Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

.► FARMACOLOGIA CLÍNICA - JP > Antiviral Questions > Flashcards

Antiviral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for the outmost layer that covers most viruses?

A

Viral envelope, composed of elements of the host

  • cell membrane
  • endoplasmic reticulum
  • or nuclear envelope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the viral envelope cover?

A

Capsid

-shell composed of identical building blocks of capsomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the capsid protect?

A

Viral nucleic acid

-either DNA or RNA

–single or double stranded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why do many viruses contain enzymes?

A

To catalyze reactions that

-lead to their replication

or

-cell entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can viruses self replicate?

A

No

  • cannot synthesize their own components to replicate
  • dependent on host cellular processes for all synthetic functions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are virions?

A

Individual complete particles of virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do retroviruses work?

A

RNA genetic material translated into DNA via reverse transcriptase

  • then integrates into the host genome
  • then transcription into mRNA
  • then translation into protein
  • then viral enzymes assemble the pieces of the puzzle into complete virions
  • then released from the cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For viral infections, are patient specific susceptibility results available?

A

Rarely

  • therapies chosen based upon general patterns of susceptibility for that type of virus
  • HIV is the exception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can viruses be cultured?

A

Yes, but:

-many viral illnesses diagnosed through genetic testing for viral antigens or nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are viral infection followed to see if they improve?

A

Usually symptoms followed

-tests are not usually followed quantitatively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which agents are primarily used against herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VSV)?

A
  • acyclovir
  • valacyclovir
  • famciclovir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is acyclovir’s absorption orally?

A

Poor

-must be given up to five times daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which HSV/VZV agent is the only one available in an IV form?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are valacyclovir and famciclovir?

A

Pro-drugs

  • absorbed better
  • can be administered less frequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the agent of choice for serious HSV infections (ex: encephalitis)?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the MOA of anti-HSV/VZV agents?

A

Nucleoside analogs that (after phosphorylation) are incorporated into the elongating viral DNA strand just like cellular nucleotides

  • lack the functional group that allows the next nucleotide to be added
  • halts replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What organisms do anti-HSV/VZV agents have GOOD activity against?

A
  • HSV-1

- HSV-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What organisms do anti-HSV/VZV agents have MODERATE activity against?

A

-VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What organisms do anti-HSV/VZV agents have POOR activity against?

A
  • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
  • cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are anti-HSV/VZV agents tolerated?

A

Generally well tolerated with few adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most concerning adverse effect of anti-HSV/VZV agents?

A

Nephrotoxicity

-through either crystallization
or
-acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)

-most commonly associated with higher doses of IV acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can acyclovir crystallization be prevented?

A
  • hydration

- correct dosing in renally impaired patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some CNS effects that can occur with anti-HSV/VZV agents?

A
  • seizures
  • tremors
  • other CNS effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the more common adverse effects associated with anti-HSV/VZV agents?

A
  • nausea
  • diarrhea
  • rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What adverse effect has been reported with valacyclovir in HIV patients?

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is valacyclovir?

A

Pro-drug of acyclovir

  • substantially improved bioavailability
  • less frequent dosing
  • higher cost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is famciclovir?

A

Pro-drug of penciclovir

-penciclovir only available as a topical preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe acyclovir dosing.

A

Varies widely by:

  • indication
  • host status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is acyclovir most toxic?

A

When given in combination with:

-diuretics
or
-other nephrotoxins

-keep patients hydrated during therapy (especially if given in higher IV doses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the acyclovir the drug of choice for?

A

Severe or difficult to treat HSV infections; ex:

  • encephalitis
  • severe HSV outbreaks among HIV patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can infections can any anti-HSV/VZV agent be used to treat?

A

HSV-2 infections (genital herpes)

-to prevent outbreaks
or
-decrease symptom duration

Effective in treating VZV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is one thing to consider when prescribing anti-HSV/VZV agents?

A

Cost

-oral acyclovir is less convenient but much less expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the anti-cytomegalovirus (CMV) agents?

A
  • Gangciclovir
  • Valgangciclovir
  • foscarnet
  • cidofovir
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe CMV.

A
  • causes infections that are usually asymptomatic in immunocompetent patients but devastating in immunocompromised patients
  • ~60% of Americans become seropositive for CMV by adulthood; infection is lifelong
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do anti-CMV agents work?

A

Prevent viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the MOA of val/gangciclovir?

A

Nucleoside analogue

  • after phosphorylation, integrates into viral DNA by DNA polymerase
  • halts viral replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the MOA of cidofovir?

A

Nucleotide analogue

-similar MOA to gangciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the MOA of foscarnet?

A

Pyrophosphate analogue

-acts as a noncompetetive inhibitor of the DNA and RNA polymerase of multiple viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What organisms do anti-CMV agents have GOOD activity against?

A
  • CMV
  • HSV-1
  • HSV-2
  • VZV
  • EBV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What organisms do anti-CMV agents have POOR activity against?

A

-HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are adverse effects that can occur from any anti-CMV agent?

A
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the adverse effects of val/gangciclovir?

A

Myelosuppression

  • dose dependent
  • relatively common
  • particularly when used in higher doses or in renally impaired patients without dose adjustment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are adverse effects of foscarnet?

A
  • nephrotoxic
  • neurotoxic
  • penile ulcers
  • reserved for patients who have failed other therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What adverse effect dose cidofovir cause?

A

Exhibits nephrotoxicity

-uncommonly used drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What drug has replaced oral gangciclovir?

A

Valgangciclovir

-has much better bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are some considerations when dosing gangciclovir?

A
  • patient weight

- renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the package insert of valgangciclovir specify for dose adjustments?

A

Adjustments based on renal function but not weight

-dose reduction should be considered in underweight patients (especially if at high risk of toxicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What strengths is valgangciclovir available in?

A
  • 900mg

- 450mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does valgangciclovir compare to gangciclovir in regards to dosing?

A

900mg BID of valgangciclovir considered equivalent to 5mg/kg q12h of IV gangciclovir

  • may be much more for an underweight patient
  • about 60% bioavailable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is required with foscarnet and cidofovir to reduce the risk of nephrotoxicity?

A

Extensive prehydration regimens with normal saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which drug is coadministered with cidofovir?

A

Probenecid

-reduces excretion of cidofovir into the renal tubules and lessens the toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Is genotype based susceptibility testing available for CMV?

A

Yes

-performed if resistance suspected in patients not responding to gangciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does genotype based susceptibility testing for CMV reveal?

A
  • whether gangciclovir resistance present

- whether cidofovir or foscarnet are therapeutic options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are gangciclovir and valgangciclovir first line drugs for?

A

Treatment and prevention of CMV infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is valgangciclovir often given for?

A

Prevent CMV infections after transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is foscarnet used for?

A
  • 2nd line agent for CMV

- can also be used for severe or resistant HSV infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is cidofovir used for?

A

2nd line agent for CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is something to consider when prescribing valgangciclovir?

A
  • oral
  • has good bioavailability
  • adverse effects identical to those of gangciclovir (requires same rigorous toxicity monitoring as for IV gangciclovir)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Name the neuraminidase inhibitors?

A
  • Oseltamivir (oral pro-drug)
  • peramivir (IV)
  • zanamivir (inhaled)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are neuraminidase inhibitors used for?

A

Treatment or prophylaxis of influenza for those who cannot take the vaccine

-active against both A and B strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What strains of influenza are amantadine and rimantadine good for?

A

Only A strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How do neuraminidase inhibitors work?

A

Prevent the viral neuraminidase enzyme from releasing new virions from the host cell

-prevents further replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the MOA of neuraminidase inhibitors?

A

Competitive inhibitors of viral neuraminidase

  • an enzyme responsible for several functions of the influenza virus
  • including release of new virions from infected cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Are neuraminidase inhibitors active against any other viruses besides influenza?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How are the neuraminidase inhibitors tolerated?

A

Generally well tolerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the adverse effects of oseltamivir use?

A

Transient effects

  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • abdominal pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What adverse effects of oseltamivir are more likely with prophylactic longer term use?

A
  • headache

- fatigue

68
Q

What are the adverse effects of zanamivir use?

A

Mostly pulmonary effects

  • cough
  • bronchospasm
69
Q

In what patients should zanamivir use be avoided?

A

With asthma or other reactive pulmonary diseases

70
Q

What adverse effects does peramivir have?

A

No characteristic effects based on limited experience

71
Q

When are neuraminidase inhibitors most effective?

A

When started early in the course of infection

-viral replication peaks early (48-72 hours after infection)

72
Q

What does the package insert for neuraminidase inhibitors state about starting therapy in healthy adults with mild-moderate infections?

A

Should be started in patients who have been symptomatic for no more than 2 days

73
Q

What does the package insert for neuraminidase inhibitors state about starting therapy in patients with severe infections?

A

Those that require hospitalization or vulnerable patients

  • may be benefit even if therapy is delayed
  • treatment guidelines recommend starting even if outside the “window” for these patients
74
Q

Does resistance to neuraminidase inhibitors occur?

A

Yes

  • currently zanamivir is active against vast majority of oseltamivir and peramivir resistant strains
  • resistance patterns may change
75
Q

What is important to remember about neuraminidase inhibitors for prophylaxis?

A
  • not substitutes for the vaccine

- adverse effects more common with prolonged use with prophylactic use than with shorter uses for treatment

76
Q

What are the neuraminidase inhibitors good for?

A

Treating and preventing influenza infections

  • if circulating strains are susceptible
  • vast majority of data was with uncomplicated influenza
77
Q

When is a good time NOT to start a neuraminidase inhibitor?

A

Otherwise healthy and flu has peaked and they are improving

-counsel about the vaccine for next season

78
Q

What are interferons?

A

Normal human cytokines

  • used by the immune system to activate cells when:
  • infection is present
  • fight cancerous cells
  • other functions
79
Q

For what diseases are interferons given exogenously?

A
  • multiple sclerosis
  • cancers
  • viral hepatitis
80
Q

What is the MOA of interferons?

A

Multiple MOA against hepatitis B and C

  • different antiviral effects
  • change cellular differentiation
  • inhibit cell growth
  • activate macrophages
  • increase lymphocyte cytotoxicity
81
Q

What are pegylated interferons?

A

Have molecules of polyethylene glycol (PEG) attached to the interferon molecules to improve their PK by increasing their half lives

-allows for decreased administration frequency

82
Q

What interferons are used for HBV and HCV infections?

A

Interferon-α (alpha) 2a and 2b

-only pegylated forms currently recommended

83
Q

What do the adverse effects of interferons cause?

A

Adverse effects are very common; lead to:

  • noncompliance
  • patient dropout
  • avoidance of use
84
Q

What are the most common adverse effects of interferons?

A

Flu-like symptoms

  • headache
  • fatigue
  • weakness
  • fever
  • myalgia
85
Q

What are some other common adverse effects of interferons?

A
  • psychiatric

- hematologic

86
Q

Describe interferon psychiatric effects.

A

Depression is common

  • often requires pharmacologic treatment
  • patients with suicidal ideation should not be given interferons

Anxiety can occur

87
Q

Describe interferon hematologic effects.

A

Cytopenias

  • neutropenia
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
88
Q

What is usually the primary cause of anemia in HCV treatment?

89
Q

What can interferons worsen?

A

Decompensated cirrhosis

-generally not given to these patients

90
Q

How often are pegylated interferons given?

A

Once weekly

91
Q

How often are non-pegylated interferons given?

A

Three times weekly

92
Q

What are the advantages of pegylated interferons?

A
  • improved compliance and convenience
  • adverse effects somewhat lessened
  • efficacy is similar or somewhat higher
93
Q

What affects interferon dosing?

A
  • agent
  • indication
  • recommended dose of ribavirin also differs for each form for HCV infection
94
Q

Which pegylated interferon is more effective for HCV infection?

A

Both have equivalent efficacy

95
Q

For HCV infection, how is pegylated interferon-α 2a dosed?

A

Given as a fixed dose

96
Q

For HCV infection, how is pegylated interferon-α 2b dosed?

A

Dosed by weight

97
Q

Which pegylated interferon is FDA approved for HBV infection?

A

2a

-2b has been studied as well

98
Q

In which conditions are interferons contraindicated?

A

Severe depression or patients contemplating suicide

  • interferons commonly cause or exacerbate depression
  • ensure that HCV patient’s depression is controlled (pharmacologically if necessary) before starting; generally no rush to treat chronic HCV infection
  • for HBV, other drugs are a better choice for depressed patients
99
Q

For what infection has interferon use declined substantially?

A

HCV

-due to the advent of new direct-acting antiviral agents

100
Q

What drugs are preferred over interferons for chronic HBV infection?

A

Nucleoside/nucleotide analogs due to much better adverse effect profile but are taken indefinitely

-interferons have a finite regimen

101
Q

What is simeprevir?

A

HCV protease inhibitor

102
Q

What is paritaprevir?

A

HCV protease inhibitor*

103
Q

What is grazoprevir?

A

HCV protease inhibitor *

104
Q

What is boceprevir?

A

HCV protease inhibitor

105
Q

What is telaprevir?

A

HCV protease inhibitor*

106
Q

What is daclatasvir?

A

HCV NS5A inhibitor

107
Q

What is elbasvir?

A

HCV NS5A inhibitor*

108
Q

What is ledipasvir?

A

HCV NS5A inhibitor*

109
Q

What is ombitasvir?

A

HCV NS5A inhibitor*

110
Q

What is sofosbuvir?

A

HCV NS5B (polymerase) inhibitor

111
Q

What is dasabuvir?

A

HCV non-nucleoside polymerase inhibitor

112
Q

What are combination directing acting HCV agents?

A
  • paritaprevir/ombitasvir/ritonavir
  • grazoprevir/elbasvir
  • ledipasvir/sofosbuvir
113
Q

Which 2 serine protease inhibitors were introduced in late 2011 for HCV infection?

A
  • boceprevir
  • telaprevir
  • quickly became obsolete as more potent and better tolerated agents became available
114
Q

What is the usual treatment duration for direct acting HCV agents?

A

3-4 months

  • cure rates ranging from 80-100%
  • much better tolerated than ribavirin plus interferon based regimens
115
Q

What is the price of direct acting HCV agents?

A

Can be $1,000 per day

116
Q

What are DAAs?

A

Direct acting antivirals

-along with ribavirin

117
Q

What are indirect acting anti-HCV agents?

A

Interferons

-have indirect effects

118
Q

Which HCV agents inhibit RNA polymerases?

A
  • NS5B

- non-structural

119
Q

How do NS5A inhibitors work?

A

Not exactly clear

120
Q

How are most direct acting HCV agents available?

A

Coformulated in fixed combinations

121
Q

How many genotypes of HCV can cause infection in humans?

A

At least 6

-DAAs differ in their activity against each

122
Q

Which genotype of HCV is the most prevalent in the US

A

Genotype 1 (comes as 1a and 1b)

123
Q

How active are protease inhibitors against HCV genotype 1?

A

Have potent activity

124
Q

Which protease inhibitors have limited activity against other HCV genotypes?

A
  • simeprevir

- paritaprevir

125
Q

Against what HCV genotypes are NS5A and NS5B inhibitors active against?

A

Broad spectrum of activity against various HCV genotypes

126
Q

Why is ritonavir added to ombitasvir and paritaprevir?

A

Solely as a PK booster

-has no anti-HCV activity

127
Q

How are HCV DAA’s tolerated?

A

Most are well tolerated; typically only mild toxicities

  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • fatigue
128
Q

What effects is simeprevir associated with?

A

Photosensitivity

  • limit sun exposure
  • wear sunscreen

Transient elevations in bilirubin

  • frequently seen
  • do not appear to be associated with significant hepatotoxicity
129
Q

What effects is sofosbuvir associated with?

A

Symptomatic episodes of bradycardia

  • rare
  • almost all occurred in context of concomitant amiodarone
130
Q

What effects is elbasvir/grazoprevir and ombitasvir/paritaprevir/ritonavir associated with?

A

Hepatic decompensation in some patients

  • particularly in those with pre-existing cirrhosis
  • closely monitor ALT
131
Q

When is treatment interruption recommended when on elbasvir/grazoprevir and ombitasvir/paritaprevir/ritonavir?

A
  • substantial asymptomatic elevations of ALT (> 10 fold ULN)
  • lower elevations that are associated with symptoms of hepatitis
  • jaundice
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • abdominal pain
132
Q

What is the interaction profile of DAAs?

A

Lots of interactions

  • CYP450
  • P-glycoprotein
  • organic anion transporter
  • high prevalence of HIV-HCV coinfection (interactions with antiretrovirals)
133
Q

Which DAAs are recommended to be administered with food?

A
  • simeprevir
  • ombitasvir/paritaprevir/ritonavir
  • dasabuvir
134
Q

For which DAA is presence of gastric acidity important for absorption?

A
  • ledipasvir/sofosbuvir
  • avoid acid-suppressing agents
  • carefully time administration if must take them
135
Q

For which patients is the addition of ribavirin or pegylated interferon to DAAs still recommended?

A

For some genotypes and patient populations

-cirrhotic patients

136
Q

Does resistance to DAAs emerge during therapy?

A

Yes

-seems to correlate with failure to eradicate HCV

137
Q

Which DAAs have the lowest genetic barrier for resistance?

A
  • dasabuvir
  • NS5A inhibitors
  • simeprevir
138
Q

Which DAAs have higher genetic barriers for resistance?

A
  • other protease inhibitors

- sofosbuvir

139
Q

When is testing for DAA resistance mutations recommended before starting therapy?

A
  • those with prior exposure to DAAs
  • some patients with cirrhosis
  • clinical significance of resistance mutations to DAAs is less well established than for HIV antiretrovirals
140
Q

What types of infections is ribavirin used for?

A
  • HCV (increases both effectiveness and toxicity of regimen when added on)
  • respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
  • active against many different types of virus (influenza and adenovirus)
141
Q

What is the MOA of ribavirin?

A

Not well characterized

  • is a nucleoside analogue of guanosine
  • phosphorylated into its active form inside cells
  • technically a direct acting HCV antiviral but is considered separately from the DAAs
142
Q

What is the main adverse effect of ribavirin?

A

Hemolytic anemia

  • dose-related
  • dose-limiting
  • may be severe
143
Q

Which other drug can exacerbate the anemia of ribavirin when coadministered for HCV?

A

Interferons

-cause cytopenias as well

144
Q

What effects is ribavirin associated with?

A
  • fatigue
  • headaches
  • insomnia
  • difficult to determine whether these effects caused by ribavirin, interferons, or both (but clinically it doesn’t matter what drug causes it just the fact that they must be monitored for)
145
Q

Can ribavirin be used as monotherapy for HCV?

A

No

  • rapidly leads to resistance
  • must ALWAYS be used in combination
146
Q

How is ribavirin usually administered?

147
Q

What is aerosolized ribavirin used for?

A

Pulmonary RSV infection

  • young children
  • immunosuppressed adults
  • lung

or

-hematopoietic stem cell transplants

148
Q

Why is administering aerosolized ribavirin technically complex?

A

Efforts need to be made to reduce environmental exposures

  • is a known teratogen
  • studies show orally administered form may be just as effective
  • many centers moving away from inhaled (at least in adults)
149
Q

What pregnancy category is ribavirin?

A

Category X

  • causes birth defects
  • fertile women taking it should use reliable contraception
  • pregnant women and healthcare workers should avoid aerosolized ribavirin
150
Q

How is ribavirin-induced anemia primarily managed?

A

Dose reduction

151
Q

How is ribavirin induced anemia managed if it becomes severe or persistent?

A

Erythropoietin can be given

152
Q

When is ribavirin used for RSV?

A

Severe RSV

  • aerosolized or oral
  • children and adults
  • primarily immunocompromised patients

or

-severe comorbidities

153
Q

What must be monitored while on ribavirin?

A

Hemoglobin concentrations

-expect some degree of anemia

154
Q

What is Entecavir?

A

HBV nucleoside analog

155
Q

What is adefovir?

A

HBV nucleoside analog

156
Q

What is telbivudine?

A

HBV nucleoside analog

157
Q

Why can HBV nucleoside analogs compete for viral enzymes with native viral nucleosides?

A

Because HBV is a DNA virus

-similar competitive process as they do for reverse transcriptase

158
Q

How does treatment with HBV nucleoside analogs differ from interferon based therapy?

A
  • is prolonged

- well tolerated

159
Q

Which nucleoside/tide analog is drug of choice in both HIV and HBV?

160
Q

What is the MOA of HBV nucleoside analogs?

A

Inhibit the action of viral DNA polymerase

  • take the place of nucleotides in the elongating strand of viral DNA
  • leads to early termination of the viral DNA strain
161
Q

Which viruses are HBV nucleoside analogs active against?

A

HBV

HIV

-not primarily used for HIV

162
Q

How are HBV nucleoside analogs tolerated?

A
  • very well tolerated by most patients

- low incidence of adverse effects

163
Q

What are some possible adverse effects with HBV nucleoside analogs?

A
  • fatigue

- elevations in creatinine phosphokinase (this may be associated with HBV itself rather than the drug)

164
Q

What is an uncommon adverse effect of HBV nucleoside analogs?

A

-lactic acidosis

165
Q

How do doses for HBV nucleoside analogs compare with HIV dosing?

A

HIV doses are higher than HBV doses

  • patients with known HBV should be tested for HIV before starting therapy
  • when using an analog (like lamivudine or tenofovir) for HBV/HIV co-infection, give in the higher HIV doses
166
Q

Do HBV nucleoside analogs (plus tenofovir) cure HBV?

A

Are drugs of choice for HBV but do NOT cure it

-can repress it to the point that it does not progress

.► FARMACOLOGIA CLÍNICA - JP (50 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions