness

interface pressure (externally) and pressure with shearing forces

Which of the following is true about clinical manifestations for pressure injuries? proteolytic enzymes from bacteria an macrophages dissolve necrotic tissues, which can result in foul-smelling discharge pressure injuries usually occur over bony prominences pressure injuries often manifest with a circular pattern shaped like an inverted volcano, with the greatest tissue ischemia at the apex next to the bone all of the above

all of the above

Which of the following are intrinsic factors most associated with pressure injury development? Hemoglobin, hematocrit, prealbumin, total protein, and lymphocytes impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, impaired nutritional status pressure, shear, friction, moisture all of the above

impaired mobility, incontinence, diaphoresis, impaired nutritional status

Which of the following is true about treatment for pressure injuries? therapeutic modalities such as ultrasound and electrical stimulation can be used Eliminating or limiting associated risk factors as much as possible is the first step in preventing the occurrence of pressure injuries in stage 3 pressure injuries, undamaged tissue near the wound can be rotated to cover the ulcer all of the above

all of the above

What is the primary function of mast cells in the dermis? Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors Antigen presentation production of apocrine sweat energy storage and balance

Provide histamine for vasodilation and chemotactic factors

Which of the following lab values are the most relevant to skin lesions and wound healing? Hemoglobin and total-protein Calcium and Vitmain D Triiodthyonin and thyroxnie triglycerides and glucocorticords

Hemoglobin and total-protein

Which of the following is true about integumentary system? Hormonal abnormalities may result in excessive facial and body hair in woman and male-pattern baldness in men Wrinkling signifies loss of elastin fibers, weakened collagen and decreased subcutaneous fat The epidermis is one of the body's principle suppliers of vitamin D all of the above

all of the above

Which of the following is true about skin infection? impetigo is a bacterial infection athletes foot is a viral infection Pediculosis is fungal infection Ringwork is parasitic infection

impetigo is a bacterial infection

Which of the following is true for partial-thickness burn? also called third-degree burn painful desquamation in 3-7 days no blisters

painful

a male has full thickness burns on his bilateral lower extremities, using the wallace rule of nines TBSA is 9% 18% 27% over 30%

over 30%

Why do children have a higher risk of burns inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries diminished pain perception weakened inflammatory response all of the above

inadequate supervision and abuse with scald injuries

Obscured full-thickness skin and tissue loss is considered ___ pressure injury stage 4 stage 3 stage 2 unstageable

unstageable

Which of the following tools can be used for risk assessment evaluating both sensation and physiologic risk of pressure injuries? lund and browder wallace rules of nines braden scale wagner scale

braden scale

Which of the following are the common medical complications in a burn-injured adult? stressed-induced gastric ulcer stasis dermatitis herpes zoster actinic keratosis

stressed induced gastric ulcer

Which of the following lab results on lipid panel might be a concern in an adult patient at high risk for heart disease? total cholesterol 250 LDL 50 HDL 85 Triglycerides 100

total cholesterol 250

What is true for lymphedema? physical impairments can lead to functional limitations and disability along with potential for psychosocial morbidity stage IV lymphedema is the most sever type and referred to as lymphostatic elephantiasis most seen in cervical areas most common cause of primary lymphedema worldwide is filariasis

physical impairments can lead to functional limitations and disability along with potential for psychosocial morbidity

Which of the following is true about aging and the cardiovascular system? the max HR or the highest HR during exercise declines with age the hearts of older persons pump more blood to peripheral organs than that of a younger person vascular aging involves epithelial dysfunction increase in arterial wall thickness and stiffness the hearts of older persons have higher capillary density than that of a younger person

the max HR or the highest HR during exercise declines with age

Which of the following could be the cause of anemia associated with decreased production of erythrocytes? diverticulosis bleeding peptic ulcer bone marrow failure autoimmune hemolytic anemia

bone marrow failure

Which of the following are non-modifiable risk factors of primary hypertension? obesity and diabetes high sodium intake white coat hypertension age and sex

age and sex

What is lymphadenitis? Enlargement of the lymph nodes inflammation of the lymphatic vessel an increased amount of lymph fluid in the soft tissue inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

inflammation of one or more lymph nodes

Which of the following is a disorder of hemostasis? von WIllebrane disease anermias lyme disease arrhythmias

von WIllebrane disease

Which of the following is a localized region of necrosis caused reduction of arterial perfusion? infarction thrombus edema emolus

infarction

Pernicious anemia is caused by loss of ____ potassium vitamin B6 iron B12-intrinsic factor complex

B12-intrinsic factor complex

Which of the following medical technologies can be used to evaluate your heart valves are working correctly? electrocardiogram external cardiac monitoring echocardiogram electromyography

echocardiogram

The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the ____ right subscapular axillary nodes right-deep inguinal nodes right deep popliteal nodes lumbar nodes

right subscapular axillary nodes

Hemophilia A results from a lack of clotting factor _ and constitutes 80% of all cases of hemophilia

VIII

In what type of anemia would one see red blood cells of various SHAPES hyperchronic poikilocytosis anisocytosis macrocytic

poikilocytosis

Which of the following medications can be primarily used to treat angina? hemostatic antiarrhythmics B-adrenergic receptor antagonists (B blockers) antibiotics

B-adrenergic receptor antagonists (B blockers)

Which of the following clincal magnifications can be seen on a person with orthostatic hypotension? fall organ ischemia syncope all of the above

all of the above

What is the most common renal cell carcinoma? Adenocarcinoma Chondrosarcoma Papillary carcinoma Clear cell cancer

Clear Cell cancer

Pain in the _____ during the early days of dialysis is referred to as "first use syndrome." pelvis and hip shoulder and back chest and back pelvis and chest

chest and back

A urinary tract infection (UTI) that has spread to the kidneys is referred to as _____. pyelonephritis nephritis uncomplicated UTI kidney-dominated UTI

pyelonephritis

What bacterium is most often responsible for urinary tract infection (UTI)? Escherichia coli Staphylococcus saprophyticus Klebsiella Enterococcus

E coli

Pyuria is evidenced by what type of cell in the urine? T cells B cells Leukocytes Red blood cells

Leukocytes

What type of kidney stones are common in people with gout? Cystine stones Uric acid stones Calcium stones Struvite stones

Uric acid stones

Which of the following is the least common cause of chronic kidney disease? Hypertension Glomerulonephritis Cystic kidney disease Diabetes

Cystic kidney disease

In what stage of chronic kidney disease does uremia develop? Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 Stage 5

stage 5

With impairment of the glomerular filtration rate, the body is unable to excrete _____ or synthesize _____. calcium; vitamin B phosphate; vitamin B phosphate; calcitriol sodium; calcitriol

phosphate; calcitrol

Which of the following is not a common site for extraskeletal calcification associated with chronic kidney disease? Bladder Skin Peripheral arteries Lungs

Bladder

What type of prostatitis is diagnosed when a man does not complain of pain or discomfort but has white blood cells in his semen? Chronic bacterial prostatitis Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis Acute bacterial prostatitis Chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome

Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis

Which of the following pathogens is associated with acute prostatitis? Proteus mirabilis Escherichia coli Klebsiella pneumoniae Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E coli

Why does the prostate increase in weight as a man ages? It fills with old red blood cells It fills with urine It begins to fibrose Cells die at a slower rate

Cells die at a slower rate

What does a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test measure? Protein in the bloodstream secreted by cells in the prostate gland Protein in the urine secreted by cells of the prostate gland Flow rate of urine The weight of the prostate gland

Protein in the bloodstream secreted by cells in the prostate gland

urinary incontinence is often related to detrusor instability, a condition in which the bladder contracts at small volumes, often in response to triggers such as running water or arriving home. Functional Stress Urgency Overflow

Urgency

What is the primary indication for dalteparin? Anticoagulants Antiseizure Antianxiety Antiarrhythmics

Anticoagulants

_____ nerves originate in the spinal cord at the level of S2, S3, and S4, and innervate the bladder wall via the ___ nerve. Parasympathetic; pelvic Sympathetic; hypogastric Somatic; pudendal Sensory; pelvic

Parasympathetic; pelvic

Urination is initiated with voluntary relaxation of the followed by relaxation of the and contraction of the to squeeze the urine out of the bladder. detrusor muscle; external urethral sphincter; pelvic floor muscle abdominal muscle; pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter; detrusor muscle detrusor muscle; abdominal muscle; pelvic floor muscle

pelvic floor muscle; internal urethral sphincter; detrusor muscle

There are three layers of the pelvic floor muscles from superficial to deep. The levator ani muscle (the deepest layer) is made up of external anal sphincter, the sexual muscle (bulbocavernous and ischiocavernous), and the transverse perineal muscles sphincter urethra and urethrovaginal sphincter puborectalis, pubococcygeus, coccygeus, and ischiococcygeus muscles All of above

puborectalis, pubococcygeus, coccygeus, and ischiococcygeus muscles

Which of the following is the symptom when the pelvic floor muscles are over activity? Obstructive voiding Urinary incontinence Fecal incontinence Pelvic organ prolapse

obstructive voiding

What is true about UTI? the symptoms may include pain at the shoulder men have higher incidence than women virus accounts for most of pathogens exposure to asbestos and/or cadnium have been linked to an increased risk of developing a UTI

the symptoms may include pain at the shoulder

What is true about bladder function? the pontine micturition is located in the spinal cord parasympathetic nerves originate in the spinal cord at the level S2 S3 S4 and innervate the bladder wall via the pudendal nerve normal voiding interval is a minimum of 2 hours (often in the elderly) and usually 2-3 hours between voids for others the internal urethral sphincter is a voluntary skeletal muscle

normal voiding interval is a minimum of 2 hours (often in the elderly) and usually 2-3 hours between voids for others

What type of kidney stones is the most common cystine stones uric acid stones calcium stones struvite stones

calcium stones

Which of the following is considered part of the lower urinary tract? Kidney Renal pelvis Ureter Bladder

Bladder

Which of the following types of urinary incontinence occurs during activities that increase intrabdominal pressure?

stress

Which of the following is a risk factor for urinary incontinence? taking diuretics or narcotic analgesics diabetes mellitus and depression cystocele or uterine prolapse all of the above

all of the above

What is the primary indication for lidocaine? anticoagulants local anesthetic antianxiety sedative-hypnotic

local anesthetic

There are three layers to the pelvic floor muscles from superifical to deep, The most superficial layer of the PFMs includes obturator internus, externus, superioir gemellus, inferior gemeullus, piubrecticalis, pubococcygeus, and ischiococcygeus muscles external anal sphincter, the sexual muscle (bulbocavernous and ischiocavernous) and the transverse perineal muscles sphincter urethra and urethrovaginal puborectalis, pubococcygeus, coccygeus, ischiococcygeus muscles

external anal sphincter, the sexual muscle (bulbocavernous and ischiocavernous) and the transverse perineal muscles

In chronic kidney disease, proteinuria is the hallmark of stage 2 stage 3 stage 4 stage 5

stage 4

What type of prostatitis is the most commonly seen in the PT clinic?

chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome

What are the metastases of prostate tumors most located? femur spine humerus tibia

spine