All together

Question 1

Plavix mechanism of action

Answer 1

Irreversible binding to the P2Y12 ADP receptor on the platelet. This reduces platelet aggregation.

Question 2

Toxic metabolite in cyclophosphamide

Answer 2

Acrolein

Question 3

Zones of liver

Answer 3

Oxidation = 1

Detoxification with glucoronidation = 3

Question 4

What falsely increases total t4 in hypothyroid dogs?

Answer 4

Anti-t4 antibody cross-react.

Question 5

Main nutrient for enterocytes?

Answer 5

Glutamine

Question 6

Environmental factors causing lymphoma?

Answer 6

Urban environment, paints, solvents, magnetic fields (?)

Question 7

What are lymphoglandular bodies?

Answer 7

Cytoplasmic fragments commonly observed in fine-needle aspiration cytology of lymphoid tissue, frequently associated with lymphoid malignancies. Less frequently reported in bone marrow aspirates.

Question 8

Ricketsial disease that mimic lymphoma?

Answer 8

Erlichia canis

Question 9

Vincristine toxicity?

Answer 9

GI ileus, neurotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy (?)

Question 10

Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) side effect + tx

Answer 10

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis, treat with furosemide, mesna (mercoptan) is antidote

Question 11

Doxorubicin cardio toxicity? Dose

Answer 11

180-240 mg/m2

Question 12

Odds ratio?

Answer 12

Probability of having the disease (gold standard positive = prevalence)/probability of not having the disease (gold standard negative)
Odds of exposed group/odds of unexposed group (a/c)/(b/d)
*All you need to remember is the equation (AxD)/(BxC) and plug in the numbers

Question 13

What bacteria is consistent with oropharyngeal contamination on airway cytology

Answer 13

Simonsiella

Question 14

What cell makes surfactant?

Answer 14

Type II alveolar epithelial cells (pneumocytes)

Question 15

What percentage of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate in blood?

Answer 15

70%

Question 16

Carprofen

Answer 16

COX2 selectivity

Question 17

Differences between oxygen and CO2 central vs peripheral?

Answer 17

Central respiratory rate controls - more CO2

Peripheral chemoreceptors - more O2

Question 18

What medication increases drug concentrations and side effects of theophylline?

Answer 18

Enrofloxacin

Question 19

Results of low O2 in peripheral vs pulmonary circulation?

Answer 19

Peripheral - vasodilator

Pulmonary - vasoconstricts

Question 20

Effect of adenosine on vascular and bronchial tone

Answer 20

Vasodilates and bronchoconstricts

Question 21

What is the resultant increase in resistance of a 50% reduction in airway radius?

Answer 21

16 fold increase

Question 22

Causes of hypoxemia

Answer 22

Vascular right-to-left shunt

Question 23

Difference in action potentials of cardiac and skeletal muscle

Answer 23

?
Skeletal muscle dependent on fast sodium channels and slow calcium channels (this seems like it is the same?)
Cardiac have decreased K permeability after action potential starts until ca channels close
Calcium comes from t-tubules in cardiac instead of SR like skeletal

Question 24

MOA cyclosporine and tacrolimus

MOA azathioprine

Answer 24

Calcineurin NFAT (nuclear factor activated T cells) inhibitor
Purine analog

Question 25

What liver enzyme is not elevated in feline hepatic lipidosis

Answer 25

GGT

Question 26

Pancreatic beta cells

Answer 26

High concentrations of glut 2 transporters

Question 27

Which WBC has shortest half-life

Answer 27

Eosinophils

Question 28

Heartworm classification

Answer 28

a. Class 1: asymptomatic to mild heart worm disease no radiographic signs or signs of anemia. May have subjective signs (fatigue/loss of condition b. Class 2: moderate heartworm disease- radiographic signs of HW and signs of anemia. Mild proteinuria maybe present. Radiographic signs of right ventricular enlargement or slight pulmonary artery enlargement may be noted. c. Class 3: severe HW disease- guarded prognosis. Cachexia, fatigue, dyspnea, cough, Right sided heart failure. Signs of anemia, proteinuria, severe pulmonary artery enlargement. Patients should be stabilized prior to treatment. d. Class 4: caval syndrome, surgery first then adulticide treatment.

Question 29

Differences between acanthocheilonema reconditum vs HW

Answer 29

Width: HW 5-6 um, acanth 4-5 um -> acanth sl thinner HW has straight end, acanth hook shaped and bent HW moves but remain in single location, acanth moving forward HW cellular anterior end, acanth clear

Question 30

Seizures in cats

Answer 30

Complex focal seizures

Question 31

Common bacterial agents in pyothorax

Answer 31

Pasteurella

Question 32

What glucose transporters are where in kidneys?

Answer 32

Glucose transporters on apical side is SGLT and on basolateral side is GLUT. *Watch video

Question 33

What is reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule?

Answer 33

85% bicarb, 65% Na

Question 34

Toxic renal effects of NSAIDS

Answer 34

Acute cortical AKI and chronic medullary cytotoxicity

Question 35

Digoxin toxicity

Answer 35

``` GI signs Increased body temperature AV block Myocardial toxicity and ventricular arrhythmia Renal damage to proximal tubules Hyperkalemia Too worse with hypokalemia and azotemia ```

Question 36

Interpretation of iron panel

Answer 36

tibc, ferritin, etc.

Question 37

E canis lookalike

Answer 37

CD8T leukemia on flow

Question 38

Which infectious agent causes late stage abortion

Answer 38

Brucella

Question 39

How is infection with hepatozoon transmitted

Answer 39

Ingestion of tick

Question 40

Side effect of apoquel (oclatinib)

Answer 40

diarrhea, bone marrow suppression

Question 41

What is slentrol?

Answer 41

Weight loss drug. MOA - microsomal triglyceride transfer protein inhibitor Name: dirlotapide Accumulation of lipids in enterocytes -> It works locally in the intestine by inhibiting the transfer of lipids into the bloodstream which indirectly produces an appetite suppressant effect.

Question 42

Linoleic acid

Answer 42

Essential fatty acid

Question 43

Interferons Type 1 and Type 2?

Answer 43

Type 1: IFN alpha and beta and primary anti-viral/anti-cancer role Type 2: IFN gamma and lambda - immunomodulatory

Question 44

MOA and drug interaction of allopurinol

Answer 44

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor | Interacts with azathioprine

Question 45

Side effects azathioprine and breeds/species contraindications, drug interaction

Answer 45

GI, liver, pancreatitis, myelosuppression Cats, giant schnauzer Allopurinol

Question 46

MOA mycophenolate

Answer 46

Purine analog (like azathioprine), inhibits IMPDH

Question 47

Chlorambucil MOA and side effect

Answer 47

Alkylating agent, fanconi-like syndrome in cats

Question 48

Treatment is atropine response test is positive?

Answer 48

Propantheline