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Biochemistry 2 > ANATOMY PRACTICAL FINAL > Flashcards

ANATOMY PRACTICAL FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

The Femoral nerve innervates ?

A

Anterior compartment (Action: knee extension, hip flexion)

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2
Q

The sciatic nerve innervates what compartment ?

A

Posterior compartment of thigh (action: hip extension, knee flexion)

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3
Q

The gemellus superior and _________ _________ are innervated by what nerve?

A

Obturator internus

Innervated by the nerve to the obturator internus

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4
Q

The inferior gemellus and quadratus femoria are innervated by what nerve?

A

Nerve to the quadratic femoris *from sacral division

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5
Q

What nerve innervates the short head of the bicep femoris?

A

Sciatic Nerve fibular division

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6
Q

What nerve innervates the biceps femoris long head?

A

Sciatic nerve tibial division

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7
Q

The tibial nerve travels with what artery?

A

Posterior tibial artery

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8
Q

Deep fibular nerve travels with what artery?

A

Anterior tibial artery

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9
Q

Name the O and I of rectus femoris

A

O: AIIS
I:Tibial tuberosity

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10
Q

Name the O and I of the sartorius

A

O: ASIS
I: pes anserinus
(Proximal, medial, anterior, tibial shaft)

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11
Q

O and I of vastus intermedius

A

O: anterior and lateral surfaces of the femur

I: tendon of the quadriceps

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12
Q

O and I of vastus lateralis

A

O: greater trochanter of femur
I: patella via quad tendon; tibial tuberosity via the patellar ligament

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13
Q

Compare and contrast extensor digitorum longus and flexor digitorum longus

A

Ext. dig. Long. Is on anterior side of lower leg, lateral from tibialis anterior. Inserts into distal phalanges of digits 2-5 and extension of digits 2-5

Flexor digitorum longus - most medial side of deep calf (Part of TOM, DICK, and HARRY), insertion to inferior surfaces of the distal phalanges of digits 2-5

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14
Q

T or F

Splenius capitis involves ipsilateral rotation of the head

A

T

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15
Q

T or F

Semispinalis cervicis action involved contrilateral rotation of the head

What is contralateral rotation

A

T

Turning the head away from the side of the body that contains the muscles performing the action

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16
Q

Name some muscles that contralaterally rotate the head

A

SCM, multifidus, semispinalis cervicis,

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17
Q

Name some muscles involved in ipsilateral rotation of the head

A

Splenius cervicis, splenius Splenius capitis, obliquus capitis inferior, rectus capitis posterior major, obliquus capitis superior

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18
Q

The femoral artery divides into what artery and then they artery divides into what two arteries?

A

Popliteal artery

Then divides into the posterior tibial artery and anterior tibial artery

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19
Q

Name the O: and I: of the biceps femoris long head and then short head

A

Long head
O: Lateral surface of the head of the fibula

I: Lateral surface of the head of the fibula

Short head
O: Linea aspera of the femur
I: Lateral surface of the head of the FIBULA

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20
Q

What is the O: I: and action of piriformis

A

O: anterior side of sacrum between S1 and 4

I: greater trochanter

A: Lateral rotation, abduction of the thigh at the high

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21
Q

Differentiate Tibialis posterior from fibularis tertius.

A

TP-
Originates interossei us membrane, posterior surface of tibia
inserts on navicular bone

FT-
Originates anterior surface of fibula
inserts on dorsal surface of the base of metatarsal 5 (Anterior side of calf region)

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22
Q

What are Tom, dick, and harry? Where do they insert?

A

*All go behind medial malleolus
Tom - tibialis posterior, inserts tuberosity on navicular bone and slips to cuneiforms metatarsals 2-4

Dick - Flexor digitorum longus (MUSCLE IS MOST MEDIAL, but crosses tibialis, posterior tendon), Inserts inferior surfaces of the distal phalanges of digits 2-5

Harry - flexor hallucis longus (most lateral of the three) inserts inferior surface of the distal phalanx of digit 1 (great toe)

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23
Q

Name the O: I: and action of the sartorius

A

O: ASIS
I: PES anserinus
A: Flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of thigh at the hip

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24
Q

Name the O: I: and action of the rectus femoris

A

O: AIIS
I: common tendon fo the quadriceps
A: extension of the leg at the knee joint, flexion of the hip

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25
Q

Name the muscles of the femoral triangle and the structures that run through this triangle.

A

Sartorius, adductor longus, inguinal ligment

Femoral artery and nerve run through this triangle

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26
Q

What components run through the suboccipital triangle?

A

Vertebral artery
Suboccipital nerve

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27
Q

Who does avulsion fractures affect the most:

A

Active adolescents and young adults who have not reached skeletal maturity

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28
Q

What is an apophyseal avulsion fractures?

A

Sudden forceful muscular contraction causes avulsion of apophysis to which the tendon attaches

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29
Q

What attaches to an apophysis?

A

Tendon or ligament

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30
Q

What is an apophysis?

A

Normal secondary ossification center that is in the non-weight bearing part of a bone

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31
Q

Muscle involved with avulsion of iliac crest:

A

Abdominals

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32
Q

What is a fracture through the sacral ala caused by?

A

Osteoporosis

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33
Q

T or F

An apopophysis does not contribute to length of the bone, but contributes to bone growth

A

T

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34
Q

What is the intercrestal line?

A

Place a dot on the top of both iliac crests and connect them

Level will be L4 in males and L5 in females

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35
Q

Avulsion of ischial tuberosity

A

Hamstring

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36
Q

Why is the apophysis more prone to injury?

A

Cartilaginous growth plate is weaker than the adjacent bone, ligaments, tendon

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37
Q

Avulsion of lesser trochanter

A

Iliopsoas

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38
Q

Avulsion of AIIS

A

Rectus femoris

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39
Q

When does the progression of scoliosis stop?

A

When individual reaches skeletal maturity

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40
Q

Why do we care about lumbosacral transitional segments?

A

Alters biomechanics

Requires alterations for adjustment technique may contribute to early disc degeneration and desiccation at levels above

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41
Q

Avulsion of pubis symphysis

A

Adductor

42
Q

What is the name of the classification system for lumbosacral transitional segments?

A

Castellivi classification system

43
Q

Avulsion of greater trochanter

A

Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus

44
Q

Lumbarization / Sacralization

A

Beginning or end of one spinal region trying to be like the one above or below asymmetrical anatomy changes body biomechanics
Can cause disc dessication

45
Q

What is adjacent level disease?

A

Disc dessication = drying out

46
Q

Avulsion of ASIS

A

Sartorius

47
Q

Location to palpate femoral artery

A

In femoral triangle
Flex hip, roll contact medially into space, medial to tendon
Say contents of femoral triangle

48
Q

Location to palpate popliteal artery

A

Back of knee
Have patient flex their knee - place bilaterally contact on both aspects of knee press/dig deep to hamstrings - palpate this vein after it passes through adductor hiatus

49
Q

Location to palpate posterior tibial artery

A

Posterior to medial malleolus

50
Q

Location to palpate anterior tibial artery

A

Palpate as dorsalis pedis

Have patient dorsiflex foot - tibialis anterior tendon will pop up and extensor hallucis longus
Palpate in between these two tendons of the muscles and on the dorsum of the foot over the navicular

51
Q

Location to palpate fibular artery

A

Palpate behind lateral malleolus

52
Q

Find location and explain sustentaculum tali

A

Medial aspect of foot shelf on the calcaneus for the talus supports the talus

53
Q

Find location and explain acetabulum

A

Socket
Where the head of the femur meets with the pelvis made of fusion of ilium, ischium, pubis bones of hip

54
Q

Find location and explain pes anserine

A

Proximal, medial, anterior tibial shaft
Provides for muscular attachment of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus

55
Q

Palpate S1 Dermatome

A

Medial portion of lower back (S1) down leg gradually going to the lateral aspect of foot and calf

56
Q

Palpate the L4 Dermatome

A

From low back L4 to anterior side of leg then gradually down anterior side of leg from L to M, ending on the medial aspect of foot and big toe

57
Q

Palpate L5 Dermatome

A

From lower back L5 region to lateral thigh/leg and gradually L to M from A to P view. Top of foot and inferior plantar region of foot between toe 1 and 4

58
Q

Palpate L1 Dermatome

A

Inguinal region

59
Q

IDENTIFY TISSUE IMAGES FROM MODULE OF TISSUES***

Cells, compact/spongy bone etc.

A
60
Q

Name the trilaminar disc layers

A

ectoderm, mesoderm endoderm

61
Q

Explain depolarization

A

Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels (negative to positive)

Membrane potential decreases and becomes more positive due to sodium voltage gated channels opening (Na+ rushes in)

62
Q

Explain repolarization and hyperpolarization

A

Repolarization - closure of Na+ and opening of K+, voltage gated channels

Hyperpolarization - voltage gated K+ channels remain open after the potential reaches resting level (Goes below RMP)

63
Q

Function of white adipose tissue

A

Insulation, energy storage suction, protection from abrasion, protects organs

64
Q

Function of brown adipose tissue

A

Heat production

65
Q

Where is hyalin cartilage found?
What’s its function?

A

Joint, ends of bones trachea, etc.

Provide smooth joint surface acts as model for bone formation

66
Q

Where is elastic cartilage found? Function?

Fibrocartilage? Function of fibrocartilage.

A

Ear, epiglottis
Gives support and maintains shape of soft tissues

Meniscus, intervertebral discs pubic symphysis. Tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock

67
Q

Sclerotome function and differentiation

A

Regions of bone or skeletal structures innervated by a single NR. Cells of the sclerotome are mesenchymal that differentiate to become: chondroblasts, osteoblasts, and fibroblasts

68
Q

What glial cell (neuroglial cell) myelinated and insulates the CNS?

How about the PNS?

A

CNS - oligodendrocytes

PNS - Schwann cells

69
Q

What is the most abundant CNS neuroglial cell?

What is the function of this cell?

A

Astrocyte

Structural and metabolic support of neurons, repair processes

70
Q

T or F

Satellite cells are part of the PNS

A

T

71
Q

T or F

Ependymal cells are part of CNS and function by producing and moving CSF

A

T

72
Q

T or F

Microglia are PNS cells

A

F,

CNS cells and function as defense and immune related activities

73
Q

Value of RMP

A

-70mV

74
Q

Threshold value for action potentials

A

-55mV

75
Q

What is a graded potential

A

To simulate or inhibit and action potential lose strength with distance and time

76
Q

What is an EPSP? What does it cause? 2 molecules involved with EPSP

What is an IPSP? What does it cause?

A

-Excitatory post-synaptic potential stimulates the formation of AP
-Depolarization
- sodium, calcium ligand gated channels

  • Inhibitory post=synaptic potential inhibits formation of AP
  • Hyperpolarization
  • Postiassium, chloride ligand gated channels opening
77
Q

Explain relative refractory period (RRP)

A

A new action potential can be generated but requires a stronger stimulus

78
Q

Explain absolute refractory period.

A

Period of time during which a second cation potential cannot be initiated (NO MATTER HOW LARGE THE STIMULUS)

79
Q

Name the O: and I: of obliquus capitis inferior.

A

O: SP of the C2
I: TP of C1

80
Q

Name the O: and I: of obliquus capitis superior

A

O:TP of C1
I: Occipital bone

81
Q

Name the O: and I: of rectus capitis posterior major

A

O: SP of C2
I: Occipital bone

82
Q

Name the O: and I: of rectus capitis posterior minor

A

O: Posterior arch of C1
I: Occipital bone

83
Q

O: and I: of levator scapulae

A

O: TP of C1-4
I: Medial border of scapula

84
Q

O and I of Gluteus Maximus

A

O: posterior gluteal line of ilium
I: Upper fibers = at the iliotibial tract of fascia lata; lower fibers at the gluteal tuberosity

85
Q

Vastus lateralis O: I: A: N: BS

A

O: greater trochanter
I: Patella via gudriceps tendon/tibial tuberosity
N: Femoral nerve
BS: Lateral circumflex femoral artery

86
Q

Gluteus Medius O: I: N: BS:

A

O: Gluteal surface of ilium
I: lateral surface of greater trochanter
N: SGN (L4-S1)
BS: superior and inferior gluteal arteries

87
Q

O: BS: of superior gemellus

A

O: Ischial spine
BS: inferior gluteal artery

88
Q

O and BS of inferior gemellus

A

O:Ischial tuberosity
BS: inferior gluteal artery

89
Q

O: I: and BS of quadratus femoris

A

O:External border of ischial tuberosity
I: Intertrochanteric crest of femur
BS: Inferior gluteal artery

90
Q

What is the O and I of the tibialis anterior

A

O: lateral condyle of tibial shaft
I: base of metatarsal 1 and medial cuneiform

91
Q

O: and I: of extensor digitorum longus

A

O: lateral condyle of tibia
I: Distal phalanges of digits 2-5

92
Q

O: and I: of flexor halicus longus

A

O: inferior two-thirds of posterior fibula
I: Distal phalange of digit 1 (BIG TOE)

93
Q

O: and I: of flexor digitorum longus

A

O: postioer surface of the tibia
I: inferior surfaces of the distal phalanges of digits 2-5

94
Q

Fibular artery supplies blood with what muscles?

A

Fibularis brevis, longus, and flexor hallucis longus

95
Q

O: and I: of plantaris (LONG PEANUT)

A

O: Above lateral head of gastrocnemius
I: Posterior part of calcaneus

96
Q

O: and I of popliteus

A

O: lateral surface of the lateral condyle of femur
I: Posterior surface of proximal tibial shaft

97
Q

O: and I: of Psoas major

A

O: TP and Body of the lumbar vertebra
I: Lesser trochanter of femur WITH iliacus

98
Q

Vastus medialis O: and I:

A

O: Intertrochanteric line and medial lip of linea aspera
I: Patella via quadriceps tendon

99
Q

O: I: and BS: of pectineus

A

O: Superior ramus of pubis
I: Linea aspera
BS: Medial circumflex femoral artery

100
Q

Name the type of scoliosis that is most common, majorly detected in adolescent females

A

Idiopathic

101
Q

Define spondylosis

A

Degenerative changes of the spine

102
Q

Define spondylolysis

A

Break in pars interarticularis

Biochemistry 2 (22 decks)

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