(AOM) Definitions (Deep Dive) (AOM 1.3.0) Flashcards

1
Q

Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)

A

The runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for the acceleration and deceleration of an aircraft rejecting takeoff. ASDA may be longer than the physical length of the runway when a stopway has been designated available by the airport operator, or it may be shorter than the physical length of the runway if necessary to use a portion of the runway to satisfy runway design standards. ASDA is the distance used to satisfy the aircraft accelerate-stop distance performance requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abnormal Procedure

A

Procedure requiring use of special systems or alternate use of normal systems. Applying the procedure maintains an acceptable level of airworthiness, or reduces the operational risk resulting from a failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Accelerate-Stop Distance

A

The distance required to accelerate the aircraft, recognize an engine failure so that the first action to stop (brake application) is initiated at V1, and then bring the aircraft to a full stop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Abnormal Situation

A

A situation that has the potential of escalating to emergency if corrective action is not taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Actual Landing Distance (ALD)

A

Distance used in landing and braking to a complete stop (on a dry runway) after crossing the runway threshold at 50 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adjusted VREF

A

Sum of VREF plus additives due to non-normal situation or condition (e.g., partial flap configuration).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ALT

A

Synonymous with Altitude Alerting Device (AAD).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Assigned SID

A

The departure procedure contained in an ATC clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Baro-VNAV

A

An RNAV system that uses barometric altitude information to present vertical guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Basic Empty Weight (BEW)

A

Empty weight of the aircraft (includes required and optionally installed equipment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Basic Operating Weight (BOW)

A

Sum of BEW and non-variable weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blast Pads and Overruns

A

Surfaces adjacent to the ends of a runway, not to be confused with a clearway or stopway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Clearway (CWY)

A

A defined rectangular area beyond the end of the runway, cleared or suitable for use in lieu of runway to satisfy takeoff distance requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Contaminated Runway

A

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the required runway length, within the width being used, is covered by:
* standing water deeper than 1/8 in., or
* any depth of frost, ice, snow, slush.

If the section of the runway surface that is covered by standing water is located where rotation and liftoff will occur, or during the high speed part of the takeoff roll, the retardation effect is more significant than if it were encountered early in takeoff at low speed. In this situation, it is better to consider the runway contaminated rather than wet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contingency Fuel

A

Fuel quantity added to XTR line on flight release at request of PIC to allow for extended endurance for known or anticipated conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA)

A

An approach at an angle that results in continuous descent on the final approach segment of a non-precision approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DAAP (Destination Airport Analysis Program)

A

DAAP allows the planned landing distance (factored) to be up to 80% of the available runway length, instead of the regulatory standard of 60%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Declared Distances

A

All 14 CFR Part 139 airports report declared distances for each runway. Declared distances for a runway represent the maximum distances available and suitable for meeting takeoff and landing distance performance requirements. Such declared distance may be longer or shorter than the physical length of the runway shown on charts or other publications or in navigation databases (FMS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Derived Decision Altitude (DDA)

A

A Derived Decision Altitude is calculated by adding 50 ft to the published MDA or DA when published in lieu of MDA on non-precision approach. Ensures the aircraft will not descend below MDA if missed approach is initiated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Digital Copy

A

Documents or information displayed on an EFB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Divergence Point

A

Any point where actual flight path departs from the prescribed flight path of the Engine-Out Procedure (EOP) (e.g., accepting ATC vector, on course turn after 400 ft AFE from uncontrolled field).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EICAS

A

Synonymous with EIS/CAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Electronic Checklist (ECL)

A

Information displayed in aircraft avionics system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Emergency Situation

A

Situation that requires immediate response and landing at a suitable airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Emergency Procedure

A

Procedure requiring use of normal or special systems in order to protect occupants and aircraft from injury or damage. Usually requires accomplishment of immediate action items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Factored Landing Distance

A

The AFM dry landing distance, adjusted by FAR for flight planning purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Field Condition Report (FICON)

A

A NOTAM showing Runway Condition Codes and surface conditions on runways, taxiways, and aprons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Flap Retraction Altitude (FRA)

A

Altitude during takeoff at which flaps are retracted for maximum performance; varies according to conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hard Copy

A

Documents or information presented in paper format.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Identified SID as EOP

A

An EOP that has been analyzed and follows a named SID (e.g., Teterboro RUUDY4 FMS RNAV Departure Procedure).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Immediate Action Item

A

Action which is accomplished in a timely manner, without the need to refer to a written procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Land as Soon as Possible

A

Land at the nearest suitable airport. Unless reference to alternate Abnormal Before Landing procedures is made, use of Normal Approach and Before Landing procedures is assumed. Extreme situations could require an off-airport landing. Primary consideration is the safety of occupants.

33
Q

Land as Soon as Practical

A

Land at a suitable airport. Unless reference to alternate Abnormal Before Landing procedures is made, use of Normal Approach and Before Landing procedures is assumed. The primary consideration is the urgency of the emergency or abnormal situation. Continuing to the destination or an alternate with appropriate service facilities may be an option.

34
Q

Landing Distance

A

The distance from a point 50 ft above the runway surface to the point at which the aircraft can come to a full stop under the existing conditions.

35
Q

Landing Distance Available (LDA)

A

The runway length declared available and suitable for a landing aircraft. LDA may be shorter than the physical length of the runway or the length of the runway remaining beyond a displaced threshold, if necessary, to satisfy runway design standards. For example, the LDA is where the airport operator uses a portion of the runway to achieve the runway safety area requirement.

36
Q

Landing Field Length (LFL)

A

Actual landing distance multiplied by 1.67.

37
Q

Landing Weight

A

Sum of ZFW and fuel onboard at landing.

38
Q

Lateral and Vertical Guidance Approach

A

Approach that uses course and descent guidance (e.g., ILS, LPV- WAAS, LNAV-VNAV).

39
Q

Lateral-Only Guidance Approach

A

Approach that provides course guidance only (e.g., LOC, VOR, LNAV).

40
Q

Left Pilot (LP)

A

Pilot occupying the left Pilot seat.

41
Q

Limitation

A

A system, component, structural or procedural limit that must be adhered to.

42
Q

Minimum Flap Speed

A

Minimum speed for current flap setting under normal flight conditions (e.g., bank angle less than 30°).

43
Q

Minimum Release Fuel

A

The minimum release fuel (MIN) displayed on the flight plan is defined as follows: POA + ALT (If required) + RES.

44
Q

Minor Malfunction

A

Degraded condition in an aircraft system or component that has no impact on the ability to safely proceed to the filed destination, but requires Crew awareness.

45
Q

Non-Normal

A

Any situation or condition that involves a problem or malfunction during flight operations.

46
Q

Non-RNAV EOP

A

An EOP based on Short Range Navigation information (e.g., headings, DME fixes, radials).

47
Q

Non-Variable Weight

A

Sum of personnel, equipment, and supplies necessary for a particular operation, but not included in BEW.

48
Q

Normal Procedure

A

Procedures used during typical routine operations without any unusual conditions (e.g., absence of icing, turbulence, other considerations).

49
Q

Obstacle

A

Any man-made or natural object that must be cleared during takeoff and landing.

50
Q

Parking Brake

A

Component used to hold aircraft stationary without need to apply pressure on brake pedals.

51
Q

Performance Data Computation System (PDCS)

A

Obstacle-based performance system for flight planning.

52
Q

Pilot Flying (PF)

A

The PF’s primary responsibility is to control and monitor the flight path (including monitoring flight guidance automated systems, if engaged). The PF is secondarily responsible for monitoring other actions (radio communications, aircraft systems, other Crewmembers and other operational activities) but must not allow this to interfere with the primary responsibility of controlling and monitoring the flight path.

53
Q

Pilot Monitoring (PM)

A

The PM’s primary responsibility is to monitor the flight path (including autoflight systems, if engaged) and to immediately bring any concern to the PF’s attention. The PM is secondarily responsible for accomplishing other actions (e.g., radio communications, aircraft systems, other operational activities), but must not allow this to interfere with the primary responsibility of monitoring the flight path.

54
Q

Ramp Weight

A

Sum of ZFW and fuel loaded.

55
Q

Right Pilot (RP)

A

Pilot occupying the right Pilot seat.

56
Q

RNAV EOP

A

An EOP based on Long Range Navigation using named waypoints.

57
Q

RSA or RESA

A

A runway safety area (RSA) or a runway end safety area (RESA) is a clear area at the end of a runway intended to decrease the possibility of aircraft damage in the event of an undershoot or overshoot. Both ICAO and FAA regulations establish standard distances for these safety areas. However, many runways cannot meet these guidelines and are granted waivers or use engineered Material arresting system (EMAS). EMAS is an area of specially designed aerated cement blocks that stop an aircraft in an emergency.

58
Q

Runway Condition Code (RwyCC)

A

A numerical representation (0 = braking action NIL, to 6 = Dry Runway Conditions) of the runway condition, based on contaminants present on each third of the runway (e.g., 4/3/2). While the presence of contaminant is the primary input in assigning a RwyCC, the code may be adjusted depending on other factors, such as temperature, MU measurements, and Pilot reports. Use of the RwyCC harmonizes with ICAO Annex 14 (ICAO SNOWTAM Codes) although foreign airport operators use different criteria in determining an ICAO RwyCC. If Field Condition NOTAMS are issued or Braking Action Advisories are in effect, accomplish takeoff or arrival performance assessment based on current runway conditions. When accomplishing performance assessment using the RwyCC, use the lowest number in the report for the portions of the planned runway. Example: If 2/2/1 is reported and a performance assessment using RwyCC 2 indicates the aircraft cannot stop in the first two thirds of the runway, RwyCC 1 must be used to complete the final assessment. If 3/4/1 is reported and a performance assessment using RwyCC 3 indicates the aircraft can stop in the first two thirds of the runway, RwyCC 1 may be ignored for the final third of the runway.

59
Q

Special

A

Procedures or conditions not encountered during normal, routine operations.

60
Q

Speedbrake

A

Secondary flight control used to reduce lift and airspeed.

61
Q

Stopway (SWY)

A

An area beyond the takeoff runway able to support the aircraft during rejected takeoff. It is designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the aircraft during rejected takeoff.

62
Q

Supplemental

A

Alternative procedures (other than non-normal) used when normal procedures cannot be used or are used occasionally due to extenuating circumstances. They may be performed from memory or referred to in the appropriate chapter (e.g., APU Start, APU Shutdown, alternate means of starting an engine, fuel transfer).

63
Q

Tailored Route EOP

A

A custom-designed EOP flown as a Non-RNAV EOP or RNAV EOP.

64
Q

Tailored Visual Departure Procedure

A

A departure procedure requiring navigation using visual references for all or part of the procedure.

65
Q

Takeoff Distance Available (TODA)

A

The takeoff run available plus the length of any remaining runway or clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff run. TODA is the distance declared available that satisfies takeoff distance requirements for aircraft where certification and operating rules and available performance data allow for the consideration of a clearway in takeoff performance calculations.

66
Q

Takeoff Run Available (TORA)

A

The runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking off. TORA is typically the physical length of the runway, but it may be shorter than the runway length, if necessary, to satisfy runway design standards.

67
Q

Takeoff Weight (TOW)

A

Ramp weight minus the amount of fuel used for engine start and taxi out.

68
Q

Thrust lever

A

Engine speed control. As used in this manual, it is synonymous to throttle or power lever.

69
Q

Transient Objects

A

Temporary obstacles such as ships, trains, or cranes.

70
Q

Trigger

A

Event that signals when to accomplish a task.

71
Q

V1 (Takeoff Decision Airspeed)

A

The maximum speed below which the Pilot must initiate the first action (brake application) to discontinue a takeoff. Above V1 the takeoff must be continued. Varies with weight, temperature, alti- tude, runway gradient, and operation of Anti-Skid and Anti-Ice systems.

72
Q

V2 (Takeoff Safety Airspeed)

A

The actual speed attained at 35 ft above the runway surface with engine failure and the aircraft rotated at VR. V2 is at least 1.2 VS and varies according to gross weight.

73
Q

VAPP

A

Missed approach climb speed. VS x 1.23 with flaps 2 and landing gear Up.

74
Q

VFTO

A

Final takeoff speed, and minimum engine-out en route climb speed (180 kts). Provides the best engine-out rate of climb (altitude vs. time) with flaps up.

75
Q

VR (Rotation Airspeed)

A

The speed at which aircraft rotation is initiated. Varies with weight, altitude, and temperature.

76
Q

VREF (Reference Airspeed)

A

Reference airspeed in landing configuration for actual landing weight.

77
Q

Wet

A

A runway is considered wet when more than 25% of the required runway length, within the width being used, is visibly damp or is covered with water 1/8 in or less.

78
Q

Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW)

A

Weight of the aircraft and all its contents without fuel onboard.