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ATS Intro > Abbreviations > Flashcards

Abbreviations Flashcards

1
Q

ICAO

A

International Civil aviation opertations (agency of the UN)

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2
Q

CARs (Canadian Aviation Regulations) Name 3 sectors

A

Included (rarely changing). Referenced (Updated as procedures change). External (Special documents, complement regulations)

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3
Q

FIR ( Flight information regions, name all 7)

A

Vancouver, edmonton, winnipeg, toronto, montreal, moncton, gander

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4
Q

CDA (canadian domestic airspace, break down regions)

A

Northern(NDA): Artic Control area (ACA) NDA above 27000’. Northern control area. (NCA) NDA above 23000’.
Southern Domestic Area (SDA) Southern control Area above 18000’
Low level below 18000’

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5
Q

Atmospheric composition

A

78 percent N
21 percent 02
1 percent carbon dioxide, water, other gasses.

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6
Q

3 Characteristics of our atmosphere

A

Mobility
Compression
Expansion

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7
Q

Define characteristics of a standard atmosphere for aviation

A

Pressure: 1013,25 hPA
Temp: 15 celsius
Air is unsaturated
Lapse rate:1.98 celsius/1000’

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8
Q

Attack angles for maximum lift/stall

A

Lift increases as attack angle approaches 15 degrees then lessens and when attack angle is 20 degrees or greater lift stalls because forces necessary to bend the air area greater than air viscosity and it seperates from the wing.

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9
Q

3 axes of aircraft rotation

A

lateral: Pitch, nose moves up or down, elevators
Longitudinal: Roll, wing tips go up or down, ailerons
Vertical: Yaw, mose moves left or right, rudder

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10
Q

Describe the different Ice types and their characteristics

A

Clear and glassy, ) to -10 degress.
Rime opaque and granular -15 to -20 degrees
Hoarfrost, thin crystalline ice
Mixed: combines clear and rime ice.
Ice accumulation can be trace, light, moderate or severe. (1/4”/ hour, 1/4” to 1”/hour, 1” to 3”/ hour, and Greater than 3”/ hour respectively)

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11
Q

Jet stream characteristics

A

Fast flowing stream of air near the tropopause.
60 knots to 250 knots
Few thousand feet thick, many miles wide. Associated with fronts

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12
Q

Cloud height definitions

A

Low: up to 6500’
Mid: 6500-19000’
High: above 20000’

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13
Q

NAvigation theory definition

A

Navigation is safe, law abiding and on course

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14
Q

Define variation and Deviation (hint: directionality)

A

Variation: Difference between true north and magnetic north
Deviation: difference between magnetic north and compass north

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15
Q

Breakdown degrees of latitude

A

60 nautical miles in one degree, 60 minutes in a degree, 60 seconds in a minute
Longitude measured in degrees eaast or west of prime meridian (0-180)

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16
Q

NAme the time zones in canada/ difference from UTC

A

Newfoundland standard/ 3.5
Atlantic/4
Eastern/5
Central/6
Mountain/7
Pacific/8
1 hor difference for daylight savings time

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17
Q

Define bearing, heading, track and drift

A

Bearing is direction from a point measure from 0-360 degrees. Heading is the direction the nose of the aircraft is pointing, track is how the airplane is moving relative to the ground and drift is the difference between heading and track.

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18
Q

Radio frequency uses and bands for civilian aviation?

A

Lf/MF: commercial broadcasting
HF: long range communications
VHF: ATC for air to ground (VOR frequencies)
UHF: Military for air to ground (TACAN Frequencies)

VHF: 118 to 136 mHz in 0.025 mHz intervals for 720 discreet channels

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19
Q

NDB

A

Non direction beacon, denote a specific locations and identify themselves in morse code

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20
Q

VOR

A

Very high frequency omnidirectional range
Broadcast 360 signals for every degree around them

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21
Q

DME

A

Distance measuring equipment
Ground bases station that measure distacne to plane, ground speed and time to arrival

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22
Q

TACAN

A

Military VOR us UFH frequencies

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23
Q

ILS

A

Instrument landing system. Composed of Localizer for lateral guidance to runway, Glide path transmitter for guidance to appropriate approach angle and Final approach fix (FAF) denoting start of landing area.

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24
Q

GNSS

A

Global navigation satellite system.
Guides SIDs (Standard instrument dpeartures) and STARs (Standard terminal arrivals)
GNSS is a boon to takeoff and landing efficiency.

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25
Q

4 Reasons for ATC standard Phraseology

A

Uniformity, Understanding, Brevity and Clarity

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26
Q

3 Steps of situational awareness

A

Perception, comprehension and projection
Perception is about getting the right information at the right time, comprehension is synthesizing disjointed information and projection is successful extrapolation of comprehended information.

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27
Q

4 Legs of a circuit

A

Downwind, base, final approach and crosswind.
Circuits are almost always composed of all left hand turns and aircraft never join on the crosswind leg.

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28
Q

Clearance limit

A

POint to which an aircraft has clearance

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29
Q

Define Night

A

End of evening civil twilight to morning civil twilight

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30
Q

AAS + RAAS (hint: FSS provides these)

A

Aerodrome advisory services and remote aerodrome advisory services

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31
Q

FDE

A

Flight Data Entry (Strip)

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32
Q

Roles of Clearance delivery controller

A

Issue IFR clearances, create FDE, provide IFR and VFR flights with airport info

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33
Q

Roles of ground controller

A

Handle of all ground traffic, provide taxi authorizations and coordinate with tower controllers

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34
Q

Roles of tower controller

A

Take off and landing clearances, aircraft seperation, coordinate with ground controller and ACC enroute controller
Can be split into depature/arrival controller at busy sites

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35
Q

Ground Visibility

A

Visibility reported by an observer on the ground

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36
Q

Flight Visibility

A

Visibility reported by someone in the air

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37
Q

Minimum conditions

A

Flight vis of 3 miles, visual reference to the surface. 500 vertical feet to a cloud or 1 horizontal mile. ground vis of 3 miles and minimun ceiling of 500 feet

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38
Q

Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC)

A

Forces pilots to fly IFR less than 1 mile visibility.

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39
Q

Special VFR (SVF)

A

Condition betwem IMC and abd VFR flight and ground vis both 1 mile. Aircraft retains reference to the surface and is clear of Clouds

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40
Q

VFR Over the Top ( VFR OTT)

A

Ground vis is obscured by cloud cover
1000 vertical feet to any cloud, cloud layers 5000 feet apart, flight vis is 5 miles
5 mile ground vis and no weather 1 hour before til 2 hours after.

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41
Q

Right of Way

A

On the right has the right
Head on appraoch both move right
Overtaking planes alter course to the right
Landing aircraft have right of way, lower before higher
Pilot with right of way is responsible for avoiding collison

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42
Q

Minimum flight altitudes in built up areas

A

Planes 1000’ above an obstacle within 2000’
Balloon 500’ within 500’
Choppers 100’ within 500’
exceptions for life saving actions

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43
Q

What defines acrobatic flights

A

bank angle over 60 degrees

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44
Q

CDA airspace class A (altitude)

A

Above 18000’ IFR space

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45
Q

Airspace class b (Below)

A

12500’ to 18000’ IFR and CVFR

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46
Q

Airspace class C (Clearance)

A

Control zones and terminal control zones, clearance required (becomes class e if aerodrome is not in operation)

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47
Q

Airspace class d (dialogue)

A

Control zones and terminal control zones but clearance is not required to enter, nbut 2 way coms with ATC is necessary. BEcomes class e in off hours

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48
Q

Class E (easy)

A

All non a,b,c or d areas. ATC services provided only for IFR flights. (ex a small iarport closes for the night, will be e until it reopens.)

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49
Q

Class F (fancy)

A

Special use airspace, restricted or military zones, flight areas defined by special activities taking place

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50
Q

Flight zone g (general)

A

all uncontrolled airspace. NO ATC service but FSS is available. (ex fl200 in NDA)

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51
Q

VFR conditions for flight in zone b

A

NEed radio navigation equipment, ability to report to a point specified by ATS and ability to fly in VMC

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52
Q

Class F specifications

A

Advisory: Hazardous Activities (training or parachuting)
Restricted: More dangerous, serious risk activities (Military or live fire training)
DAnger dangerous activities (mid air refueling)

IFR cleared to enter if it has military approval, altitude reservation or the craft is cleared for visual approach.

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53
Q

Class F Region coding

A

101-199 BC
201-299 AB
301-399 SK
401-499 MB
501-599 ON
601-699 QC
701-799 Atlantic Canada
801-899 Yukon
901-999 NWT and Nunavut

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54
Q

Define Airways

A

Highways in the sky, defined routes in controlled airspace

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55
Q

Define Routes

A

Dirt roads in the sky, point to point in uncontrolled airspace

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56
Q

Low LEvel airway definition and sign

A

2200’ agl to 18000’ feet Noted with a V, called Victor airways

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57
Q

Define T routes

A

Low level RNAV route that requires GNSS 10 miles either side of centerline, no splay (LF/mf or uhf/vhf airways have splay due to signal innacuracy over distance)

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58
Q

HIgh level Airway sign

A

Called Jets or J

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59
Q

Define Q routes

A

High level fixed RNAV routes (T routes are low level equivalent)

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60
Q

Why do Terminal Control Area exist?

A

To privde extra IFR control at busy airports

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61
Q

Define Terminal Control Zone Boundaries

A

Inner Circle (From 1200’ above ground level in a 12 mile radius)
Intermediate circle (fomr 2200’ above ground level in a 35 mile radius)
Outer limit (from 9500’ above ground level in a 45 mile radius)

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62
Q

Define Control Area Extension (CAE)

A

For busy areas where seperation is inssuficient, from 2200’ to 18000’

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63
Q

Define Transition areas in the TCA

A

Additional airspace for containment of IFR. 700’ to base of overlying controlled airspace, usually in a 15 mile radius

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64
Q

Define MOCA

A

Minimum Object Clearance ALtitude (between specific fixes)

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65
Q

Define MEA

A

Minimum en route altitude. Allows signal clearance from navaid between points and provides terrain clearance

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66
Q

Define MSA

A

Minumum sector altitude. provides 1000’ clearance to all objects in a 25 mile radius about a certain point

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67
Q

Safe altitude 100nm

A

1000’ clearance within 100nm of an aerodrome

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68
Q

Area Minimum altitude

A

1000’ clearance in specified area. For use in IMC (2000’ in mountainous regions.)

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69
Q

Transition Altitude

A

Height above which flights would transition into flight levels (18000’)

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70
Q

Minimum recption altitude (MRA)

A

Lowest altitude to maintain acceptable UHF/VHF signal will be received

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71
Q

VTAs (Visual informational aids)

A

VFR Terminal area charts. Info for pilots operating in busy terminals

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72
Q

VNCs (Visual information)

A

VFR navigational charts. info for enroute portion of vfr flight

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73
Q

World Aeronautical charts

A

infor for extended cross country flights at lower altitudes, less detailed than VNCs

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74
Q

CAP

A

Canada Air Pilot. IFR flight info, SIDs and STARs, ground ops infor, noise abatement

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75
Q

Terminal charts

A

IFR charts for busy airport areas

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76
Q

Lo

A

Low altitude IFR charts ,airway route data, minimum altitudes, distances airport and radio info.

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77
Q

Hi

A

Upper level IFR Chart ( above 18000’) All radio navigation and airway infor, less detailed than lows for surface features

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78
Q

What colour do Lf/MF and VHF/UHF frequencies appear on charts in?

A

Green and Black respectively

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79
Q

ATIS

A

Automatic Trminal information service. Recorded message with terminal information.

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80
Q

Define standard and setting altimeter regions

A

Standard is above 18000’ and setting is below 18000’. Setting uses 29.91 mmHg and setting uses nearest station pressure. When transitioning into standard region pilot will wait until in the standard region and set altimeter to standard. When transitioning into setting region the pilot will abtain the appropriate altimeter pressure and set the altimeter BEFORE entering the setting region.

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81
Q

When does a flight end?

A

When all persons have disembarked

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82
Q

Name the 3 phases of departure

A

Preflight( standing, pushback, taxi), takeoff and initial climb (takeoff to 1000’ above runway of initial power reduction, whichever comes first)

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83
Q

Define the enroute section of an IFR flight

A

Completion of initial climb to the controlled descent to the initial approach fix (IAF)

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84
Q

Define landing flare

A

When the nose of the aircraft is raised to begin the landing deceleration.

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85
Q

Name the 3 phases of arrival

A

Approach (from IAF to beginning of landing flare), landing( from landing lfare til aircraft exits the runway or comes to a complete stop on the runway), postflight (Taxi, standing)

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86
Q

Define top of Descent

A

the point at which the pilot begins an idle descent from cruise altitude to final approach to minimize fuel usage, pollution and noise.

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87
Q

What are the standard emergency frequencies

A

121.5 and 243 Mhz

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88
Q

What is the GEneral Broadcast frequency

A

126.7 mHz. Pilots broadcast their intentions in uncontrolled airspace during the enroute portion of a VFR flight.

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89
Q

What is the difference between the Mandatory frequency and the Aerodrome traffic frequency?

A

At small aerodromes the Mandatory frequency is monitored by FSS that pilots must be in contact with when operated around that aerodrome (landing and taking off). The aerodrome traffic frequency serves the same purpose at uncontrolled aerodromes. It is unmonitored but pilots broadcast their intentions so there is an overall picture of traffic at an aerodrome.

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90
Q

FISE

A

Flight information services en route. This frequency is monitored by FSS to create flight plans and give information to pilots at small AERODROMES.

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91
Q

CU,TCU, CB, ACC

A

Cloud types, Cumulus, Towering cumulus, cumulonimbus and altocumulus castellanus

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92
Q

Buys Ballot Law

A

Based on coriolis this law states that if the wind is at your back in the northern hemisphere, low pressure will be to your left.

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93
Q

Veering wind

A

Wind changes in a clockwise direction

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94
Q

Backing wind

A

Wind changes in a counter clockwise direction

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95
Q

Describe wind arrows on meterological charts

A

Wind is shown in the direction it is coming from. The barbs on the arrow represent speed. A full bard is 10 knots and a half is 5.

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96
Q

Name the 5 lifting agents (Of air in the atmosphere)

A

Convection, orographic lift, mechanical turbulence, convergence and frontal lift.

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97
Q

Name the 4 air masses typically found in canada

A

Maritime Artic, Maritime Polar, MAritime Tropical and Continental arctic (typical winter airmass for much of Canada)

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98
Q

Describe Polar Front Theory

A

This theory states teh world is covered by two air masses, the polar airmass and the tropical, equatorial airmass and that they are divded by the polar front.

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99
Q

How does the dew point change with frontal passage?

A

Dew point increases with warm front passage and decreases with cold frontal passage (cold air is dry)

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100
Q

Describe pressure changes with frontal passage

A

Pressure falls as a warm front approaches, will be lower in the area between fronts and then will rise after cold frontal passage.

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101
Q

Define wind shear

A

Wind shear is the difference between speed and direction of wind vectors

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102
Q

Roughly what percentage of thunderstorms end up being deemed severe

A

10 percent

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103
Q

What stage of thunderstorms does all severe weather happen during?

A

The mature phase

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104
Q

What are gneral updrafts and down drafts in severe thunderstorms?

A

6000’ per second updrafts and 2000’ per second downdrafts

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105
Q

What are the 2 types (and subtypes) of Thunderstorms

A

Air mass storms (convective storms, advective storms, Orographic storms)
Frontal Storms (Can be warm or cold, cold are more severe)

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106
Q

Name the 4 types of lightning

A

In cloud, cloud to ground, cloud to cloud and distant
Lightning gnerally happens in plus/minus 8 degrees

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107
Q

What type of clouds are indicators of possible tornado formation?

A

Mammatus clouds

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108
Q

True or False, LArge commercial airliners can handle flying through thunderstorms?

A

False, all aircraft shold avoid thunderstorms

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109
Q

Define St Elmos fire and its relevance to flight

A

It is a fan shaped lightning burst in the sky that indicates the presence of thunderstorms

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110
Q

Define turbulence

A

The irregular motion of air resulting in the eddies or vertical currents

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111
Q

Name the 4 types of turbulence

A

Convective, Mechanical, Wind shear, Wake turbulence

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112
Q

Name the 2 categories (and their subcategories of turbulence)

A

Friction Turbulence (Mechanical, shear, frontal)
Thermal Turbulence (Convective or advective (cold air))

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113
Q

Describe the three levels of turbulence

A

light: moemtary, slight movement
Moderate: objects may be dislodged but control of aircraft remains
Severe: Large and abrubt changes in attitude and altitude, control may be lost. unsecured objects will be tossed about.

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114
Q

State the differnce between macro and microbursts

A

Macro is over 4km diameter and micro is under 4km diameter. Usually micro last longer than macro.

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115
Q

Waht is virga and what could it signal?

A

Virga is rain that evaporates before it hits the ground. It is important because it could signal a downburst area. The cooling of air through evaporation could lead to rapid sinking of air. Downbursts can be 6000’/minute.

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116
Q

Name the 2 types of shear

A

Speed shear and directional shear

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117
Q

CAT

A

Clear Air turbulence, violent high level wind shear found around jet streams.

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118
Q

LLWS

A

low level wind shear. Very hazardous because planes are closer to the ground.

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119
Q

Define Chop (vs Turbulence)

A

Chop is less severe, slight rapid bumps, think driving on a bumpy rouad. No noticeable changes in attitude or altitude.

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120
Q

What must pilots report when encountering turbulence?

A

Position, Time, Altitude, Aircraft Type, Turbulence Type/Intensity (Same features as reporting Icing)

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121
Q

Why are high performance aircraft more prone to icing issues?

A

They have thinner wing profiles

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122
Q

What is clear ice composed of?

A

Supercooled water droplets

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123
Q

Waht are the conditions for icing to occur?

A

The plane must be flying through visible water and either teh water or the surface of the plane must be at freezing temps

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124
Q

Why are ice crystals not an icing danger?

A

They do not adhere to aircraft

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125
Q

What cloud type has the most icing potential in winter?

A

Stratocumulus

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126
Q

Why is carburator icing so dangerous?

A

It can happen in positive temps as air cools leaving the carburator and if ice blocks air intake stalling is possible. Carburator icing is less liekly on cold dry days when there is not moisture in the air as it leaves the carburator.

127
Q

How can Ice alter aircraft performance?

A

Leff lift from wings, less propellor efficiency, can dmage antennas and alter airflow around a plane which can lead to less functionality of rudders and elevators.
A half inch of ice buildup can reduce performance by 50 percent.

128
Q

Describe anti icing measure and de icing measures

A

Anti ice hampers ice buildup (fluids and heating)
De icing seeks to remove ice that is already on the plane (Pneumatic systems)

129
Q

How does icing increase workload for controllers?

A

Runways and planes need extra attention on the ground
Planes in the air may request holding or rerouting to avoid icing areas.
These both increase controller load.

130
Q

Waht do pilots report when they encounter icing?

A

POsition, time altitude, aircraft type, type and intensity of icing, as well as whether icing is associated with precipitation.

131
Q

DZ (weather)

132
Q

RA (weather)

133
Q

SN (Weather)

134
Q

SG (weather)

A

Snow grains

135
Q

IC (weather)

A

ice crystals

136
Q

PL (weather)

A

Ice pellets

137
Q

GR (weather)

A

Hail (graupel)

138
Q

GS (weather)

A

Snow Pellets (think granular snow)

139
Q

UP (weather)

A

unknown precipitation

140
Q

BR (weather)

A

Mist (think baby rain)

141
Q

FG (weather)

142
Q

FU (weather)

A

Smoke (Fumee)

143
Q

DU (weather)

144
Q

SA (weather)

145
Q

HZ (weather)

146
Q

VA (weather)

A

Volcanic Ash

147
Q

PO (weather)

A

Whirls (dust devils)

148
Q

SQ (weather)

149
Q

+FC (weather)

A

Tornado (think:big funnel cloud)

150
Q

FC (weather)

A

Funnel Cloud

151
Q

SS (weather)

A

Sand storm

152
Q

DS (weather)

A

Dust Storm

153
Q

VC (weather)

A

In the vicinity, within 5 nm

154
Q

SKC

A

Clear skies, no cloud cover.

155
Q

Define ceiling

A

Lowest level of broked or overcast skies. At least 5 octas.

156
Q

FM (weather change)

A

From: indicates rapid change from a specific time onward

157
Q

TEMPO (weather change)

A

Temporary, fluctuation during a sepcific period

158
Q

PROB (weahter change)

A

Probability of an event during a time period

159
Q

BECMG (Weather Change)

A

Becoming, more gradual change during a specific time.

160
Q

TAF (weather forecast)

A

Terminal area forecast. Issued 4 timess a day starting at 0000Z. Have a validity shown with start time and end time.
Issued in edmonton and Montreal for the whole country

161
Q

GFAs (weather forcast)

A

Graphical Area forecast. 2 types: clouds/weather, icing/turbulence
Shows area from surface to FL240.
Wind is only included if it is greater than 20 knots gusting to 30 knots.

162
Q

SIGMET (and types)

A

Special forecast for serious aviation hazards. Short validty, and supercedes any prior issued forecast.
Types: WS severe weather. TC tropical cyclone. WV Volcanic ash.

163
Q

AIRMET

A

Bulletin for less severe weather likely to affect smaller aircraft. Can be issued to amend a preexisting GFA. Same hazards as SIGMET but less severe.

164
Q

QS (weather)

A

No movemnt of reported phenomena (Think:quite stationary)

165
Q

MOVG (weather)

A

Indicates moving weather

166
Q

PIREP

A

Pilot reported weather update.
Can be routine or Urgent signalled by 10/UA and 01/UUA (think more urgents more U’s)
Routine will include useful but not cirital weather info and urgent will indicate potential serious hazards.

167
Q

DURD (weather reporting)

A

During descent

168
Q

DURC (weather reporting)

A

During Climb

169
Q

FLUNKN (weather reporting)

A

Flight level unknown. (think: I’m flunking because I don’t even know the level Im flying at.)

170
Q

FD (weather forecast)

A

forecast of winds and temps aloft (think flight deck)

171
Q

NAme and define the time scale for turbluence

A

Occasional (OCNL) less than 1/3 of the time
Intermittent (IMTNT) 1/3 to 2/3 of the time
Continuous (CONTUS) more the 2/3 of the time

172
Q

What must pilots include in wind shear reports?

A

Wind direction and speed on both sides of the front
Altitude of experienced shear (frontal penetration)
If there was turbluence, especially during climb out or approach (nearer ground level)

173
Q

Define a crosswind

A

And wind that is 20-90 degrees relative to the track of an aircraft

174
Q

Name the 3 aicraft engine types

A

Piston
Jet (Turbojet and Turbofan, fan is the newer version)
Turboprop (combine piston and jet)

175
Q

Describe the advantages and disadvatages or pistion engines

A

Cons: Many complex parts, thye are heavy, only effective at low altitudes
Pros: Immediate power, high manoeuverability, fuel efficient at low altitudes

176
Q

What ype of planes are radial piston engines common on?

A

Older aircraft or specialty aircraft. (Less aredynamic than horizontally opposed cylinders but they are lightweight and compact and cool well.

177
Q

What are the pros and cons of Jet engines

A

Both turbojet and turbofan engines are very innefficient at low altitudes (most effective at FL330 and up to FL370), they also have a slow power response.
Pros: good power to weight ratio and simple compared to piston engines, Fans improve on the tradition turbojet by being quiter, more efficient and are now the most common engine type of commerical jets.

178
Q

What defines turboprop aircraft?

A

Trubine is used to drive a propellor. Power comes 90-05 percent from the prop and 5-10 percent from the thrust of the turbine itself. These are good for mid altitude flights and are common on commuter passenger aircraft for short haul flights.

179
Q

List engine speeds for each type of engine

A

Piston: up to 250 knots
Turboprop: 200-300 knots
Jet: 300-500 knots (Military can be higher)

180
Q

List altitude ranges for engine type

A

Piston: up to 12000’
Turboprop: 13000-25000’
Jet: 25000’ and up

181
Q

List rate of climb for the 3 engine types

A

Piston: 500-1500’/minute
Turboprop: 1500-3000’/minute
Jet: 1500-6000’/minute (commercial jets commonly 2000-3000)

Rate of climb decreases with height, it is greatest below 5000’

182
Q

List the rate of descent for the 3 engine types

A

Piston: 500-1500’/minute
Turboprop: 1500-4000’/minute
Jet: 2000-6000’/minute

Rate of descent is fastest at higher altitudes

183
Q

Define a rate one turn and what engine classes use this turn

A

A rate one turn is 3 degrees persecond or 1 minute for a full 180 degree turn.
Piston and turboprop planes can achieve this turn rate

184
Q

Define a half rate turn and what engine class uses this turn

A

A half rate turn is 1.5 degrees per sond or 2 minutes for a full 180 degree turn. Jets use this type of turn. they have more speed and a great turn angle which results in a slower, wider turn.

185
Q

Waht is a runup and what engine class is it most pertinent to?

A

Runup is a preflight check of system operation. Piston engines are the most complicated and have a larger runup. Turboprops are minimal and Jets generally have no runup or it can be achieved while taxiing to the runway.

186
Q

Describe aircraft acceleration delay by engine type

A

Piston engine have no delay. they have immediate power. Jet and turboprop have longer delay with Jets being the most. Larger planes will have a greater acceleration delay

187
Q

FOD (engine impact)

A

Foreign object or debris is most important to the functionality of jet engines but modern designs have decreased the threat that it poses to their operation.

188
Q

Describe coarse vs fine propellor pitch

A

coarse pitch is a larger attack angle and fine pitch is a smaller attack angle. Coarse is good for cruising and fine is more power in the short distance. (thrust vs torque)

189
Q

Describe the difference of adjustable vs controllable prop pitch

A

Adjustable is changeable on the ground and controllable is changeable mid flight

190
Q

Describe prop feathering

A

Blades in extreme coarse pitch (think fully open shutters), stops rotation, limits drag and vibration to stop the engine.

191
Q

Are flaps primary or secondary control surfaces?

A

Secondary (the rudder and elevators are primary control surfaces)

192
Q

What do flaps do for aircraft performance?

A

they increase lift at a given speed, can be altered to induce drag making landing easier and increasing stall speeds.

193
Q

Name the 5 types of wake turbulence

A

Wing tip vortices
Rotor tip vortices (chopper)
Jet engine thrust stream (jet wash)
Rotor Downwash (chopper)
Prop Wash

194
Q

What are the factors in an aircrafts ability to deal with turbulence?

A

Wingspan and responsiveness of the aircraft (positive correlation)

195
Q

Describe induced roll and how it affects planes

A

Vortices induce aircraft roll. Planes with wingspans that are larger the the vortice have a greater ability to combat induced roll than planes whos wingspan is encompassed by the vortice.

196
Q

Describe the ground effect (turbulence vortices)

A

Vortices that contact the ground will move outward in the absence of wind (roughly 5km)

197
Q

How can smaller planes avoid turbulence when landing and taking off?

A

Take off before the takeoff point of larger planes to avoid their turbulence. Land after the landing point of larger planes. Follow different climb/descent patterns to avoid post takeoff/pre landing turbulence

198
Q

How can smaller planes avoid turbulence in flight?

A

Avoid flying behind/below larger planes. Try to stay upwind of bigger planes to avoid wind-pushed vortices.

199
Q

List the aircraft weight classes

A

Light: less than 7000 kg
Medium: 7000-136000kg (737)
Large: Greater than 136000kg (777, 787, Airbus A340)
Super: Exceptionally larger aircraft like the Airbus A380 and the Antonov

200
Q

TCAS

A

Traffic alert and collision avoidance system. TCAS I and TCAS II. Difference is a mode S transponder.

201
Q

TA/RA

A

Traffic Advisory/Resolution Advisory. Provides by TCAS I and TCAS II respectively. Traffic advisories do not give pilots tools to avoid a collision. Resolution advisories tell pilots what to do to avoid a collision.
If both planes are equipped with mode S transponders the RA with offer mutual resolution advisories to keep planes away from each other.

202
Q

Waht are the differnce between mode A, C and S Transponders

A

A) ID code with no altitude information for surveillance equipment to use
C) Includes altitude info for surveillance and TCAS
S) Same as above but also allows data exchange between aircrafts

203
Q

How will a TCAS speaker announce the end of a collision threat

A

CLEAR OF CONFLICT

204
Q

Name the 4 levels of TCAS threat detection

A

Intruder: aircraft requiring a TA
Threat: aircraft requiring an RA
Proximate traffic: within 6 miles or 1200 vertical feet but not a TA or RA
Other Traffic: more than 6 miles or 1200 vertical feet.

205
Q

What are the time criteria for a TA vs an RA

A

TA: Collision in 20-48 seconds
RA: Collision in 15-35 seconds

206
Q

Are aircraft with only type A transponders visible to TCAS systems?

A

No they are only visilbe to ground based surveillance systems.

207
Q

Is ATC responsible for the pilots manoever in the case of collision avoidance?

A

No ATC is not responsible in this case. It is the pilots responsibility to alert ATC to collision avoidance and return to original clearance after avoiding the collision to acquire new clearance.

208
Q

FDE

A

Flight data entry (strip)

209
Q

How is time coded in FDEs

A

four digit number (hours and minutes 2 digits each)

210
Q

How is speed coded in FDEs

A

Speed in knots or machs is fast enough (M.xx)

211
Q

How is heading coded in FDEs

A

in degrees from magnetic north

212
Q

How is Altitude coded in FDEs

A

In hundres of feet to 18000’ then in flight levels above that (ex. FL190)

213
Q

How is Altimeter shown in FDEs

A

four digits with no decimal, to the nearest hundredth

214
Q

How is wind shown in an FDE

A

Direction/speed in degrees and knots. Round to nearest 10 degrees and 5 knots if using an anolog wind instrument. No rounding if using a digital wind instrument.

215
Q

How is visibility coded in FDEs

A

Listed in statute miles (the only aviation measure that is not in nautical miles.)

216
Q

What do 4 letter identifies typically represent

A

Aerodromes. First letter denotes country or region, second letter denotes specific country if the first letter denotes a larger region

217
Q

What letter do canadian aerodrome codes start with?

A

Generally CY

218
Q

What letter do American Aerodromes usually start with?

A

K (think Klu Klux Klan)

219
Q

What letter do Northern European aerodrome codes usually start with?

220
Q

What letter do Southern European aerodrome codes usually start with

A

L (think Lower)

221
Q

What letter to Japanese or Korean aerodrome codes usually start with

A

R (think Rattata)

222
Q

What letter do Chinese aerodrome codes usually begin with

A

Z ( Think Chineze)

223
Q

CYZF

A

Yellowknife (think Yellowzife)

224
Q

CYFB

A

Iqualuit (think baffin island)

225
Q

CYXY

A

Whitehorse (think end of the alphbet wxy, w is for whitehorse)

226
Q

CYEG

227
Q

CYYC

228
Q

CYVR

229
Q

CYYJ

A

Victoria (think Young Juliett, Juliett is related to Victoria)

230
Q

CYYZ

A

Toronto Pearson (Z is end and Toronto Pearson is the cnadian airport to end all canadian airports)

231
Q

CYXE

A

Saskatoon (think Saskatoon berries are excellent)

232
Q

CYQR

A

Regina (think Queen Regina)

233
Q

CYWG

A

Winnepeg (Think WinnipeG)

234
Q

CYUL

A

Montreal (think MontreUL)

235
Q

CYQB

A

Quebec City

236
Q

CYQX

A

Gander NL (think X atlantic)

237
Q

CYXU

A

London (think ex united kingdom)

238
Q

CYHM

A

Hamilton (think hmilton)

239
Q

CYOW

A

Ottowa (think OttoWa)

240
Q

CYYT

A

St Johns (think YT Johns)

241
Q

CYQM

A

Moncton (think MonQton)

242
Q

CYFC

A

Fredericton (Think FrederiCton)

243
Q

CYHZ

A

Halifax (Think Halifax Yallz)

244
Q

CYYG

A

Charlottetown (think young girl)

245
Q

What do 3 letter id codes generally stand for?

A

VORs or VORTACs, Certain NDBs or Meterological stations

246
Q

Waht do 2 letter ID codes usually stand for

A

Mostly NDBs and some DMEs

247
Q

How many letters do Airlines have in their ID codes

248
Q

AAL

A

American Airlines (Think ALL AMERICAN)
said: american

249
Q

ACA

A

Air Canada
said: air canada

250
Q

BAW

A

British Airways
Said: Speedbird

251
Q

BLS

A

Bearskin Airways (think Bears love skin)
said: bearskin

252
Q

CAV

A

Calm Airways (think caves are calm)
said: Calm Air

253
Q

CFC

A

Canadian Armed Forces (Canadian forces are cool)
said: Can Force

254
Q

CPA

A

Cathay Pacific (think Cathy is a CPA)
said: CATHAY

255
Q

CRQ

A

Air Creebec (Think CReebeQ)
said: Cree

256
Q

JZA

A

Air Canda Jazz
said: Jazz

257
Q

NWT

A

Northwest Territorial Airways
said: Territorial

258
Q

UAL

A

United Airlines
said: United

259
Q

WJA

A

Westjet (think westjet airlines)
said: westjet

260
Q

What do H/ M/ and L/ stand for

A

Aircraft weight categories heavy, medium and light. If this is omitted in coding the aircraft is assumed to be medium.

261
Q

What type of aircraft are Piper Cherokee, Piper Navajo, Twin Otter, Beech Duchess and Cessna 172

262
Q

What type of Aircraft are Gulfstream Aerospec 5, Cessna Citation, Embraer 190?

263
Q

What type of aircraft are Beech King Air, Lockhead Hercules, Dehavilland Dash, Saab 340?

264
Q

What type of Aircraft are Robinson R44 and Bell Jet Ranger

A

Helicopters

265
Q

YXC

A

Cranbrook (think x-tra cranberry)

266
Q

YVR

A

Vancouver VOR

267
Q

YOW

A

Ottawa VOR

268
Q

YDC

A

Princeton (think Don Corleon was a mafia prince)

269
Q

YXI

A

Killaloe (think x=dead it was killed)

270
Q

VLN

A

Lumsden (think LumsdeN)

271
Q

YYN

A

Swift Current

272
Q

YQL

A

Lethbridge (think quite low down alberta)

273
Q

VLR

A

Langruth (think LangRuth, your grandma laying Ruth)

274
Q

VBI

A

Sioux Narrows (think bind it tight, narrow)

275
Q

VLV

276
Q

YQT

A

Thunder Bay (think Thunderstorms are Quite important to aviation)

277
Q

YQM

278
Q

YJT

A

Stephenville NL

279
Q

YYT

A

Terbay NL (think TerbaY)

280
Q

What are co-channels

A

When the smae frequency is used on parts of the eglobe where the signals will not intersect

281
Q

Frequency Protected Service Volume (FPSV)

A

Boundaries ensuring a frequency is used to service a specific area

282
Q

PALs

A

Peripheral air ground links. Remote transmitters that llow for direct radio communication with planes

283
Q

Describe the readability scale of radio transmissions

A

1-5 scale where 1 is unreadable. 3 is readable but difficult and 5 is perfectly readable

284
Q

What are secondary com sources is DC fails?

A

Other towers or ACC, FSS or FIC, Other airplanes, other airlines, Police or Met offices as well as coast guard and the department of defense.

285
Q

What is the ATC interphone used for

A

Primarily IFR and CVRF movement and control messages

286
Q

What is the AMIS Interphone used for

A

For VFR and dfense VFR movement and control messages.
(Aircraft movement information services)

287
Q

What are the two lines of the Interphone

A

Landline (telephone line)
Hotline (Direct link between stations)

288
Q

True or False, IFR control and movement has higher priority on the AMIS intephone even though that is a secondary option to thhe ATC interphone for that type of communication.

289
Q

Waht is the first step in both manual signalling and voice signally when using an Interphone

A

Ask “Line Clear”

290
Q

What words can ACC controllers use to supersede existing use of an interphone?

A

Emergency or Control

291
Q

Waht does the term squawk refer to?

A

Term used by controllers assigning aircraft to a specific frequency

292
Q

What is the protocol when using the interphone hotline?

A

ID yourself and state your request. This allows the receiver to assess the urgency of your communication and prioritize if necessary.

293
Q

True or False Data Link commmunication is text based?

294
Q

Waht two forms of signal do data link coms use?

A

VHF and Satellite. Satellite used preferentially in remote areas and the north (Gander ACC uses)

295
Q

What is the differnce betweeen Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) and Secondary Surveillance radar (SSR)?

A

Primary is traditional radar, sees all objects shows range and bearing (via azimuth measurement)
Secondary uses a transponder and sends out a signal interrogating that transponder. Only sees sources that have the transponder but gets more info from them (altitude)

296
Q

RSE

A

Radar site equipment

297
Q

What is the term for the hosing that countains both PSR and SSR at major airports

A

Terminal surveillance radar

298
Q

What is the name for non-airport radar sites and how many of them are across canada

A

ISSR Independant Secondary Surveillance radar. 20

299
Q

MLAT

A

Multilateration. Recieves same signal as SSR but includes triangulation for accurate readings closer to the airport.
said: M-lat

300
Q

SMGCS

A

Surveillance Movement Guidance Control System. Radar for ground movement at major airports. Essentially and PSR pointed at the ground.

301
Q

ADS-B

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance Broadcast. Satellite position sytem. Dependant on GNSS network. Uses mode S transponders. Broadcasts called Squits

302
Q

Waht is the main benefit of ADS-B over PSR and SSR?

A

The signal can be used around the globe and signal quilaity does not degrade over distance.

303
Q

FUSION

A

Program that merges all surveillance data for controllers. Eliminates hoelss or gaps in coverage.

304
Q

CAATS

A

Canadian Automated Air Traffic System. CAATS links all flight info, simplifies controller workload. Autmatically generates flight paths and all associated sectors and control units.

305
Q

CSit

A

The visual display of CAATS. The interface controllers use to access and update critical flight info.

306
Q

EXCDS

A

program for veiwing and altering strips (which are generated in CAATS)
said: exceeds

307
Q

OIDS-R

A

Software compiling weather infor for controllers (PIREPS, obs, SIGMETS, AIRMETS)

308
Q

CVIDS

A

Graphic file storage containing operational info

309
Q

NARDS

A

NAV auxiliary radar display. Backup to CAATS and Fusion for ACC but for VFR towers it is the primary surveillance display.

310
Q

State the 5 rules of equipment operation

A

1)Test all equipment (at the beginning of shift)
2)Do not tamper
3)Display irregular operatin status info (out of order sign)
4)Report Malfunction
5)Do not use malfunctioning equipment

311
Q

What is the difference between the manoevering and the movement areas on an aredrom surface?

A

Manoeuvering are is ony taxiways and runways and the movement area is the apron

312
Q

Lighting conditiona for runways will differ based on what?

A

Whether the Airport has a precision or a non precision approach.

313
Q

What are the rules that pilots must follow when operating in the vicinity of an airport?

A

Observe traffic
Conform or avoid traffic pattern
Make all left turns
Take off and land into the wind
Continuous listneing for control communications
If controlled area, get clearances for taxi, takeoff and landing

314
Q

What is the difference between L- routes and T-Routes?

A

Both are low level routes using GNSS, but T-routes are airways serviced by ATC and L-routes are routes that are not serviced by ATC.

ATS Intro (21 decks)

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