Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1) CCCFPD > Adult Medical Treatment Guidelines > Flashcards

Adult Medical Treatment Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

What types of shock are associated with trauma?

A

Hypovolemic (bleeding)
Neurogenic (spinal injury)
Obstructive (pneumothorax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Different types of shock

A

Hypovolemic (dehydration or GI bleed or bleeding)
Neurogenic (spinal injury)
Obstructive (pneumothorax)
Cardiogenic (STEMI or CHF)
Distributive (anaphylaxis or sepsis)
Obstructive (PE or cardiac tamponade)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is happening during distributive shock?

A

So vasodilated that blood can’t be pumped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypotension can be defined as a systolic blood pressure of less than

A

90mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F - Shock may be present with a
seemingly normal blood pressure initially

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neurogenic shock generally presents with

A

Warm, dry, and pink skin with normal capillary refill time; patient
typically alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

California Poison Control Center

A

(800) 222-1222

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Block and inhibit the activity of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Acetylcholine

A

neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind of test does an EMT use for altered mental status?

A

BG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Insecticides

A

Organophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

S.L.U.D.G.E.

A

Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI distress, and Emesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acetaminophen overdose

A

Causes irreversible
liver failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Aspirin overdose

A

Tachypnea and altered mental status may occur later. Renal dysfunction, liver failure or cerebral edema among other things can present later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetaminophen

A

Tylenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aspirin

A

Acetylsalicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stimulants signs and symptoms

A

Increased heart rate, blood pressure or temperature, dilated pupils, and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Depressants signs and symptoms

A

Decreased heart rate, blood pressure or temperature, decreased respirations, and non-specific pupils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Insecticides cause ____ pupils

A

Pinpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bring ______, ______ and _______ to the Emergency Department for overdose or toxic ingestion.

A

Medication bottles, contents, and emesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Give Narcan if altered mental status and
respiratory rate < _______

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: You should leave behind Narcan
for family or friends of
patients with suspected
opioid overdose

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Naloxone is given ______ mg IN or Auto Injector
Naloxone is titrated to effect of adequate ventilation and oxygenation. NOT ADMINISTERED TO RESTORE CONSCIOUSNESS

A

2‐4 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pain acronym

A

O - Onset - What were you doing?
P - Provocation - Make it better/worse?
Q - Quality - Sharp, dull, or stabbing?
R - Radiation - Does the pain move anywhere?
S - Severity - Scale of 1 to bear attack
T - Time - When did this happen?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Visceral refers to what?

A

Internal organs of the body (abdomen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the Phrenic Nerve do?

A

Controls the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Septicemia

A

Blood poisoning by bacteria. Can cause sepsis, which is the body’s reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Congenital

A

Present from birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Obturator

A

Helps to give rigidity to trach tube during insertion. Basically a stylet for a trach tube. Remove after tube change because it blocks the tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where do we give oxygen to a pt with a trach tube

A

NRB over the trach. Pt does not breath oxygen through the mouth or nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stoma

A

Opening in the skin. Trach tubes and colostomy bags have stomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Different types of bags.

A

IDK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Trach tubes: Do not suction for more than ________each attempt and ________ before and between attempts.

A

10 seconds, pre-oxygenate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Abrupt cessation

A

Quitting without weening off. This is referring to addiction in protocols.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Status Epilepticus

A

2 or more seizures in ≤ 5 minutes or Any seizure lasting > 5 minutes.

(If duration cannot be confirmed, patient, should be assumed to be in status if actively seizing when you arrived.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Seizure interventions

A

B - BG
O - Oxygen: NRB if status, BVM if <8
I - Immobilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Eclampsia

A

High blood pressure results in seizures during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Preeclampsia

A

High blood pressure disorder that can occur during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Grand Mal seizures

A

(Generalized) are associated with a loss of consciousness, incontinence, and oral trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Petit Mal

A

(Focal) affect only a part of the body and are not associated with a loss of consciousness. People look like they zone out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Encephalitis

A

Brain inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

(Focal) affect only a part of the body and are not associated with a loss of consciousness. People look like they zone out.

A

Petit Mal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Muscle aches and pain

A

Myalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What condition speeds up the body’s metabolism?

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

ARDS

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Septic patients are especially susceptible to ______ and ______.

A

Traumatic lung injury and Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). Use only enough tidal volume to see the chest rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If CPAP is utilized on a septic pt, airway pressure should be limited to _________.

A

7.5cm H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DIC

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is an ominous, late stage manifestation of sepsis characterized by extensive bruising, bleeding from multiple sites, and finally tissue death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ominous

A

Gives the impression of something bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Disseminated

A

Spread throughout the body or an organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Loss of ability to understand or express speech, caused by brain damage.

A

Aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Difficulty speaking caused by brain damage.

A

Dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Thrombotic or embolic is ____% of strokes.

A

85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hemorrhagic is ________% of strokes.

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cincinnati stroke screening

A

Facial Droop
Arm Weakness
Speech Abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

LAMS stands for what?

A

Los Angeles Motor Scale (LAMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What does a LAMS test consist of? How is it scored?

A

Facial Droop:
-Absent - 0 points
-Present - 1 point

Arm Weakness:
-Absent - 0 points
-Drifts - 1 point
-Falls rapidly - 2 points

Grip:
-Normal - 0 points
-Weak - 1 point
-No grip - 2 points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A LAMS score of _____ indicates a high likelihood of a LVO stroke

A

≥ 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

LVO Stroke

A

Large Vessel Occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

“woke up and noticed stroke symptoms,”

A

Time starts when the patient was last awake.

57
Q

Approved Stroke Receiving Centers

A

John Muir – Concord
John Muir – Walnut Creek
Kaiser – Antioch
Kaiser – Richmond
Kaiser – Walnut Creek
San Ramon Regional
Eden – Castro Valley
Kaiser – Oakland
Kaiser – Vallejo
Marin General
Summit – Oakland
Sutter – Solano
Valley Care - Pleasanton

58
Q

Keep scene time less than _____.
If available, transport a family
member or guardian with patient

A

10 minutes

59
Q

A Stroke Alert is indicated when…

A

The Cincinnati Stoke Screen findings are abnormal and onset (time last seen normal) is less than 6 hours from time of patient contact

60
Q

LMP

A

Last Menstrual Period

61
Q

AAA

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

62
Q

Micturition

A

The action of urinating

63
Q

More than 25% of geriatric syncope is…

A

Cardiac dysrhythmia based

64
Q

A condition in which the blood’s ability to coagulate (form clots) is impaired

A

Coagulopathy

65
Q

__________ may have poor wound healing capabilities, and IO access may present a greater risk for infection or complicate the patient’s long-term condition due to poor wound healing.

A

Diabetics

66
Q

Painful or difficult urination

A

Dysuria

67
Q

ODT

A

Orally disintegrating tablets

68
Q

An impression of __________ should be considered with severe abdominal or non-traumatic back pain, especially in patients > 50 years of age or patients with shock/poor perfusion.

A

Abdominal aneurysm

69
Q

What are the interventions for a complete obstruction of an adults airway when they are conscious vs unconscious.

A

Abdominal thrusts (conscious)
Chest compression (unconscious)

70
Q

An appropriate ventilatory rate is one that maintains an EtCO2 of _____ or greater

A

35

71
Q

Adult Behavioral Levels of Agitation:

A

Mild, Moderate, Severe, and Excited Delirium.

Mild: Anxious/agitated but cooperative.

Moderate: Verbally confrontational, uncooperative, threatening physical posture (clenched jaw / fists) but not physically combative.

Severe: Combative, spitting, and biting. They get chemically restrained.

Excited Delirium: Combative and on PCP. They get chemically restrained.

72
Q

Extremities that are restrained will have a circulation check at least every _________. The first of these checks should occur as soon after placement of the restraints as possible.

A

15 minutes

73
Q

Use an EpiPen Junior or Pediatric Epinephrine Auto Injector on…

A

Patients hx of heart problems, over 50 years of age, and peds that weight ≤ 30 kg

74
Q

Rapid deep breaths. Commonly DKA.

A

Kussmaul respirations

75
Q

Alcoholics frequently develop what BG problem?

A

Hypoglycemia

76
Q

Muscle cramps and spasms

A

Spasmodic Pain

77
Q

The placenta detaches from the inner wall of the womb before delivery. The condition can deprive the baby of oxygen and nutrients.

A

Abruptio Placenta

78
Q

The placenta completely or partially covers the opening of the uterus.

A

Placenta Previa

79
Q

The umbilical cord drops through the open cervix into the vagina ahead of the baby and the baby puts pressure on the cord, cutting off oxygen.

A

Prolapsed Cord

80
Q

Gravida/Para

A

Gravida is the number of times a patient has been pregnant. This includes a current pregnancy. Para is the number of times a patient has given birth to a viable child.

81
Q

The _________________ position keeps the pressure off of the inferior vena cava for a pregnant woman.

A

Left lateral recumbent

82
Q

Medical term for gooch

A

Perineum

83
Q

Shoulders stuck during child birth

A

Shoulder Dystocia

84
Q

Period of development in womb between conception and birth

A

Gestation

85
Q

Multiple gestation

A

Twins, Triplets, Quadruplets, Quintuplets, etc.

86
Q

Priority symptoms Childbirth / Labor

A

Crowning at < 36 weeks gestation, Abnormal presentation, Severe vaginal bleeding, Multiple gestation

87
Q

Breach birth intervention

A

Transport unless delivery is imminent, Encourage mother to refrain from pushing, Support presenting part(s) DO NOT PULL.

88
Q

Prolapsed Cord & Shoulder Dystocia interventions

A

Prolapsed Cord & Shoulder Dystocia

89
Q

T/F: Document all times (delivery, contraction frequency and length, and time cord was cut), and names of the prehospital provider who cut the cord.

A

True

90
Q

What are the 3 most important interventions for an apneic patient with a pulse?

A

Open airway chin lift/jaw thrust
Nasal or oral airway
Bag‐valve mask (BVM)

91
Q

What does a Dystonic Reaction look like?

A

Retardation. Involuntary muscle contraction.

92
Q

PPH

A

Postpartum Hemorrhage

93
Q

PPH is the loss of more than ______ of blood following vaginal birth; Minor: _____ to ______. Major: More than ______. Enough blood loss to cause the mother’s condition to deteriorate is also considered PPH.

A

500 ml
500 ml to 1 liter
1 liter

94
Q

PPH for a C-section is The loss of more than _______of blood following a cesarean section

A

1 liter

95
Q

The leading cause of maternal mortality in the world

A

PPH

96
Q

Breastfeeding helps release the hormone, _______, which also helps contract the uterus.

A

Oxytocin

97
Q

Difficult or labored breathing

A

Dyspnea

98
Q

Uterine atony

A

A soft and weak uterus after childbirth. It happens when your uterine muscles don’t contract enough to clamp the placental blood vessels shut after childbirth. This can lead to life-threatening blood loss after delivery.

99
Q

How to stop PPH and deliver the placenta for the EMT scope. (TXA is for medic).

A

Initiate gentle fundal massage to encourage delivery of placenta. If the placenta is delivered, massage it until the uterus is firm. Encourage breastfeeding. Supplemental oxygen as required.

100
Q

The Four T’s of Post‐Partum Hemorrhage (PPH) include:

A

Tone – (70% of PPH incidents) Is uterine atony which occurs when the uterus fails to contract after delivery of the baby.

Trauma - (20% of PPH incidents), which includes: Lacerations of the cervix, vagina or perineum

Tissue - (10% of PPH incidents), which includes: Retained products, placenta, membranes or clots; or An abnormal placenta

Thrombin - ( <1% of PPH incidents), which is caused by issues with coagulation

101
Q

Secondary PPH is defined as a loss of more than 500 ml of blood between 24 hours postpartum and ________ postpartum.

A

12 weeks

102
Q

A natural hormone that stimulates uterine contractions in childbirth and lactation after childbirth

A

Oxytocin

103
Q

Problematic BG levels that require intervention.

A

≤ 60 or ≥ 350

104
Q

Able to follow commands but symptomatic low BG = give _______ of glucose

A

30 Grams

105
Q

The tissue that lines the abdominal wall and pelvic cavity

A

Peritoneal

106
Q

A condition in which you lack enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to your body’s tissues.

A

Anemia

107
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

High potassium usually from Kidney Disease

108
Q

Pericarditis

A

Swelling and irritation of the thin, saclike tissue surrounding the heart (pericardium)

109
Q

Cardiac tamponade

A

Pressure on the heart that occurs when blood or fluid builds up in the space between the heart muscle and the outer covering sac of the heart.

110
Q

Cardiac tamponade symptoms

A

Symptoms include low blood pressure, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness.
Low blood pressure (hypotension), Bulging neck veins, Heartbeat sounds that are distant or muffled when listening through a stethoscope.

111
Q

Peaked T-waves

A

hyperkalemia

112
Q

PERI-ARREST

A

“Crashing or circling the drain”, period just before or after arrest. Peri means around.

113
Q

Remove CPAP when Systolic is ______. Why do we do this?

A

< 90. Obstructive pressure. Similar to problem presented during hyperventilation. The pressure in the lungs puts pressure on the heart which will decrease BP further.

114
Q

T/F: CPAP is not a ventilation device. Patients with an inadequate respiratory rate or depth of respiration will need assistance with a BVM.

A

True

115
Q

Spasmodic movements of the eyeballs into a fixed position, usually upwards.

A

Oculogyric

116
Q

Common drugs implicated in dystonic reactions include many _____ and ______ medications

A

anti-emetics and anti-psychotic

117
Q

Central venous catheter types

A
  • Tunneled catheter (Broviac/Hickman)
  • PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter)
  • Implanted catheter (Mediport)
118
Q

Hyperalimentation infusions (IV nutrition): If stopped for any reason, monitor patient for what?

A

Hypoglycemia

119
Q

IV nutrition

A

Hyperalimentation

120
Q

Superficial reddening of the skin around a central line is called what?

A

Erythema

121
Q

Infant

A

Less than 1 year

122
Q

About _____ % of snake bites are dry bites

A

25%

123
Q

What is the difference between snake and spider bites?

A

Don’t ice snake bites. Mark margin of swelling / redness and time. Both are elevated.

124
Q

When do we txp to a burn center?

A

More than or equal to 20% TBSA.

125
Q

What is a major burn?

A

≥ 20% TBSA partial or full thickness
burns, burns with suspected
inhalation injury or high voltage
electrical burns

126
Q

If your dick is burned, what percentage is that?

A

1%

127
Q

Infant chest compression depth

A

1.5 inches

128
Q

Children chest compression depth

A

2 inches

129
Q

Limit changes / pulse checks to less than _______ during cpr.

A

5 seconds

130
Q

What are the compression ratios for children under 1 month (neonates), children under 8, children over 8, and adults.

A

Less than 1 month - 3:1
Children 1 month - 8 years - 15:2
Children over 8 years - 30:2
Adult - 30:2

131
Q

How old are newly borns?

A

≤ 24 hours old

132
Q

How old are Neonates?

A

≤ 28 days old 1 month

133
Q

How old are Infants?

A

≤ 1 year old

134
Q

Tarry, blood filled, black stool

A

Melena

135
Q

Injury happening where the limbs meet the body

A

Junctional Injury

136
Q

Important interventions with a hypothermic patient

A

Check for pulse for 30-45 seconds to avoid compressions unnecessarily. Hypoglycemia leads to hypothermia, make sure to check sugar.

137
Q

Sweating generally disappears as body temperature rises above ______.

A

104 Degrees F

138
Q

For head trauma, elevate the pt’s head ______ degrees

A

30

139
Q

Signs of major head trauma

A

LOC at any point
GCS ≤ 14
Any post‐traumatic seizure
Multisystem trauma requiring intubation?

140
Q

Why is hyperventilation a problem for head truama?

A

It causes vasoconstriction

141
Q

Cushing’s Triad

A

Increased Intracranial Pressure
1. Increased BP
2. Slow pulse
3. Altered breathing

142
Q

Crush Injury Syndrome may develop after _________ in the presence of a severe crush, but usually requires at least _________ hours of compression.

A

1 hour, 4 hours

143
Q

How long are women pregnant?

A
144
Q

How long are woman pregnant?

A

40 weeks

1) CCCFPD (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions