8.4 Gene technologies Flashcards

1
Q

What is recombinant DNA technology

A

The transfer of fragments of DNA from one organism, or species, to another

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2
Q

What is the name of the organism that receives the fragment of DNA

A

Recipient

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3
Q

What 2 reasons mean the recipient can translate the DNA within the cell

A
  • Genetic code is universal
  • Transcription and translation mechanisms are universal
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4
Q

What is the recipient organism said to be after receiving the DNA fragments

A

Transgenic

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5
Q

What 2 fields may recombinant DNA technologies be beneficial

A
  • Medicine
  • Agriculture
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6
Q

Define donor DNA

A

Gene that is isolated for insertion

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7
Q

Define plasmids

A

Circular loops of DNA can be used as vector

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8
Q

What is meant by the word vector in terms of recombinant DNA technology

A

Carries the DNA into recipient

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9
Q

Define restriction endonucleases

A

Enzymes that cut DNA at specific restriction sites

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10
Q

Define DNA ligases

A

Enzymes that join sections of DNA together

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11
Q

Define sticky ends

A

2 ends of ‘cut’ DNA segments that have unpaired

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12
Q

Define recombinant DNA

A

DNA which is formed when a piece of foreign DNA is incorporated into the plasmid from a bacterium

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13
Q

Define reverse transciptase

A

Enzymes used to synthesise DNA from mRNA in specific cells

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14
Q

Define clone

A

A population of genetically identical cells or organisms

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15
Q

What happens in the isolation part of the DNA technology

A

Isolating DNA fragment that contains the gene of desired protein

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16
Q

What are the 3 steps when isolating the desired gene

A
  • Locate the gene, in cells that naturally produce the protein
  • Identify gene locus using a gene probe
  • Isolate gene from DNA
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17
Q

What organism does restriction endonucleases naturally occur in

A

Bacteria

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18
Q

What are the names of the sites where the restriction endonucleases cut the DNA

A

At specific restriction sites/ recognition sites

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19
Q

What bonds do restriction endonucleases hydrolyse

A

Phosphodiester bonds

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20
Q

Recognition sites are always _________

A

Palindromic

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21
Q

What does palindromic mean

A

Read the same forward and backward

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22
Q

What do restriction endonucleases do

A

Cut double-stranded DNA into fragments

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23
Q

What are the steps involved in using reverses transcriptase to isolate the desired gene

A
  • Extract mRNA that codes for the gene from a cell that naturally produces the protein
  • Mix the mRNA with reverse transcriptase, so complementary DNA (cDNA) is formed
  • Add the single-stranded DNA strand with DNA polymerase
  • A double-stranded DNA will form
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24
Q

What are the advantages of using reverse transcriptase to isolate genes compared to restriction endonucleases

A
  • There are far more mRNA molecules that carry the desired gene compared to DNA
  • mRNA is in the cytoplasm whereas DNA is in the nucleoplasm so fewer membrane to pass
  • No introns in mRNA, so can be put into bacteria cells
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25
Q

Why is it beneficial to have no introns in the gene that’s transferred into bacteria

A

Since bacteria have no introns so don’t know what to do with it

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26
Q

What is needed for the gene machine to work

A

The primary structure of the protein

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27
Q

Why does the primary structure of the protein need to be known to use the gene machine

A
  • Identify the amino acid sequence
  • Then determine the mRNA codons
  • Then determine the complementary DNA triplets
  • The determine the base sequence needed for the gene machine
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28
Q

What does the gene machine produce

A

Short DNA fragments

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29
Q

What is the name of the short DNA fragments that the gene machine produces

A

Oligo-nucleotides

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30
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that joins the oligo-nucleotide together in the gene machine

A

DNA ligase

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31
Q

What are the benefits of the gene machine

A
  • Intron free
  • Most accurate
  • Fastest
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32
Q

Where the DNA of 2 different organisms is combined, the product is known as

A

Recombinant

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33
Q

One method of producing DNA fragments is to make DNA from RNA using an enzyme called

A

Reverse transcriptase

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34
Q

Once restriction endonucleases have cut the DNA, it leaves 2 types of ends, name the 2 types

A
  • Sticky ends
  • Blunt ends
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35
Q

During the insertion process of gene technology, what is inserted into one end of the gene which enables transcription factors to bind

A

Promoter region

36
Q

During the insertion process of gene technology, what is inserted into the other end of the gene which releases RNA polymerase to end transcription

A

Terminator region

37
Q

When inserting gene into vector, what is important about the restriction endonucleases that are used

A

They must be the same, the same enzyme that cut the donor DNA into small fragments must cut the plasmid too

38
Q

Why must the vector and the donor DNA be cut with the same restriction endonucleases

A

So the sticky ends are complementary on the gene and the plasmid

39
Q

What is the role of DNA ligase in insertion process

A

Splice the gene into the vector

40
Q

When using a plasmid as a vector, what may happen after the plasmid has been cut open

A

The plasmid may bind to itself again without the donor DNA within

41
Q

How are plasmids reintroduced

A

By mixing plasmids with bacteria cells, so bacteria can take plasmids up

42
Q

What is the general term for the things that are used to identify bacteria with genes

A

Genetic markers

43
Q

What are genetic markers

A

Genes that are easily identifiable

44
Q

What are the 3 main genetic markers

A
  • Genes that result in antibiotic resistance
  • Genes that code for fluorescent proteins
  • Genes that code for enzymes whose action can be identified
45
Q

How is the donor DNA spliced into a plasmid with antibiotic resistance to be used as a genetic marker

A

Cut the plasmid with the 2 resistant genes, in the centre of one of the resistant genes and insert the fragment of donor DNA inside.

46
Q

How does the donor DNA being inserted into resistant region on a plasmid act as a genetic marker

A
  • The bacteria that has the recombinant plasmid won’t be resistant to the antibiotic where the donor DNA was added to
47
Q

What are the 3 possible option of bacteria after plasmid have had fragments of DNA added and mixed with the bacteria

A
  • Bacteria with no plasmids
  • Bacteria with recombinant plasmids
  • Bacteria with original plasmids
48
Q

How can scientists identify which bacteria has which type of plasmid

A

Replica plating

49
Q

Where is the gene inserted in the vector, when fluorescent markers are used

A

In the middle of the GFP gene

50
Q

Are bacteria with recombinant plasmid that have fluorescent markers, fluorescent or not

A

Not fluorescent

51
Q

What does lactase do

A

Turn colourless substrate of lactose into a blue product

52
Q

How are enzyme markers used to identify bacteria with recombinant plasmids

A

Genes are added to the centre of lactase, so bacteria with recombinant plasmids are white

53
Q

What happens in the culturing process of DNA technology

A
  • Remove the identified bacteria
  • Add to tank for fermentation
  • Where the bacteria replicate by binary fission which produces genetically identical bacteria all containing recombinant plasmids
54
Q

What does in vivo mean

A

Inside of living organism

55
Q

What does in vitro mean

A

Outside of living organism

56
Q

What is the method when cloning DNA in vitro

A

PCR machine

57
Q

What is the method when cloning DNA in vivo

A

Using bacteria cells to clone DNA

58
Q

What does PCR stand for

A

Polymerase chain reaction

59
Q

What is the role of PCR

A

DNA amplification

60
Q

What does the PCR machine do to the number of DNA molecules

A

Increase the number exponentially (double the number per unit of time)

61
Q

What is added to the PCR machine (4 things)

A
  • DNA nucleotides
  • The gene
  • Primers
  • DNA polymerase
62
Q

What type of DNA polymerase is used in the PCR machine

63
Q

What are primers

A

Short single-stranded DNA

64
Q

What are the roles of primers in PCR machine (2 roles)

A

Primers are complementary to the bases at the start of the gene we wish to clone, and primers signal DNA polymerase to start synthesising bonds

65
Q

After everything is added to the PCR machine, what temperature is the machine heated to

A

95 degrees celsius

66
Q

Why is the PCR machine heated once everything is added to the machine

A

High temperature breaks the hydrogen bonds, which unzips the DNA, so both strands can act as template

67
Q

After the PCR machine is heated to 95 degrees, what temperature is the machine then cooled to

A

55 degrees celsius

68
Q

Why is the PCR machine cooled to 55 degrees

A

Since this is the temperature that the primers complementary base pair (anneal) to DNA strand

69
Q

What is the biological word for when primers complementary base pair with DNA strand

70
Q

What is the advantage of primers annealing with DNA strand

A

To stop DNA from rejoining together

71
Q

After the PCR machine is cooled, what temperature is the machine then heated too

A

72 degrees celsius

72
Q

Why is the PCR machine heated to 72 degrees

A

Since this is the optimum temperature for Taq DNA polymerase

73
Q

What are the 5 limitations of PCR

A
  • Contamination to solution
  • Error rate
  • Size of DNA fragment that is copied
  • PCR is sensitive to inhibitors
  • Limit to amplification
74
Q

Why is contamination a limitation to PCR

A

Any DNA in machine is amplified

75
Q

Why is error rate a limitation to PCR

A

Taq DNA polymerase cannot proof read mutation in DNA replication so errors accumulate

76
Q

Why is size of DNA fragments a limitation to PCR

A

PCR machine cannot read anymore that 3000 bases

77
Q

Why is limit to amplification a limitation to PCR

A
  • Exponential growth only occurs for roughly 20 cycles, since enzymes begin to denature, concentration of nucleotides decrease
78
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning culturing techniques are required

A

In vitro cloning no culturing techniques are required

79
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning once in bacteria the DNA will automatically be copied

A

In vitro cloning, requires correct primers to be present for copying to occur

80
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning there’s almost no risk of contamination

A

In vitro cloning any contaminated DNA will also be amplified

81
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning DNA polymerase has ‘proof reading function’

A

In vitro cloning DNA polymerase does not have ‘proof reading function’

82
Q

What is the comparative statement:
Vivo cloning is very accurate

A

Vitro cloning errors accumulate

83
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning transformed bacteria can synthesise gene product

A

In vitro cloning genes must be inserted into cells to synthesise gene products

84
Q

What is the comparative statement:
Vivo cloning is relatively slow

A

Vitro cloning is extremely rapid

85
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning specific genes are isolated

A

In vitro cloning whole or broken down DNA can be copied

86
Q

What is the comparative statement:
In vivo cloning copying can be effective up to 3 million base pairs

A

In vitro cloning copying can be effective up to 3000 base pairs