Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

To minimize side effects and maximize efficacy, most anesthesiologists employ balanced anesthesia, meaning they utilize small doses of

A

Multiple agents

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2
Q

Minimal amounts of amnestied and opioid given and patient is still able to converse and respond to timelines and commands

-Able to protect airway and maintain ventilation

A

Conscious Sedation

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3
Q

Involves decreases in responsiveness to painful stimuli and commands and ability to protect airway and maintain normal ventilation

A

General Anesthesia

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4
Q

Once the patient has lost the ability to protect the airway, it is considered

A

General anesthesia

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5
Q

The only gaseous anesthetic is

A

Nitrous Oxide

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6
Q

Liquid at room temperature such as the halogenated ethers

A

Volatile anesthetic

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7
Q

Used primarily for maintenance except in pediatrics where it is used for induction

A

Volatile Anesthetic

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8
Q

The driving force for uptake of inhaled anesthetic to its target organ is

A

Alveolar Fraction (or Alveolar partial pressure) of anesthetic

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9
Q

Which two things lead to a high onset (FA)

A

Increased F1 and increased alveolar ventilation

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10
Q

The more insoluble the anesthetic is the

A

Faster the onset

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11
Q

What is the order of solubilities of the anesthetics?

A

ISO > SEVO > DES > N2O

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12
Q

Alveolar ventilation is the most important factor in

A

Emergence

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13
Q

A minor factor in emergence

A

Metabolism

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14
Q

What is the degree of metabolism for the inhaled anesthetics?

A

SEVO > ISO > DES > N2O

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15
Q

Measure of potency of anesthetic

A

Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)

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16
Q

The partial pressure of inhalation anesthetic in the alveoli at which 50% of the population of non-relaxed patients remain immobile at skin incision

A

MAC

17
Q

Increase respiratory rate and decrease Vt for an overall decrease in minute volume

A

Inhaled anesthetic affects on respiration

18
Q

Inhaled anesthetics cause a decrease in

A

BP

19
Q

Can potentially cause. Decrease in methionine synthase activity, causing megaloblastic anemia

A

Nitrous Oxide

20
Q

Hypermetabolic syndrome in generally susceptible patients after exposure to triggering agents

A

Malignant Hyperthermia

21
Q

Caused by a decrease in reuptake of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

-Incidence is rare

A

Malignant Hyperthermia

22
Q

Prolonged muscle contraction leading to hyperthermia, hypercapnia, hypoxia, and hyperkalemia

A

Malignant hyperthermia

23
Q

Given as the antidote to malignant hyperthermia

-Inhibits release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Dantrolene

24
Q

What are the three IV anesthetics?

A

Propofol, Etomidate, and Ketamine

25
Q

Are all lipophilic, so there is preferential partitioning into highly perfumed lipophilic tissues

A

Propolof, etomidate, and ketamine

26
Q

Have rapid redistribution from highly perfumed tissues into lean tissues for quick offset of action

A

Propofol, etomidate, and ketamine

27
Q

Used for induction and maintenance of general anesthetic as well as sedation

-Milk of amnesia

A

Propofol

28
Q

A non-analgesic GABA agonist

  • Vasodilatory and negatively inotropic
  • Antiemetic
A

Propofol

29
Q

Used for induction and short sedation

  • Minimal hemodynamics effects
  • GABA agonist
A

Etomidate

30
Q

Respiratory depressant that burns on injection

A

Etomidate

31
Q

Phencyclidine derivative that gives dissociative anesthesia w/ nystagmus (cataleptic state)

A

Ketamine

32
Q

Airway reflexes are preserved in most situations with

A

Ketamine

33
Q

Hallucinations and unpleasant emergence may occur with

-Co-administration of a benzodiazepine is recommended

A

Ketamine

34
Q

Used for sedation or adjunct to general anesthesia

A

Dexmedetomidine

35
Q

An alpha-2 agonist that acts as both a sedative and analgesic

A

Dexmedetomidine

36
Q

The receptors for dexmedetomidine are in the

A

Locus Ceruleus and spinal cord