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CHI > all google forms quizzes > Flashcards

all google forms quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

What are cell junctions?

A

intercellular bridges made up of structural proteins that allow cells to communicate

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2
Q

Gap junctions are gated channels which can change in permeability, TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Which of these are mainly found in tight junctions?
1- CONNEXONS
2- CLAUDINS AND OCCLUDINS
3- CADHERINS
4- ACTIN

A

claudins and occludins

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4
Q

Which of these are mainly found in gap junctions?
1- CONNEXONS
2- CLAUDINS AND OCCLUDINS
3- CADHERINS
4- ACTIN

A

connexons

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5
Q

which of these are mainly found in desmosomes?
1- CONNEXONS
2- CLAUDINS AND OCCLUDINS
3- CADHERINS
4- ACTIN

A

cadherens

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6
Q

plasmodesmata are found in all animal cells? TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

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7
Q

what does the extra cellular matrix of an animal include?

A

collagen and fibronectin

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8
Q

which IS NOT a function of the extra cellular matrix?
1 - Space filler
2 - Prevent homeostasis
3 - Influence tissue development
4 - Regulate molecular movement

A

prevent homeostasis

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9
Q

X-linked Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is linked to what type of junction?

A

gap junctions

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10
Q

Hyperkeratosis and onychodystrophy are linked to what type of junction?

A

desmosomes

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11
Q

Low magnesium and high calcium in the blood is linked to what type of junction?

A

tight junctions

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12
Q

If the immune system is triggered without ever reacting to an antigen, is it ACTIVE OR PASSIVE IMMUNITY

A

passive immunity

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13
Q

Does active or passive immunity work in an immunodeficient host

A

passive

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14
Q

is adoptive transfer active or passive immunity

A

passive immunity, as they’re being injected with another persons antibodies

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15
Q

what type of immunisation is mother to infant immunoglobulin transfer an example of

A

natural passive immunity

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16
Q

which immunoglobulin protects the foetus during development

A

IgG

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17
Q

do T cells increase or decrease in pregnancy

A

decreases

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18
Q

does the Th2 response increase or decrease in pregnancy

A

increases

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19
Q

what vaccination type(s) contain dead or inactive component of a pathogen

A

TIIV

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20
Q

In escape mechanisms, which of the below mutations leads to a different presentation at one specific site?
1 - Antigenic drift
2 - Antigenic shift
3 - Antigenic lift

A

antigenic drift

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21
Q

In escape mechanisms, which of the below mutations leads to a different presentation at multiple different sites?
1 - Antigenic drift
2 - Antigenic shift
3 - Antigenic lift

A

antigenic shift

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22
Q

Which of the below is an example of a toxoid vaccination
1 - Hepatitis A
2 - Tetanus
3 - Thyphoid
4 - Sars-COV-2

A

tetanus

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23
Q

what does LAIV stand for

A

live attenuated influenza virus

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24
Q

what does ADCC stand for in monoclonal antibody therapy

A

Antibody dependant cellular cytotoxicity

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25
Q

what monoclonal antibody mechanism results in phagocytosis

A

CDCP

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26
Q

what is a eukaryote

A

a cell or organism with a clearly defined membrane bound nucleus

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27
Q

what is a prokaryote

A

a cell or an organism without a clearly defined membrane bound nucleus

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28
Q

define species

A

a group of similar organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring

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29
Q

Microbes which live and thrive on the human body could be an example of what?

A

mesophiles

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30
Q

a mid halophile is an example of a microbe which prefers what type of condition

A

salt

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31
Q

what is a microbiome

A

The genetic material of all of the microorganisims in one specific environment or location at one time

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32
Q

Which of the below is NOT a function of commensal bacteria in the lungs?
1 - Trigger the immune response
2 - Recognise external invaders
3 - Allow colonisation of pathogenic bacteria
4 - Produce antimicrobial products and signals

A

allow colonisation of pathogenic bacteria

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33
Q

How are spermatozoa adapted to carry out its function?

A

They have enzymes to break down external layers of the ovum

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34
Q

How are the ovum adapted to carry out their functions?

A

they have protective external layers for species specific recognition

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35
Q

Which of the below is a strength of cell culture?
1 - Have a limited lifeline
2 - Have reduced hetrogeneity
3 - Continual maintenance required
4 - Can control the micro-environment

A

can control the micro environment

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36
Q

Which of the below is a limitation of cell culture?
1 - Have a limited lifeline
2 - Have been used to reduce animal testing
3 - Can be stored long term
4 - Can control the micro-environment

A

they have a limited lifeline

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37
Q

What is primary endosymbiosis?

A

where a eukaryotic cell engulfs a prokaryotic cell

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38
Q

what is secondary endosymbiosis

A

Where a eukaryotic cell engulfs a eukaryotic cell

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39
Q

what is the main organelle discussed in relation to serial endosymbiosis

A

mitochondria

40
Q

what is bacterial redundancy

A

When multiple bacteria fill the same role

41
Q

what is dysbiosis

A

a change in microbiome from healthy to diseased

42
Q

what does CD in cell mediated immunity stand for

A

cluster of differentiation

43
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complexes are a large group of genes which code for proteins that play an essential role in which of the below?
1 - Phagocytosis in macrophages
2 - Phagocytosis in neutrophils
3 - Antigen presentation in T lymphocytes
4 - Antigen presentation in B lymphocytes

A

antigen presentation in b lymphocytes

44
Q

Allergies and tumour progression are liked to which type of Th cytokine?

A

Th2

45
Q

Which enzyme is involved in caspase activation to cause apoptosis

A

granzyme B

46
Q

Organ specific autoimmune disorders can be linked to which Th cytokine?

A

Th1

47
Q

Which type of T cell mainly expresses CD16?

A

natural killer cell

47
Q

Which type of T cell ensures self tolerance by CD25+ activation

A

regulatory T cell

48
Q

Which CD combinations are found on early T cells?

A

CD4-CD8-

49
Q

What does the ‘H’ in MHC stand for?

A

histocompatability

50
Q

What does the ‘A’ in HLA stand for?

A

antigen

51
Q

If T cells interactive with MCH class II, which types are they?

A

helper T cells

52
Q

Which T cell is found in the highest percentage in the blood, lymph nodes and spleen?

A

helper T cell

53
Q

Which type of antigen is presented as a class I MHC?

A

endogenous antigen

54
Q

Exogenous antigens such as bacterium are presented as

A

MC class II

55
Q

What is the name of molecules found on APCs which function with antigens to activate T cells

A

costimulators

56
Q

If T cells interactive with MCH class I, which type are they?

A

cytotoxic T cells

57
Q

which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle

A

M

58
Q

cyclins are only active when they are bound to cyclin dependant kinases. TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

59
Q

is retinoblastoma a tumour suppressor

A

true

60
Q

do protein kinases phosphorylate or dephosphorylate proteins

A

phosphorylate them - which leads to their activation

61
Q

what is a key feature of cyclins

A

they’re cyclical

62
Q

what is the role of p35

A

to stop the cell at G1S and G2M phases for spindle repair to take place

63
Q

what molecule does retinoblastoma release that allows cells to transition into G1/S

A

E2F

64
Q

What is p35 known as

A

the guardian of the genome

65
Q

which cyclin allows the cell to enter mitosis when activated

A

cyclin B

66
Q

what is CREB activated by

A

phosphorylation by protein kinase A in the cytoplasm

67
Q

what molecule is activated in G-protein receptor signalling

A

adenylyl cyclase

68
Q

what is protein kinase A activated by

A

binding of cAMP to its regulatory subunits

69
Q

Which of the following are examples of second messengers?
1 - cAMP
2 - cGMP
3 - Ca2+
4 - Phospholipids
5 - all of the above

A

all of the above

70
Q

what are G proteins

A

molecular switches that use GDP to control their signalling cycle

71
Q

what is paracrine signalling

A

signal is sent from a nearby cell to induce a change

72
Q

The GTP on the G protein that is linked to adenylyl cyclase is split to GDP and Pi….

1 - in the inactive state
2 - in the process of subunit separation
3 - upon activation by the receptor
4 - by the active alpha subunit

A

by the active alpha sub unit

73
Q

what is the effect of acetylcholine on heart muscles

A

decreases the rate of beating

74
Q

during the phagocyte practical what was carmine red used for

A

to dye the sample to view the change in

75
Q

during the phagocyte practical what was glutaraldehyde used for

A

to fix the sample

76
Q

during the phagocyte practical what was ethanol used for

A

as a negative control

77
Q

during the phagocyte practical what did the change in red vesical number show us

A

the measurement of phagocytosis occurring

78
Q

during the phagocyte practical what was the change in black vesical a measurement of

A

egestion

79
Q

In the Tetrahymena lab, which cellular structure does Colchicine inhibit the formation of?

A

microtubules

80
Q

which type of cell junction is involved in neurulation

A

adherens

81
Q

Which stage in serial endosymbiosis involves a prokaryotic cell being engulfed by a eukaryote?

A

primary endosymbiosis

82
Q

If T cells interactive with MCH class I, which of the below cell types are they?

A

cytotoxic T cells

83
Q

which organelle is affected by Parkinson’s disease

A

mitochondria

84
Q

what is the normal role of an organelle which if defective may cause EBS

A

structural support

85
Q

is an inverted microscope used o view cell cultures

A

YES

86
Q

what is pRB and what’s its role

A

its a tumour suppressor and it inhibits the growth of tumours by inhibiting cell division

87
Q

which organelle packages proteins

A

golgi

88
Q

Which of the below monoclonal antibody mechanisms result in phagocytosis ?

A

ADCP

89
Q

What is the name of molecules found on APCs which function with antigens to activate T cells

A

co-stimulators

90
Q

Are Lipid bilayers are typically asymmetrical

A

no

91
Q

Which phase of the cell cycle is the most metabolically active?

A

G1

92
Q

Which statement is NOT true about microtubules
1 - They help organise cells during division
2 - They are important for cilia
3 - They polymerise and depolymerise constantly
4 - They strengthen cell junctions

A

they don’t strengthen cell junctions

93
Q

In G-protein coupled receptor signalling, what are RGS?

A

regulators

94
Q

what is the role of acetylcholine in the heart

A

decreases the rate of beating

95
Q

what is p53

A

the guardian of the genome

96
Q
A

CHI (11 decks)

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