ANATOMY PRACTICAL FINAL Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

The Femoral nerve innervates ?

A

Anterior compartment (Action: knee extension, hip flexion)

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2
Q

The sciatic nerve innervates what compartment ?

A

Posterior compartment of thigh (action: hip extension, knee flexion)

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3
Q

The gemellus superior and _________ _________ are innervated by what nerve?

A

Obturator internus

Innervated by the nerve to the obturator internus

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4
Q

The inferior gemellus and quadratus femoria are innervated by what nerve?

A

Nerve to the quadratic femoris *from sacral division

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5
Q

What nerve innervates the short head of the bicep femoris?

A

Sciatic Nerve fibular division

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6
Q

What nerve innervates the biceps femoris long head?

A

Sciatic nerve tibial division

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7
Q

The tibial nerve travels with what artery?

A

Posterior tibial artery

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8
Q

Deep fibular nerve travels with what artery?

A

Anterior tibial artery

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9
Q

Name the O and I of rectus femoris

A

O: AIIS
I:Tibial tuberosity

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10
Q

Name the O and I of the sartorius

A

O: ASIS
I: pes anserinus
(Proximal, medial, anterior, tibial shaft)

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11
Q

O and I of vastus intermedius

A

O: anterior and lateral surfaces of the femur

I: tendon of the quadriceps

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12
Q

O and I of vastus lateralis

A

O: greater trochanter of femur
I: patella via quad tendon; tibial tuberosity via the patellar ligament

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13
Q

Compare and contrast extensor digitorum longus and flexor digitorum longus

A

Ext. dig. Long. Is on anterior side of lower leg, lateral from tibialis anterior. Inserts into distal phalanges of digits 2-5 and extension of digits 2-5

Flexor digitorum longus - most medial side of deep calf (Part of TOM, DICK, and HARRY), insertion to inferior surfaces of the distal phalanges of digits 2-5

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14
Q

T or F

Splenius capitis involves ipsilateral rotation of the head

A

T

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15
Q

T or F

Semispinalis cervicis action involved contrilateral rotation of the head

What is contralateral rotation

A

T

Turning the head away from the side of the body that contains the muscles performing the action

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16
Q

Name some muscles that contralaterally rotate the head

A

SCM, multifidus, semispinalis cervicis,

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17
Q

Name some muscles involved in ipsilateral rotation of the head

A

Splenius cervicis, splenius Splenius capitis, obliquus capitis inferior, rectus capitis posterior major, obliquus capitis superior

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18
Q

The femoral artery divides into what artery and then they artery divides into what two arteries?

A

Popliteal artery

Then divides into the posterior tibial artery and anterior tibial artery

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19
Q

Name the O: and I: of the biceps femoris long head and then short head

A

Long head
O: Lateral surface of the head of the fibula

I: Lateral surface of the head of the fibula

Short head
O: Linea aspera of the femur
I: Lateral surface of the head of the FIBULA

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20
Q

What is the O: I: and action of piriformis

A

O: anterior side of sacrum between S1 and 4

I: greater trochanter

A: Lateral rotation, abduction of the thigh at the high

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21
Q

Differentiate Tibialis posterior from fibularis tertius.

A

TP-
Originates interossei us membrane, posterior surface of tibia
inserts on navicular bone

FT-
Originates anterior surface of fibula
inserts on dorsal surface of the base of metatarsal 5 (Anterior side of calf region)

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22
Q

What are Tom, dick, and harry? Where do they insert?

A

*All go behind medial malleolus
Tom - tibialis posterior, inserts tuberosity on navicular bone and slips to cuneiforms metatarsals 2-4

Dick - Flexor digitorum longus (MUSCLE IS MOST MEDIAL, but crosses tibialis, posterior tendon), Inserts inferior surfaces of the distal phalanges of digits 2-5

Harry - flexor hallucis longus (most lateral of the three) inserts inferior surface of the distal phalanx of digit 1 (great toe)

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23
Q

Name the O: I: and action of the sartorius

A

O: ASIS
I: PES anserinus
A: Flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of thigh at the hip

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24
Q

Name the O: I: and action of the rectus femoris

A

O: AIIS
I: common tendon fo the quadriceps
A: extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the hip

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25
Name the muscles of the femoral triangle and the structures that run through this triangle.
Sartorius, adductor longus, inguinal ligment Femoral artery and nerve run through this triangle
26
What components run through the suboccipital triangle?
Vertebral artery Suboccipital nerve
27
Who does avulsion fractures affect the most:
Active adolescents and young adults who have not reached skeletal maturity
28
What is an apophyseal avulsion fractures?
Sudden forceful muscular contraction causes avulsion of apophysis to which the tendon attaches
29
What attaches to an apophysis?
Tendon or ligament
30
What is an apophysis?
Normal secondary ossification center that is in the non-weight bearing part of a bone
31
Muscle involved with avulsion of iliac crest:
Abdominals
32
What is a fracture through the sacral ala caused by?
Osteoporosis
33
T or F An apopophysis does not contribute to length of the bone, but contributes to bone growth
T
34
What is the intercrestal line?
Place a dot on the top of both iliac crests and connect them Level will be L4 in males and L5 in females
35
Avulsion of ischial tuberosity
Hamstring
36
Why is the apophysis more prone to injury?
Cartilaginous growth plate is weaker than the adjacent bone, ligaments, tendon
37
Avulsion of lesser trochanter
Iliopsoas
38
Avulsion of AIIS
Rectus femoris
39
When does the progression of scoliosis stop?
When individual reaches skeletal maturity
40
Why do we care about lumbosacral transitional segments?
Alters biomechanics Requires alterations for adjustment technique may contribute to early disc degeneration and desiccation at levels above
41
Avulsion of pubis symphysis
Adductor
42
What is the name of the classification system for lumbosacral transitional segments?
Castellivi classification system
43
Avulsion of greater trochanter
Gluteus medius Gluteus minimus
44
Lumbarization / Sacralization
Beginning or end of one spinal region trying to be like the one above or below asymmetrical anatomy changes body biomechanics Can cause disc dessication
45
What is adjacent level disease?
Disc dessication = drying out
46
Avulsion of ASIS
Sartorius
47
Location to palpate femoral artery
In femoral triangle Flex hip, roll contact medially into space, medial to tendon Say contents of femoral triangle
48
Location to palpate popliteal artery
Back of knee Have patient flex their knee - place bilaterally contact on both aspects of knee press/dig deep to hamstrings - palpate this vein after it passes through adductor hiatus
49
Location to palpate posterior tibial artery
Posterior to medial malleolus
50
Location to palpate anterior tibial artery
Palpate as dorsalis pedis Have patient dorsiflex foot - tibialis anterior tendon will pop up and extensor hallucis longus Palpate in between these two tendons of the muscles and on the dorsum of the foot over the navicular
51
Location to palpate fibular artery
Palpate behind lateral malleolus
52
Find location and explain sustentaculum tali
Medial aspect of foot shelf on the calcaneus for the talus supports the talus
53
Find location and explain acetabulum
Socket Where the head of the femur meets with the pelvis made of fusion of ilium, ischium, pubis bones of hip
54
Find location and explain pes anserine
Proximal, medial, anterior tibial shaft Provides for muscular attachment of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus
55
Palpate S1 Dermatome
Medial portion of lower back (S1) down leg gradually going to the lateral aspect of foot and calf
56
Palpate the L4 Dermatome
From low back L4 to anterior side of leg then gradually down anterior side of leg from L to M, ending on the medial aspect of foot and big toe
57
Palpate L5 Dermatome
From lower back L5 region to lateral thigh/leg and gradually L to M from A to P view. Top of foot and inferior plantar region of foot between toe 1 and 4
58
Palpate L1 Dermatome
Inguinal region
59
IDENTIFY TISSUE IMAGES FROM MODULE OF TISSUES*** Cells, compact/spongy bone etc.
60
Name the trilaminar disc layers
ectoderm, mesoderm endoderm
61
Explain depolarization
Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels (negative to positive) Membrane potential decreases and becomes more positive due to sodium voltage gated channels opening (Na+ rushes in)
62
Explain repolarization and hyperpolarization
Repolarization - closure of Na+ and opening of K+, voltage gated channels Hyperpolarization - voltage gated K+ channels remain open after the potential reaches resting level (Goes below RMP)
63
Function of white adipose tissue
Insulation, energy storage suction, protection from abrasion, protects organs
64
Function of brown adipose tissue
Heat production
65
Where is hyalin cartilage found? What’s its function?
Joint, ends of bones trachea, etc. Provide smooth joint surface acts as model for bone formation
66
Where is elastic cartilage found? Function? Fibrocartilage? Function of fibrocartilage.
Ear, epiglottis Gives support and maintains shape of soft tissues Meniscus, intervertebral discs pubic symphysis. Tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock
67
Sclerotome function and differentiation
Regions of bone or skeletal structures innervated by a single NR. Cells of the sclerotome are mesenchymal that differentiate to become: chondroblasts, osteoblasts, and fibroblasts
68
What glial cell (neuroglial cell) myelinated and insulates the CNS? How about the PNS?
CNS - oligodendrocytes PNS - Schwann cells
69
What is the most abundant CNS neuroglial cell? What is the function of this cell?
Astrocyte Structural and metabolic support of neurons, repair processes
70
T or F Satellite cells are part of the PNS
T
71
T or F Ependymal cells are part of CNS and function by producing and moving CSF
T
72
T or F Microglia are PNS cells
F, CNS cells and function as defense and immune related activities
73
Value of RMP
-70mV
74
Threshold value for action potentials
-55mV
75
What is a graded potential
To simulate or inhibit and action potential lose strength with distance and time
76
What is an EPSP? What does it cause? 2 molecules involved with EPSP What is an IPSP? What does it cause?
-Excitatory post-synaptic potential stimulates the formation of AP -Depolarization - sodium, calcium ligand gated channels - Inhibitory post=synaptic potential inhibits formation of AP - Hyperpolarization - Postiassium, chloride ligand gated channels opening
77
Explain relative refractory period (RRP)
A new action potential can be generated but requires a stronger stimulus
78
Explain absolute refractory period.
Period of time during which a second cation potential cannot be initiated (NO MATTER HOW LARGE THE STIMULUS)
79
Name the O: and I: of obliquus capitis inferior.
O: SP of the C2 I: TP of C1
80
Name the O: and I: of obliquus capitis superior
O:TP of C1 I: Occipital bone
81
Name the O: and I: of rectus capitis posterior major
O: SP of C2 I: Occipital bone
82
Name the O: and I: of rectus capitis posterior minor
O: Posterior arch of C1 I: Occipital bone
83
O: and I: of levator scapulae
O: TP of C1-4 I: Medial border of scapula
84
O and I of Gluteus Maximus
O: posterior gluteal line of ilium I: Upper fibers = at the iliotibial tract of fascia lata; lower fibers at the gluteal tuberosity
85
Vastus lateralis O: I: A: N: BS
O: greater trochanter I: Patella via gudriceps tendon/tibial tuberosity N: Femoral nerve BS: Lateral circumflex femoral artery
86
Gluteus Medius O: I: N: BS:
O: Gluteal surface of ilium I: lateral surface of greater trochanter N: SGN (L4-S1) BS: superior and inferior gluteal arteries
87
O: BS: of superior gemellus
O: Ischial spine BS: inferior gluteal artery
88
O and BS of inferior gemellus
O:Ischial tuberosity BS: inferior gluteal artery
89
O: I: and BS of quadratus femoris
O:External border of ischial tuberosity I: Intertrochanteric crest of femur BS: Inferior gluteal artery
90
What is the O and I of the tibialis anterior
O: lateral condyle of tibial shaft I: base of metatarsal 1 and medial cuneiform
91
O: and I: of extensor digitorum longus
O: lateral condyle of tibia I: Distal phalanges of digits 2-5
92
O: and I: of flexor halicus longus
O: inferior two-thirds of posterior fibula I: Distal phalange of digit 1 (BIG TOE)
93
O: and I: of flexor digitorum longus
O: postioer surface of the tibia I: inferior surfaces of the distal phalanges of digits 2-5
94
Fibular artery supplies blood with what muscles?
Fibularis brevis, longus, and flexor hallucis longus
95
O: and I: of plantaris (LONG PEANUT)
O: Above lateral head of gastrocnemius I: Posterior part of calcaneus
96
O: and I of popliteus
O: lateral surface of the lateral condyle of femur I: Posterior surface of proximal tibial shaft
97
O: and I: of Psoas major
O: TP and Body of the lumbar vertebra I: Lesser trochanter of femur WITH iliacus
98
Vastus medialis O: and I:
O: Intertrochanteric line and medial lip of linea aspera I: Patella via quadriceps tendon
99
O: I: and BS: of pectineus
O: Superior ramus of pubis I: Linea aspera BS: Medial circumflex femoral artery
100
Name the type of scoliosis that is most common, majorly detected in adolescent females
Idiopathic
101
Define spondylosis
Degenerative changes of the spine
102
Define spondylolysis
Break in pars interarticularis