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LECOM MS1 Gross Anatomy Exam 2 > Abdomen Clinical Supplement > Flashcards

Abdomen Clinical Supplement Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 F’s for abdominal protrusions

A 
Fat
Fluid
Fetus
Flatus
Feces
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2
Q

Where is the gallbladder

A

intersection of semilunar line right and 9th intercostal space

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3
Q

Where is the spleen found

A

under 9th-11th ribs on left midaxillary

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4
Q

Where are the kidneys found

A

11th ribs along the scapular line

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5
Q

Which kidney is more superior and why

A

left is more superior due to liver on right

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6
Q

Dermatome of xiphoid process

A

T6

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7
Q

Dermatome of Umbilicus

A

T10

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8
Q

Dermatome of inguinal ligament

A

L1

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9
Q

What is the cremaster reflex

A

stroking medial aspect of the upper thigh stimulates the ilioinguinal nerve and results in contraction of the cremaster via the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, retracts testes

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10
Q

What level of the spinal cord does the cremaster reflex test

A

L1-L2

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11
Q

What is the abdominal reflex

A

When you stroke skin of wall from lateral to medial at the level of the umbilicus there should be contraction of abdominal wall muscless ipsilaterally

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12
Q

When the abdominal reflex is absent what is indicated

A

spinal cord injuries above T5-T6

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13
Q

Direct inguinal hernias are found in which population

A

commonly found in old men with weak abdominal walls

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14
Q

Where do direct inguinal hernias occur

A

medial to inferior epigastric vesicles through the Hesselbach triangle

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15
Q

Do direct inguinal hernias go through the deep inguinal ring

A

no

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16
Q

What are direct inguinal hernias covered by

A

visceral peritoneum and parietal peritonealium and transversalis fascia

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17
Q

Do direct inguinal hernias enter inguinal canal

A

no

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18
Q

What are the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle

A

Medial: rectus abdominis
Lateral: inferior epigastric vessels
Inferior: inguinal ligament

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19
Q

How do you fix a direct inguinal hernia

A

suture the inguinal ligament and conjoint tendon together

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20
Q

What population do indirect inguinal hernias occur in

A

younger children, males> females

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21
Q

Where do indirect inguinal hernias occur

A

lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels

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22
Q

Do indirect inguinal hernias enter inguinal canal

A

yes

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23
Q

What coverings do indirect inguinal hernias have

A

same as spermatic cord

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24
Q

What is the triangle of pain boundaries

A

inguinal ligament and testicular vessels

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25
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the triangle of pain

A

staples should be avoided due to genitofemoral nerve (femoral branch), femoral nerve, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerve are found here

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26
Q

What is the triangle of doom boundaries

A

vas deferens and testicular vessels

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27
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the triangle of doom

A

stable should be avoided because it includes external iliac vessels, deep circumflex iliac vessels, and genital branch of genitofemoral

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28
Q

What is an epigastric hernia

A

in the midline between the xiphoid and umbilicus

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29
Q

What is an esophageal/ hiatal hernia

A

herniation of the fundus of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus

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30
Q

What is congenital diaphragmatic hernia (bochdalek)

A

herniation thru left vertebrocostal trigone into pulmonary cavity; can involve gut, spleen, or retroperitoneal structures

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31
Q

What is femoral hernia

A

protrustion of gut loops through the femoral ring

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32
Q

Where is a femoral hernia found in relationship to pubic tubercle and femoral vein

A

lateral to pubic tubercle

medial to femoral vein

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33
Q

What is De Garengeot’s Hernia

A

femoral hernia that involves the appendix

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34
Q

What is an incisional hernia

A

herniation through a surgical wound

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35
Q

What are the two type of lumbar hernias

A

Grynfeltt

Petit

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36
Q

What is Grynfeltt’s hernia

A

herniation at superior lumbar triangle between 12th rib, quadratus lumborum, and internal oblique

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37
Q

What is Petit’s hernia

A

herniation at inferior lumbar triangle, between latissimus dorsi, external oblique, and iliac crest

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38
Q

What is obturator hernia

A

herniation of viscera thru the obturator canal

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39
Q

What is supravesical hernia

A

herniating mass leaves thru the opening in the supravesical fossa between median umbilical ligament (urachus) and remnant of the umbilical artery (medial umbilical ligament)

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40
Q

What does supravesical hernia usually result in

A

intestinal obstruction

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41
Q

What nerve is at risk with a supravesical hernia repair

A

iliohypogastric

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42
Q

What is an umbilical hernia

A

herniation through the umbilicus

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43
Q

What nerves are anesthetized in a vasectomy

A

ilioinguinal and genital branch of genitofemoral

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44
Q

What layers of fascia are cut in a vasectomy

A

Skin, Dartos fascia, external spermatic fascia, cremaster’s fascia, internal spermatic fascia

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45
Q

What are neurovascular structures at risk in a vasectomy

A

testicular vessels, pampiniform plexus

ilioinguinal and genitofemoral nerve

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46
Q

What is torsion of the testes

A

rotation and twisting of the spermatic cord, along with vascular occlusion

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47
Q

What is torsion of the testes associated with

A

deficient anchoring of the testicle to the tunica vaginalis and via gubernaculum

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48
Q

What are common S/S of testes torsion

A

sudden testicular pain and enlargement
nausea/vomiting
abnormal cremaster reflex
abnormal positioning of epididymis

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49
Q

What is the normal position of the epididymis

A

head is superior to testicle

body is posterior and lateral

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50
Q

What is hydrocele of the testes

A

excessive accumulation of fluid in the cavity of the tunica vaginalis

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51
Q

What is a congenital hydrocele

A

accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis and direct communication with the peritoneal sac via a persistent processus vaginalis

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52
Q

How can hydroceles be diagnosed

A

with transillumination

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53
Q

What is hematocele of the testis

A

collection of blood in the cavity of the tunica vaginalis

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54
Q

What causes hematocele

A

trauma to testicular veins

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55
Q

What is a varicocele

A

varicose veins involving the pampiniform plexus

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56
Q

Which side do varicoceles most commonly occur on

A

left side

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57
Q

What are S/S of varicocele

A

scrotum feels like a bag of worms
hematuria
flank pain

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58
Q

What causes varicocele

A

entrapment of the left renal vein by the SMA, backing up blood into the left testicular vein that drains into the renal vein

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59
Q

What is a spermatocele

A

benign, cystic accumulation of sperm in the head of the epididymis

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60
Q

How is a spermatocele identifiable on exam

A

mass is superior to testicle and is smooth, soft, and well circumscribed

transilluminates

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61
Q

How are the testes drained lymphatically

A

lumbar/para-aortic nodes

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62
Q

How is the scrotum drained lymphatically

A

superficial inguinal nodes

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63
Q

What is orchitis

A

inflammation of the testes

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64
Q

What is the phrenicocolic ligament

A

tethers the splenic flexure of the colon to the body wall

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65
Q

What does the phrenicocolic ligament restric

A

the flow of ascites in the abdominal cavity

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66
Q

What is peritonitis

A

inflammation of the peritoneum

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67
Q

When is peritonitis painful

A

when it involves parietal peritoneum

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68
Q

What causes peritonitis

A

infections, perforated ulces, appendicitis, diverticulitis, cirrhosis, cancer

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69
Q

What is Morrison’s pouch

A

right subhepatic recess

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70
Q

What is important about Morrison’s pouch

A

fluid can accumulate here in the supine position and can reach the right subphrenic space and irritate the diaphragm and the lesser sac via the epiploic foramen

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71
Q

What are peritoneal adhesions

A

fusion of parietal and visceral layers

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72
Q

What causes peritoneal adhesion

A

trauma or inflammation from surgery

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73
Q

What is guarding

A

reflexive contraction of the abdominal wall musculature to protect inflamed organs

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74
Q

What causes guarding

A

pain from appendicitis, ulcers, tumor, ectopic pregnancies

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75
Q

What is volvulus

A

abdominal organs that have a mesentery can twist and block flow of intestinal contents

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76
Q

What does volvulus result in

A

reduced blood flow and ischemia

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77
Q

What is ascites

A

accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity

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78
Q

What is paracentesis

A

removal of ascites from the peritoneal sac

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79
Q

How is the patient positioned during paracentesis

A

supine

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80
Q

Where is paracentesis performed on the patient

A

t10 dermatome anesthetized and avoid the inferior epigastric artery

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81
Q

What are the layers passed in paracentesis

A 
skin
campers fascia
scarpas fascia
external and internal obliques
transverse abdominus
transversalis fascia
parietal peritoneum
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82
Q

What is culdocentesis

A

removal of fluid from the recto-uterine pouch

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83
Q

How is culdocentesis performed

A

entering the peritoneal cavity via the posterior vaginal fornix

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84
Q

Why is the peritoneum used for intraperitoneal delivery of drugs

A

large surface area permits rapid absorption of fluids within the peritoneal cavity

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85
Q

When is peritoneal dialysis performed

A

renal failure

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86
Q

Why is the peritoneum used for peritoneal dialysis

A

large surface area of the peritoneum allows it to be used as a dialysis membrane

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87
Q

What is ventriculoperitoneal shunt

A

excess CSF can be absorbed thru the peritoneum

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88
Q

What is pneumoperitoneum

A

gas introduced into the peritoneal cavity

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89
Q

When can pneumoperitoneum arise pathologically

A

any bowel performation= free subdiaphragmatic air

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90
Q

What is GERD

A

regurgitation of gastric contents

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91
Q

What are S/S of GERD

A

heartburn
dysphagia
sore throat

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92
Q

What are 4 physiological mechanisms that normally prevent reflux of stoamch into the esophagus

A

lower esophageal sphincter
folds of gastric mucosa that seal
angle of cardiac orifice
right crus of diaphragm

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93
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus

A

replacement of the stratified squamous esophageal epithelium with simple columnar glandular gastric epithelium from chronic reflux

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94
Q

What is barrett’s esophagus related to clinically

A

premaligmnant condition, increased risk for esophageal carcinoma

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95
Q

How can gastric cancer spread locally

A

duodenum, pancreas, posterior body wall

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96
Q

How can gastric cancer spread lymphatically

A

celiac nodes–> supraclavicular–> periumbilical –> anterior axillary nodes

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97
Q

How can gastric cancer spread venous

A

liver

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98
Q

What are important nodes in gastric cancer

A

Virchow’s node
sister Mary Joseph node
Irish node

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99
Q

In gastric cancer, where is Virchow’s node

A

supraclavicular node on the left

100
Q

In gastric cancer, where is sister Mary Joseph node

A

periumbilical

101
Q

In gastric cancer, where is Irish node

A

anterior axillary node

102
Q

What are gastric ulcers

A

erosion of gastric mucosa, can erode thru walls and damage adjacent structures

103
Q

What structures are at risk with a 1st part duodenal ulcer

A

gastroduodenal artery
common bile duct
portal vein

104
Q

What structures are at risk with a 2nd part duodenal ulcer

A

right renal vessels

IVC

105
Q

What structures are at risk with a 3rd part duodenal ulcer

A 
right ureter,
IVC
aorta
Psoas major
gonadal vessels
106
Q

What structures are at risk with a 4th part duodenal ulcer

A

left sympathetic trunk
left psoas major
aorta
left renal vessels

107
Q

What is the consequence of any perforation of the stomach, small intestine, large intestine

A

intraperiotoneal air

108
Q

How can intraperitoneal air be identified

A

free subdiaphragmatic air

109
Q

What is Wilkie’s SMA syndrome

A

compression of the 3rd part of the duodenum between the SMA and aorta

110
Q

What does Wilkie’s SMA syndrome result in

A

obstruction (nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, malnutrition)

111
Q

Who is Wilkie’s SMA syndrome more common in

A

young, anorexic women

112
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum

A

persistent vitelline duct

113
Q

What are symptoms of Meckel’s diverticulum

A

asymptomatic
hematochezia
periumbilical pain

114
Q

Where does Meckel’s diverticulum occur

A

2 feet from ileocecal valve

115
Q

What can causes Ischemia of the intestine

A

blood clot can deprive and result in necrosis and severe visceral pain and ileus

116
Q

What is Chrohn’s disease

A

chronic inflammatory condition of the intestine, most often the ileum, that leads to fibrosis and obstructive symptoms

117
Q

What are S/S of Chrohn’s disease

A

abdominal pain
diarrhea
fistulas and obstruction

118
Q

WHat are three dispositions of the appendix to infection

A

Long thin tube that can collect fecal material

narrow lumen, easily blocked

abundant collection of lymphatic tissue

119
Q

Does the appendicular artery have significant anastomoses

A

no

120
Q

What can result if the appendicular artery is compressed

A

necrosis, gangrene, perforation

121
Q

What is the most common cause of acute abdomen pain

A

appendicitis

122
Q

How does pain occur in appendicitis

A

vague, dully achy pain around the umbilicus at first

irritation of the parietal peritoneum results in a sharp, well-localized somatic pain in RLQ

123
Q

What is McBurney’s point

A

the middle third of a line connecting the ASIS and umbilicus

124
Q

What is McBurney’s point used for

A

surgically approximate the appendix

125
Q

What structures are palpable on a DRE for males

A 
prostate
rectal wall
bladder
seminal vesicles
ductus deferens
perineal body
bulb of penis
126
Q

What structures are palpable on a DRE for females

A

vagina, cervix, perineal body

127
Q

What are S/S of bowel obstruction

A

pain, nausea, vomiting
constipation
hyperactive bowl sounds

128
Q

If blood supply is interrupted in bowel obstruction what must occur

A

surgical emergency

129
Q

What is diverticular disease

A

inflammation of diverticula, small pouches extending from the intestinal lumen

130
Q

Where are diverticula commonly found

A

large intestine (sigmoid colon–LLQ pain)

131
Q

What are S/S of diverticular disease

A

pain, nausea
constipation
peritonitis, bleeding, rupture

132
Q

What is ulcerative colitis

A

inflammation of large intestine most commonly in the rectum

133
Q

What is chronic ulcerative colitis associated with

A

increased risk of colorectal cancer

134
Q

What is intussusception

A

telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjacent part

135
Q

What can intussusception result in

A

ischemia and necrosis

136
Q

What is the presentation of intussusception

A

infant is lathargic, vomiting, abdominal pain, palpable mass, currant jelly stool

137
Q

What are S/S of colorectal carcinoma

A

bright red bloody stool
weight loss
changes in stool
malaise

138
Q

How does colorectal carcinoma spread locally

A

peritoneum, pelvic organs

139
Q

How does colorectal carcinoma spread lymphatically

A

drainage to corresponding nodes

140
Q

How does colorectal carcinoma spread venous

A

liver, lungs, vertebra, brain

141
Q

What is colostomy

A

proximal portion of colon is sutured to an opening along the anterior abdominal wall thru the rectus abdominis where waste products are expelled

142
Q

What is rectal prolapse

A

protrusion of the rectal wall into the anal canal or thru the anal opening

143
Q

What are S/S of rectal prolapse

A

reddish mucosal mass protrusion into the anal canal

constipation
malnutrition
prior rectal trauma

144
Q

What is a rectocele

A

weakness in puborectalis and pubovaginalis muscles that cause bulging of rectal wall into posterior vaginal wall

145
Q

What are S/S of a rectocele

A

painful intercourse
sense of fullness
constipation
painful bowel movements

146
Q

What is considered an upper GI bleed

A

proximal to the ligament of Treitz

147
Q

What are S/S of an upper GI bleed

A

vomiting blood or melena black stool

148
Q

What are causes of an upper GI bleed

A

stomach cancer
ulcers
gastritis
esophageal varices

149
Q

What is considered a lower GI bleed

A

distal to the liagment of Treitz

150
Q

What are S/S of a lower GI bleed

A

hematochezia (red stool)

151
Q

What are causes of a lower GI bleed

A 
diverticular disease
hemorrhoids
polyps
anal fissures
cancer
IBD
152
Q

What is ischemic colitis

A

inflammation of the colon as a result of poor blood flow

153
Q

What are causes of ischemic colitis

A

atherosclerosis
hypovolemia
hypoperfusion
sickle cell anemia

154
Q

What are S/S of ischemic colitis

A

pain and blood stool

155
Q

What are important watershed areas in ischemic colitis

A

Griffith’s point

Sudeck’s point

156
Q

What is Griffith’s point

A

splenic flexure: middle colic to left colic artery

157
Q

What is Sudeck’s point

A

recto-sigmoidal junction: last sigmoidal to superior rectal artery

158
Q

What can cause a spleen rupture

A

ribs 9-11 fracture on the left

159
Q

What are S/S of a spleen rupture

A

left shoulder pain when ruptured spleen irritates the diaphragm

160
Q

What is Kehr’s sign

A

when spleen irritates the diaphragm and causes left shoulder pain

161
Q

What are causes of hepatomegaly

A

heart failure
cancer
alcoholic cirrhosis

162
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the liver

A

most to hepatic nodes
bare area: phrenic nodes
falciform ligament: parasternal
Round ligament: umbilical nodes

163
Q

What is the significance of lymphatic drainage of the liver and breast

A

connections to superficial lymph channels provide a direct route for breast cancer to metastasize to liver

164
Q

What is Calot’s Triangle

A

cystic duct, common hepatic duct, and base of the liver

165
Q

What does Calot’s triangle contain

A

cystic artery and veins
lymph nodes
autonomic fibers

166
Q

What is Pringle’s maneuver

A

clamping vessels of the portal triad at the free edge of the lesser omentum to control bleeding during hepatic procedures

167
Q

What are 3 causes of jaundice

A

Pre-hepatic
Hepatic
Obstructive

168
Q

WHat is pre hepatic jaundice

A

excessive RBC breakdown

169
Q

What is hepatic jaundice

A

disruption of liver function

170
Q

What is obstructive jaundice

A

if bile cannot escape gallbladder or biliary tree due to gall stones, it enters blood and causes jaundice

171
Q

What is liver cirrhosis

A

hepatocytes are replaced by fatty or fibrous connective tissue which obstructs blood flow through the liver

172
Q

What does liver cirrhosis result in

A 
hepatomegaly
ascites
edema
jaundice
splenomegaly
portal hypertension
173
Q

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

rare thrombic or non-thrombotic obstruction of hepatic venous outflow, caused by maligancy or hypercoaguable states

174
Q

What are S/S of Budd-Chiari syndrome

A 
hepatosplenomegaly
ascites
abdominal pain
jaundice
edema
prominence of collateral veins
175
Q

What are the 3 portal-caval anastomosis

A

left gastric-esophageal veins
superior rectal to middle/inferior rectal
paraumbilical to epigastric

176
Q

What does left gastric –> esophageal veins anastomosis result in

A

esophageal varices

hematemesis

177
Q

What does superior rectal–> middle and inferior rectal anastomosis result in

A

heorrhoids and rectal bleeding

178
Q

What does paraumbilical–> epigastric anastomosis result in

A

caput medusa

179
Q

When is a porto caval shunt performed

A

in patients with HTN

180
Q

What is a porto caval shunt

A

portal vein to IVC

Splenic vein and left renal vein

181
Q

What is blood flow in the portal vein

A

right lobe of the liver receives mainly blood from the intestines

left lobe quadrate and caudate lobes receive blood mainly from the stomach and spleen

182
Q

If cancerous cells from the stomach invade the portal system, which part of the liver will they most likely invade

A

left lobe

183
Q

Where are 3 places for gallstones to be commonly lodged

A

fundus at the neck of the gallbladder

bile duct
hepatopancreatic ampulla

184
Q

What is cholecystectomy

A

surgical removal of gallbladder

185
Q

What needs to be performed in order to do a cholecystectomy

A

pringle’s maneuver to ligate vessels and find Calot’s triangle to ligate cystic artery

186
Q

What is cholecystitis

A

inflammation of the gallbladder

187
Q

Where does pain from cholecystitis initially show up

A

in epigastric region

188
Q

Where does pain from cholecystitis shift to

A

right hypochondriac region at the 9th costal cartilage junction and linea semilunaris

189
Q

Where will somatic pain show up from cholecystitis

A

C3-C5 region of shoulders

190
Q

What is pancreatitis

A

inflammation of the pancreas

191
Q

What can cause pancreatitis

A

gallstones and retrograde flow of bile into the pancreatic duct

192
Q

Where does the pancreas drain lymphatically

A

celiac and superior mesenteric nodes

193
Q

Where do cancers of the pancreas often spread to

A

lumbar nodes

194
Q

What are S/S of pancreatic cancer

A 
obstruction of bile/pancreatic ducts
weight loss
abdominal and back pain
jaundice
painless and palpable gallbladder
195
Q

Where does pancreatic metastasis occur

A

regional to adjacent organs and any peritoneal surface, local nodes, and liver

196
Q

What may pancreatic cancer obstruct

A

portal vein or IVC

197
Q

What occurs during pancreatic hemorrhage

A

filling in lesser sac and greater omentum

198
Q

What is at risk during a splenectomy

A

tail of the pancreas

199
Q

What occurs if the tail of the pancreas is damaged

A

digestive enzymes are relased into the abdominal cavity

200
Q

What is an abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

congenital or acquired dilation of the wall of the aorta, palpated left of the midline; fatal if it ruptures

201
Q

What is aortic dissection

A

tear in the intimal layer of the aorta and hemorrhage between the layers of the vessel

202
Q

What are S/S of aortic dissection

A

acute onset of chest/back pain
lower extremity ischemia and neuropathy
pulse defacit in lower extremities

203
Q

What is obliteration of the abdominal aorta

A

gradual build-up of plaque in the abdominal aorta at the bifurcation

204
Q

What can obliteraltion of the abdominal aorta cause

A

claudication
impotence
Leriche Syndrome

205
Q

What are 4 aorta-aorta anastomoses

A
  1. Intercostals, subcostal, lumbar–> iliolumbar, superior gluteal, internal iliac
  2. intercostals, subcostal, lumbar–> circumflex iliac–> external iliac
  3. IMA–> middle/inferior rectals–> internal iliac
  4. Subclavian–> internal thoracic–> superior epigastric–>inferior epigastric–> external iliac
206
Q

How can the IVC be obstructed

A

abdominal masses or build up of clots around an IVC filter

207
Q

What are caval-caval anstomoses

A
  1. Inferior–> superior epigastric
  2. Superficial epigastric–> lateral thoracic
  3. vertebral/lumbar veins and Batson’s plexus–> azygos system
208
Q

How can we treat recurring blood clots arising from the lower extremity

A

placing a filter/screen in the IVC

209
Q

What is psoas major covered by

A

investing fascia

210
Q

How may an infection spread to the psoas muscle

A

from vertebra thru the investing fascia of the psoas major muscle

211
Q

How can an infection spread from the psoas muscle

A

underneath the sheath deep to the inguinal ligament

212
Q

What is the relevance of the Psoas test/sign

A

inflammation of viscera can affect function of the iliopsoas muscle

213
Q

What can impact function of right psoas major muscle

A

inflamed retrocecal appendix

214
Q

How is the psoas test/sign performed

A

ask patient to actively flex the thigh at the hip

abdominal pain=positive test

215
Q

What is the thomas test used for

A

diagnose dysfunction/contracture of the psoas major muscle

216
Q

How is the Thomas test performed

A

patient lays on their back and examiner flexes the unaffected hip towards the chest while the affected hip remains flat on the table

217
Q

What is a positive Thomas test

A

dysfunction indicated when the test reveals flexion of the contralateral hip

218
Q

When do we see iliohypogastric nerve injury

A 
inguinal hernia surgery
hysterectomy
appendectomy
pregnancy
abdominal muscle tears
219
Q

When do we see ilioinguinal nerve injury

A

inguinal hernia surgery
abdominal surgery
pregnancy
placement of femoral catheter

220
Q

When do we see genitofemoral nerve injury

A

hernia repair
appendectomy
retroperitoneal hematoma

221
Q

When do we see lateral femoral cutaneous nerve injury

A

entrapment in sartorius or inguinal ligament

222
Q

What is meralgia paresthetica

A

entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

223
Q

What are renal cysts

A

large, fluid-filled cysts, commo in older individuals

224
Q

Multiple renal cysts may lead to what

A

renal failure

225
Q

What does renal carcinoma metastasis spread locally

A

adrenal gland

posterior abdominal wall

226
Q

Where does renal carcinoma metastasis spread lymphatically

A

lumbar nodes

227
Q

Where does renal carcinoma spread venous

A

bone, brain, liver, lung

228
Q

Where does renal carcinoma arise from

A

tubular epithelium

229
Q

What is renal carcinoma associated with

A

hematuria and back pain

230
Q

What is renal hypertension

A

stenosis of a renal artery or supra-renal artery reduces blood flow to the kidney

231
Q

What does renal hypertension result in

A

humoral response for the kidney in an attempt to raise normal blood pressure

232
Q

WHat are accessory renal arteries

A

end arteries that do not anastomose with branches from the renal arteries

233
Q

What can blockage of renal arteries lead to

A

renal infarct

234
Q

Which kidney is used for transplantation and why

A

left kidney

renal vein is longer

235
Q

Where are transplanted kidneys placed

A

iliac fossa

236
Q

Where are transplanted kidneys placed arterial

A

internal iliac artery

237
Q

What is nephroptosis

A

inferior displacement of the kidney due to insufficient peri-renal adipose tissue

238
Q

What may nephroptosis causes symptom wise

A

flank or groin pain

hematuria

239
Q

Where are 4 places the ureters are contricted and a stone can become lodged

A

renal pelvis and ureter
crossing pelvic inlet
passage thru the wall of the bladder
testicular/ovarian vessels cross the ureter

240
Q

What are consequences of urinary obstruction

A

hydronephrosis

241
Q

What is hydronephrosis

A

enlargement of the ureter, renal pelvis, and or calyces

242
Q

What can hydronephrosis lead to

A

renal failure

243
Q

What are causes of hydronephrosis

A

stones, tumors, prostatic hypertrophy

244
Q

What are S/S of kidney stones

A

flank to groin pain
nausea
vomiting
hematuria

245
Q

What is the arterial supply to the abdominal ureter

A

medial side

246
Q

What is the arterial side to the pelvic ureter

A

lateral side

LECOM MS1 Gross Anatomy Exam 2 (22 decks)

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